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Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

Options:

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

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Question 2

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

Question 3

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

Question 4

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

Question 5

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

Question 6

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 7

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

Question 8

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

Question 9

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Question 10

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Question 11

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Question 12

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

Question 13

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

Question 14

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

Question 15

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Question 16

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Options:

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

Question 17

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

Question 18

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 19

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors.

B.

organizational process assets.

C.

project management plan,

D.

project funding requirements.

Question 20

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

Question 21

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

Options:

A.

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

Question 22

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Question 23

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

Options:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

Question 24

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

Question 25

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

Options:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

Question 26

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 27

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Question 28

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

Question 29

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Question 30

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project management plan

Question 31

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Question 32

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

Question 33

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Question 34

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

Question 35

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

Question 36

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

Question 37

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

Options:

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 38

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

Options:

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

Question 39

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

Options:

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

Question 40

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 41

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

Options:

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

Question 42

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Question 43

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

Question 44

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

Question 45

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Question 46

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

Options:

A.

1

B.

0.4

C.

0.5

D.

0.8

Question 47

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question 48

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

Question 49

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

Options:

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

Question 50

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

Question 51

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

Question 52

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

Options:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

Question 53

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

Question 54

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Question 55

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Question 56

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Question 57

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

Question 58

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

Options:

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Question 59

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

Options:

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

Question 60

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

Options:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Question 61

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

Question 62

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

Options:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

Question 63

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Push

B.

Pull

C.

Interactive

D.

Iterative

Question 64

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

Question 65

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 66

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Question 67

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Project scope statement.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Requirements traceability matrix.

Question 68

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

Options:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

Question 69

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

Question 70

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

Options:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

Question 71

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

Question 72

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

Question 73

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

Options:

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

Question 74

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

Question 75

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

Question 76

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Question 77

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

Question 78

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

Question 79

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

Question 80

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

Question 81

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question 82

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question 83

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

Options:

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

Question 84

Most experienced project managers know that:

Options:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

Question 85

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Options:

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question 86

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

Options:

A.

Transference

B.

Avoidance

C.

Exploring

D.

Mitigation

Question 87

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Options:

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

Question 88

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

Question 89

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

Question 90

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

Question 91

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Question 92

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

Options:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

Question 93

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 94

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Question 95

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

Question 96

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

Question 97

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

Question 98

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

Options:

A.

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Question 99

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

Question 100

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

Question 101

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Question 102

When is a project finished?

Options:

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

Question 103

An output of Control Schedule is:

Options:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

Question 104

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

Options:

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

Question 105

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

Question 106

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

Options:

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

Question 107

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests

B.

work performance information and change requests

C.

project management plan updates and work performance information

D.

issue logs and organizational process assets updates

Question 108

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

Options:

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

Question 109

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

Question 110

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Question 111

Portfolio Management is management of:

Options:

A.

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

Question 112

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

Question 113

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Question 114

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

Question 115

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

Question 116

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

Question 117

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Question 118

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Question 119

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Question 120

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question 121

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

Question 122

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Options:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

Question 123

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 124

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

Question 125

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

Question 126

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

Question 127

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

Question 128

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Question 129

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

Question 130

During project selection, which factor is most important?

Options:

A.

Types of constraints

B.

Internal business needs

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

Question 131

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Question 132

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Question 133

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

Question 134

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

Question 135

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

Options:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

Question 136

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

Options:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

Question 137

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Question 138

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

Question 139

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

Question 140

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

Question 141

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Question 142

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

Options:

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

Question 143

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Question 144

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

Question 145

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

Question 146

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

Question 147

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

Question 148

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

Options:

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

Question 149

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

Question 150

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Question 151

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Question 152

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Question 153

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Question 154

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

Question 155

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Question 156

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question 157

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

Question 158

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

Options:

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

Question 159

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

Question 160

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

Options:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

Question 161

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

Question 162

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

Question 163

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Question 164

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question 165

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

Options:

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

Question 166

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

Question 167

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

Question 168

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

Question 169

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Corrective action

B.

Defect repair

C.

Preventative action

D.

Probable action

Question 170

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Question 171

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Question 172

What conflict resolution technique involves delaying the issue or letting others resolve it?

Options:

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Collaborate/problem solve

C.

Withdraw/avoid

D.

Force/direct

Question 173

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

Options:

A.

Co-location

B.

Lite-cycle

C.

Diversity

D.

Management

Question 174

Which format can a network diagram take?

Options:

A.

Flow chart

B.

Control chart

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Cause-and-effect diagram

Question 175

Which group of inputs will a project manager use during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Project charter, business documents, and project management plan

B.

Agreements, scope baseline, and project management plan

C.

Project charter, business case, and project management plan

D.

Work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and project management plan

Question 176

Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

Options:

A.

Requirements keep changing.

B.

An artifact must be produced.

C.

A tool or technique is required.

D.

Each project is unique.

Question 177

In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

Options:

A.

Only during the initiation and Closing phases

B.

During the initiation and Planning phases

C.

During each iteration as the project progresses

D.

Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting

Question 178

Which of the following is an example of an organizational system that is arranged based on the job being performed?

Options:

A.

Simple

B.

Multi-divisional

C.

Functional

D.

Project-oriented

Question 179

With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?

Options:

A.

Suppliers

B.

Customers

C.

Governing bodies

D.

Project team

Question 180

A project manager Is in the process of working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, and identifying and fostering communication and involvement. Which process does this typically represent?

Options:

A.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Monitor Communications

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question 181

According to the PMI Talent Triangle. leadership skills relate to the ability to:

Options:

A.

understand the high-level overview of the organization

B.

tailor traditional and agile tools for the project

C.

work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery

D.

guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals

Question 182

Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?

Options:

A.

Identity the different aspects of me team to manage and control physical resources efficiently.

B.

Procure equipment, materials, facilities, and infrastructure for the project.

C.

Train the team members in project skill sets.

D.

Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member.

Question 183

Directing another person to get from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors and the ability to lead a team and inspire them to do their jobs well is related to?

Options:

A.

Influence and challenge

B.

Innovation and administration

C.

Leadership and management

D.

Engagement and guidance

Question 184

Which components of the project management plan are inputs used when creating the stakeholder engagement plan?

Options:

A.

Risk, resource, and communications management plans

B.

Scope, quality, and resource management plans

C.

Procurement, integration, and risk management plans

D.

Communications, schedule, and cost management plans

Question 185

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

Options:

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

Question 186

Which is an example of analogous estimating?

Options:

A.

Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.

B.

Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.

C.

Estimates are created by analyzing data.

D.

Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.

Question 187

Which of the following are outputs of the Define Scope process in Project Scope Management?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

Question 188

What are the objectives of Initiation processes?

Options:

A.

Initiation processes are performed in order to develop the project charier and Identify stakeholders.

B.

Initiation processes are performed in order to obtain budget approval for a project or phase and approve scope with customers.

C.

Initiation processes are performed to identify business objectives for a project or phase and identify stakeholders' goals.

D.

Initiation processes are performed to map initial requirements for a project or phase and prioritize them with stakeholders.

Question 189

A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs lo make this decision?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Change management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Resource management plan

Question 190

Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?

Options:

A.

Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer's satisfaction.

B.

Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.

C.

Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.

D.

Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.

Question 191

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

Question 192

A project manager Is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management, and Is clarifying and resolving previously Identified issues. In which process is the project manager engaged?

Options:

A.

Identify Stakeholders

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Monitor Slakeholder Engagement

Question 193

The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:

Options:

A.

project scope

B.

product scope

C.

service scope

D.

product breakdown structure

Question 194

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

Options:

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

Question 195

A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

Options:

A.

0.88

B.

1.12

C.

0.58

D.

1.58

Question 196

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

Question 197

Which of the following describes the similarities of the process groups and project life cycle?

Options:

A.

The life cycle involves three project management process groups.

B.

Both provide a basic framework to manage the project.

C.

Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups.

D.

The project life cycle is managed by executing the processes within the five process groups.

Question 198

Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Hybrid methodologies

B.

Risk register updates

C.

Outsourced project resources

D.

Reliance on lessons learned documents

Question 199

What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?

Options:

A.

Earned value management (EVM)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC)

C.

Earned value analysis (EVA)

D.

Budget at completion (BAG)

Question 200

The Agile principle "welcome changing requirement, even late in development" relates to which agile manifesto?

Options:

A.

Working software over comprehensive documentation

B.

Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

C.

Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

D.

Responding to change over following a plan

Question 201

How can a project manager determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Look at the quality metrics.

B.

Validate the scope.

C.

Review the quality checklist.

D.

Conduct a quality audit.

Question 202

Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Communications process?

Options:

A.

Project communications, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates

B.

Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

C.

Communications management plan, project management plan updates, work performance report, and project documents update

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

Question 203

In which organizational structure would the project manager have most authority?

Options:

A.

Matrix-weak

B.

Matrix-balanced

C.

Matrix-strong

D.

Organic or simple

Question 204

Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.

Options:

Question 205

What is one of the main purposes of the project chatter?

Options:

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definition of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

Question 206

Stakeholder identification and engagement should begin during what phase of the project?

Options:

A.

After the project management plan is completed

B.

After the stakeholder engagement plan is completed

C.

As soon as the project charter has been approved

D.

After the communications management plan is completed

Question 207

Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

B.

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, obtaining quotes or proposals, and controlling procurements

C.

Controlling procurements, identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, and contracting with selected vendors

D.

Obtaining quotes or proposals, identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

Question 208

What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Interpersonal skills

C.

Team agreements

D.

Communication skills

Question 209

A new project has been set. Four main stakeholders besides the project manager and four other team members have been identified. How many communication channels are available?

Options:

A.

8

B.

18

C.

36

D.

40

Question 210

Which of the following are components of the technical project management skill?

Options:

A.

Ability to explain business aspects of the project, business strategy, goals and objectives, and business value.

B.

Ability to deal with people, to be collaborative, and to apply persuasion and negotiation.

C.

Ability to focus on relationships with people, inspire trust, and implement decisions and actions that support the business strategy.

D.

Ability to plan and prioritize, gather the right artifacts available for each project, and focus on critical success factors.

Question 211

Which of the following technology platforms is most effective for sharing information when managing virtual project teams?

Options:

A.

Video conferencing

B.

Audio conferencing

C.

Shared portal

D.

Email/chat

Question 212

Which of these is true of project integration management?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

Question 213

In which sphere of influence is the project manager demonstrating the value of project management and advancing the efficacy of the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

The organization

B.

The project

C.

The industry

D.

The product

Question 214

How can a project manager maintain the engagement of stakeholders in a project with a high degree of change?

Options:

A.

Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plans

B.

Send all project documents to stakeholders each time they are modified

C.

Schedule monthly meetings with the stakeholders, including team members

D.

Engage only with the project sponsors

Question 215

A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan. Which process group addresses this?

Options:

A.

Initiating Process Group

B.

Planning Process Group

C.

Executing Process Group

D.

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

Question 216

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

Question 217

What is an output of the plan resource management process

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Risk register

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Stakeholder register

Question 218

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

Question 219

A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase. What is the project manager's key responsibility during this phase?

Options:

A.

Defining the scope of the project

B.

Building a collaborative environment

C.

Creating a detailed project management plan

D.

Directing the delivery of the project

Question 220

Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders should be Identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the success of the project directly.

B.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged once the prototype is completed to provide their feedback but refrain from making inputs during the project.

C.

Project stakeholders should be identified when the project chatter is being completed and engaged during requirements gathering.

D.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged during requirements elicitation but not during the Define Scope process.

Question 221

Which is the correct hierarchy in a project environment, from most to least Inclusive?

Options:

A.

Projects, portfolios, then programs

B.

Portfolios, programs, then projects

C.

Portfolios, projects, then programs

D.

Projects, programs, then portfolios

Question 222

What organizational asset can influence the Plan Risk Management process?

Options:

A.

Corporate policies and procedures for social media, ethics, and security

B.

Organizational risk policy

C.

Stakeholder register templates and instructions

D.

Organizational communication requirements

Question 223

During the planning phase, a project manager must create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to improve management of the project's components. What should be included in the WBS?

Options:

A.

Activity dependencies

B.

Work package risks

C.

Description of work

D.

Resource estimates

Question 224

In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Question 225

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Plan Scope Management

Question 226

The project manager is explaining to others the essential business aspects of the project. To which skill category does this ability belong?

Options:

A.

Technical project management skills

B.

Time management skills

C.

Strategic and business management skills

D.

Leadership skills

Question 227

A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place. What technique was followed?

Options:

A.

Collective decision making

B.

Multicriteria decision analysis

C.

Mind mapping

D.

Affinity diagram

Question 228

A project manager is formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. What is an input to this process?

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables

B.

Validated deliverables

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Completed change requests

Question 229

Which three of the following are key traits of a project leader? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Focus on the horizon.

B.

Rely on control.

C.

Challenge the status quo and do things differently.

D.

Focus on near-team goals.

E.

Convey trust and inspire trust in other team members.

Question 230

A project manager is managing a small project that has a time constraint. What should the project manager do to ensure the delivery is on time?

Options:

A.

Increase quality review cycles.

B.

Schedule the tasks in parallel.

C.

Schedule the tasks in sequence.

D.

Expand the scope of the project.

Question 231

Who should the stakeholders consult to discuss concerns about the current work package?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

Business analyst

C.

Project coordinator

D.

Project sponsor

Question 232

Select three elements that apply to agile/ adaptive environments

Options:

A.

Frequent team checkpoints

B.

Colocation

C.

Access to information

D.

Virtual team members

E.

Geographically dispersed team

Question 233

During the execution phase of a multibillion-dollar project, the project manager encountered performance issues with some of the team members. In a performance review meeting, the project manager noticed that the team members do not follow SMART objectives.

What are SMART objectives?

Options:

A.

Specific, measurable, accurate, relevant, and time-bound.

B.

Specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound.

C.

Specific, measurable, accurate, realistic, and time-bound.

D.

Specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound.

Question 234

Which behavior relates to team leadership'?

Options:

A.

Centering on systems and structure

B.

Providing guidance using the power of relationships

C.

Accepting the status quo

D.

Focusing on operational issues and problem solving

Question 235

What process group includes processes performed to complete work to satisfy the project requirements defined in the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

Question 236

An international company that is starting to practice an adaptive approach has several development teams located globally. They are having problems with multiple time zones and repetitive project schedule slippage. What effective tools should the project teams use to collaborate?

Options:

A.

Benchmark and adopt best practices that are being used by the competition.

B.

Focus on developing products by only using teams that are colocated.

C.

Arrange frequent colocated meetings and let the teams work together.

D.

Adopt an iterative development approach and conduct virtual meetings.

Question 237

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

B.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery timeline.

Question 238

In an interactive communication model, how is the sender ensured that the message was understood by the receiver?

Options:

A.

The receiver decodes the message

B.

The receiver responds to the message with feedback.

C.

The receiver transmits the message

D.

The receiver acknowledges their receipt of the message

Question 239

Who defines the scope of the product

Options:

A.

The client

B.

The project manager

C.

The team

D.

The program manager

Question 240

What can a requirements traceability matrix enable regardless of the project methodology being used?

Options:

A.

Identification of missing and superfluous requirements

B.

Evaluation of solution and system performance

C.

Investigation of the viability of a new product

D.

Creation of a solid business case

Question 241

A project manager is working on project cost management. The following information is current.

* Planned value = 30

* Actual cost = 35

* Earned value = 28

Considering this data, which project indicator is correct?

Options:

A.

Schedule Variance (SV) = 2

B.

Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 0.80

C.

Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 1.93

D.

Cost Variance (CV) = 7

Question 242

Which factors should be considered for cross-cultural communication?

Options:

A.

Background, personality, and communications management plan

B.

Personality, background, and escalation process

C.

Sponsor relationship, personality and background

D.

Current emotional state, personality, and background

Question 243

What is the purpose of the protect management process groups?

Options:

A.

To define a new project

B.

To track and monitor processes easily

C.

To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives

D.

To link specific process inputs and outputs

Question 244

After defining activities in project schedule management, which processes should a project manager follow?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Estimate Activity Durations and Control Schedule

C.

Develop Schedule and Control schedule

D.

Review Activities and Develop Schedule

Question 245

Which of the following does a portfolio combine?

Options:

A.

Projects, change management, and operations

B.

Projects, programs, and risks

C.

Projects, programs, and operations

D.

Operations, strategies, and business continuity

Question 246

A project manager is calculating the current budget. The earned value (EV) of the project is lower than the actual cost (AC) of the project. How should the project manager report the status of the project?

Options:

A.

The project is at risk as the cost variance (CV) is negative.

B.

The project is tracking well as the cost variance (CV) is negative.

C.

The project is within budget but is delayed.

D.

The project is within budget and within schedule.

Question 247

A business analyst needs to ensure the project team understands the most critical roles and responsibilities within the requirements change process. Which responsibility is the most important?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the change

B.

Discussing the change

C.

Analyzing the change

D.

Approving the change

Question 248

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is

curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

Options:

A.

An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.

B.

An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria that is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.

C.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor, a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process

D.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

Question 249

A new project manager is assigned to a high-visibility project. The project manager starts with the requirements analysis process. Who should the project manager onboard to assist with the requirements traceability matrix or analysis?

Options:

A.

Systems analyst

B.

Business analyst

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Technical consultant

Question 250

How can emotional intelligence (EI) be effective in project management?

Options:

A.

By preparing a project plan and managing the team members

B.

By planning for user acceptance testing

C.

By establishing project resource allocation

D.

By reducing tension and increasing cooperation among team members

Question 251

What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?

Options:

A.

Cultural influences

B.

Physical environmental elements

C.

Commercial databases

D.

Infrastructure

Question 252

A project manager has joined the sponsor to verify the last deliverable of the project. The sponsor is measuring and examining the deliverable to determine whether it meets the requirements and product acceptance criteria. Which activity is being performed?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Prototyping

C.

Decision making

D.

Brainstorming

Question 253

What process in Project Risk Management prioritizes project risks?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Implement Risk Responses

Question 254

A business case is being assembled. Which two elements are necessary to complete this process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Business goals and objectives

E.

Risk register

Question 255

Due to organizational changes, a new product owner joins a project The product owner wants to review the process used to obtain team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete project work.

What process should the project manager review with the product owner?

Options:

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Plan Resource Management

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Control Resources

Question 256

In a demonstration meeting with a customer, the project team presented deliverables that were considered ready for customer use. The team based the results on a checklist of all the required criteria for the project.

Which of the following elements is the team using?

Options:

A.

Definition of ready (DoR)

B.

Burndown chart

C.

Backlog refinement

D.

Definition of done (DoD)

Question 257

The handoff of the first version of a software application to the operational team has taken a month longer than anticipated. How could this extended transition time have been avoided?

Options:

A.

If the operation team members were trained externally

B.

If the transition process was agreed upon during the build

C.

If the end-user documentation was more thorough

D.

If the operations manager was invited to all sprint reviews

Question 258

A software development team is pulling work from its backlog to be performed immediately as they become available. What emerging practice for project scheduling is the team using?

Options:

A.

Iterative

B.

On-demand

C.

Interactive

D.

Quality

Question 259

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Product release plan

C.

Product management plan

D.

Project release plan

Question 260

Which of the following can a project manager conduct if they have a stakeholder who is unresponsive and/or unsupportive?

Options:

A.

Interactive communications

B.

Pull communications

C.

Push communications

D.

Communication style assessment

Question 261

Select two key benefits of the Control Procurements process

Options:

A.

Enables the development of make-or-buy decisions

B.

Ensures that contract performance meets the terms of the legal agreement

C.

Guarantees that legal agreements influence vendor selection

D.

Assures that legal agreements guide contract closings

E.

Helps determine whether a certain type of contract should be used

Question 262

Which procurement management process includes obtaining seller response, seller selection, and contract awarding?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement

B.

Manage Procurement

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Perform Procurement

Question 263

A project team is tasked with decomposing the scope to enable detailed cost and duration estimates. What should the team do to achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Prepare a WBS with task sequencing and detail the duration and cost estimates.

B.

Prepare a WBS for immediate tasks in the plan to work package level for duration and cost estimates.

C.

Prepare a work breakdown structure (WBS) to include each deliverable with a target duration and cost estimate.

D.

Prepare a WBS to work package level to effectively manage duration and cost estimates.

Question 264

A project manager is assigned to a project, and the sponsor signals to perform first actions. However, the project manager is unsure how to apply organizational resources into project activities before a formal authorization. Which document should be used in this case?

Options:

A.

Project plan

B.

Business case

C.

Budget requirement

D.

Project charter

Question 265

What organizational process asset (OPA) can impact a project?

Options:

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Preapproved supplier lists

C.

Physical environmental elements

D.

Legal restrictions

Question 266

What can a project1 manager review to understand the status of project?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) status

B.

Quality and technical performance measures

C.

Cost and scope baselines

D.

Business case completeness

Question 267

A project is in the planning phase and ready for plan review and approval when a sponsor switch happens. What should the next course of action be?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications Management

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 268

Perform Quantitative Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a lsit of known risks and preparing responses to them

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and impact for every risk in the risk register

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project's time and cost objectives

Question 269

An adaptive team is performing the kickoff meeting and planning the project management approach. After defining project events, one team member argues that the artifacts are missing. The project manager coaches the team to complete the planning.

Which two of the following items should be included in the planning? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Sprint backlog

B.

Daily scrum

C.

Increments

D.

Sprint retrospective

E.

Sprint review

Question 270

Which of the following conditions should the project manager consider when working on the scheduling for an adaptive environment?

Options:

A.

Defining, sequencing, estimating activity duration, and developing a schedule model are so tightly inked that they are viewed as a single process.

B.

The detailed project schedule should remain flexible throughout the project to accommodate newly gained knowledge

C.

An iterative scheduling and on-demand, pull-based scheduling will be required.

D.

To address the full delivery schedule, a range of techniques may be needed and then need to be adapted

Question 271

A business analyst sent multiple meeting requests via instant message to a subject matter expert (SME) working in another country but did not receive a response. What should the business analyst do to reduce the likelihood of this occurring in the future with other stakeholders distributed across multiple locations?

Options:

A.

Check with the IT department to see if there is a technical issue.

B.

Assume the meeting request is accepted unless declined.

C.

Ask each stakeholder for their preferred communication method.

D.

Confirm the time zone and work days in each location.

Question 272

What characteristic of servant leadership supports resource management in an agile environment?

Options:

A.

Lecturing

B.

Construing

C.

Measuring

D.

Coaching

Question 273

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

B.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery time line.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

Question 274

The project manager and the project team are in the process of documenting procurement decisions. Which of the following will be the procurement strategy?

Options:

A.

Payment types, delivery methods, and procurement phases

B.

Procurement metrics, make-or-buy decisions, and procurement statement of work

C.

Vendor selection criteria, stakeholder roles and responsibilitys, and prequalified sellers

D.

Timetable procurement activities, product cost, and knowledge transfer schedule

Question 275

A project manager is reviewing some techniques that can be used to evaluate solution results. The intent is to determine if the solution provides the functionality for typical usage by a stakeholder with in-depth business knowledge.

Which evaluation technique is most effective for this situation?

Options:

A.

Day-in-the-life testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

User acceptance testing

D.

Integration testing

Question 276

Drag the five stages of team development on the left onto the blocks on the right to place them in sequential order.

Options:

Question 277

What tools or techniques can be used in all cost management processes'?

Options:

A.

Decision making and expert judgment

B.

Expert judgment and data analysis

C.

Data analysis and meetings

D.

Meetings and cost aggregation

Question 278

A project manager is seeking assistance from the business analyst for an IT project. What assistance can the business analyst provide?

Options:

A.

Elicit product requirements.

B.

Verify product functionality.

C.

Allocate project resources.

D.

Manage the project schedule.

Question 279

What kind of skills should a project manager use when attempting to achieve consensus by balancing the conflicting and competing goals of project stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Interpersonal skills and the ability to manage people

B.

Strategic and business management skills

C.

Technical and business management skills

D.

Business analysis skills and expertise

Question 280

Two members of the team are having a conflict..............or partially resolve the problem

Two members of the team are having a conflict. The project manager decides that, in this case, the best solution is to bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties, in order to temporarily or partially resolve the problem.

Which technique should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/Avoid

B.

Smooth/Accommodate

C.

Compromise/Reconcile

D.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

Question 281

Construction of a building has stopped due to a supplier's failure to deliver concrete. The project schedule is behind by three months. What should the project manager do to overcome this problem and put the project back on track?

Options:

A.

Consult the legal department and subject matter experts (SMEs) regarding what to do to avoid failure.

B.

Extend the time of product delivery and use management reserve to cover any losses.

C.

Accept any penalties that might occur and continue working as initially planned.

D.

Follow the risk response plan and allocate resources, if needed, to overcome the issue.

Question 282

What is the Project Schedule Management practice used to deliver incremental value to the customer'?

Options:

A.

Resource optimization

B.

Iterative scheduling with a backlog

C.

On-demand scheduling

D.

Critical path method

Question 283

A Scrum team has a product backlog and a sprint backlog. Which of the following is a correct statement related to these artifacts?

Options:

A.

The product backlog does not contain a prioritized list of requirements.

B.

The sprint backlog contains items to be completed during the current sprint.

C.

The sprint backlog contains the list of items prioritized by the product owner.

D.

The product backlog is a subset of the sprint backlog.

Question 284

Based on a previous project that has been completed, a project manager decides the best way to estimate costs is through historical data. What kind of estimating is this?

Options:

A.

Parametric

B.

Bottom-up

C.

Three-point

D.

Analogous

Question 285

A project manager is newly assigned to a project. Which document can help the project manager understand the project scope?

Options:

A.

Context diagram

B.

Data flow diagram

C.

User interface flow

D.

Process flow diagram

Question 286

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 287

Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

Options:

A.

Balanced matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

Question 288

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Budget estimates

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Procurement documents

Question 289

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Question 290

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

Options:

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

Question 291

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

Options:

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

Question 292

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

0

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Question 293

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

Question 294

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

Options:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

Question 295

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

Question 296

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Question 297

While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

Options:

A.

ends.

B.

begins.

C.

delays.

D.

deviates.

Question 298

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

Question 299

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Options:

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

Question 300

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

Question 301

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

Question 302

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

Question 303

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

Options:

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

Question 304

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

Question 305

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

Question 306

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:

Options:

A.

influencing

B.

leadership

C.

motivation

D.

coaching

Question 307

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

Question 308

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

Options:

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

Question 309

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

Options:

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Question 310

Which item is a cost of conformance?

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

Question 311

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

Question 312

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 313

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

Question 314

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

Options:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

Question 315

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

Options:

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

Question 316

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

Options:

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

Question 317

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 318

Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Resource leveling

D.

Schedule network analysis

Question 319

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

Question 320

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

Question 321

Which items are components of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

Question 322

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

Options:

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

Question 323

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

Question 324

A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Management

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Control Stakeholder Engagement

Question 325

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

Options:

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

Question 326

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

Options:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

Question 327

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

Options:

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

Question 328

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

Question 329

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Question 330

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

Options:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

Question 331

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question 332

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

Options:

A.

tangible

B.

targeted

C.

organized

D.

variable

Question 333

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

Options:

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

Question 334

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

Question 335

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

Question 336

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Question 337

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

Options:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

Question 338

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

Options:

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

Question 339

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

16

Question 340

In project management, a temporary project can be:

Options:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

Question 341

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

Question 342

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

Options:

A.

project staff assignments

B.

project tea m acquisition

C.

managing conflicting interests

D.

communication methods

Question 343

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

Question 344

When should quality planning be performed?

Options:

A.

While developing the project charter

B.

In parallel with the other planning processes

C.

As part of a detailed risk analysis

D.

As a separate step from the other planning processes

Question 345

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 346

An element of the project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

Question 347

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

Options:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

Question 348

Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?

Options:

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Affinity diagram

C.

Tree diagram

D.

Activity network diagram

Question 349

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

Question 350

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

Options:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

Question 351

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question 352

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

Options:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

Question 353

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Question 354

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Question 355

Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question 356

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 357

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

Options:

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Question 358

A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Closing

Question 359

A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Performance reporting.

C.

Bidder conferences.

D.

Reserve analysis.

Question 360

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

Options:

A.

10.

B.

12.

C.

20.

D.

24.

Question 361

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

Question 362

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 363

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Purchase order

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Bidder conference

Question 364

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

Options:

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

Question 365

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Options:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

Question 366

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

Question 367

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

Options:

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

Question 368

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

Question 369

Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Work

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Plan Quality Management

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Question 370

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Organizational process assets

Question 371

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

Options:

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Service level agreement

C.

Memorandum of understanding

D.

Business case

Question 372

A regression line is used to estimate:

Options:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

Question 373

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

Question 374

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

Question 375

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Question 376

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

Options:

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$175

Question 377

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Question 378

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

Question 379

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

Options:

A.

Benefit

B.

Initiative

C.

Objective

D.

Process

Question 380

Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 381

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Question 382

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

Question 383

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Question 384

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

Options:

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

Question 385

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

Question 386

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Risk register

Question 387

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 388

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

Question 389

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

Options:

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

Question 390

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

Options:

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

Question 391

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

Options:

A.

Feedback analysis

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Stakeholder management plan

Question 392

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

Question 393

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

Question 394

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

Question 395

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Question 396

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

Options:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

Question 397

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Options:

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

Question 398

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

Question 399

The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Planning

Exam Detail
Vendor: PMI
Certification: CAPM
Exam Code: CAPM
Last Update: Jun 15, 2025
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