Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
Refer to the exhibit.
For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:
• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.
• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.
• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.
• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.
Which configuration must be used?
When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?
A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.
Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)
B)
C)
D)
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If
the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?
What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
Refer to the exhibit.
With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?
An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
Refer to Exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
Refer to the exhibit.
The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.
What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?
Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )
Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.
Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?
What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?
What Is a syslog facility?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right
Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
Refer to the exhibit.
If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
What is the function of a server?
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
Refer to the exhibit.
Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.
Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root bridge?
What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?
On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?
Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?
What is a benefit of VRRP?
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?
Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?
What are network endpoints?
Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.
Which command accomplishes this task?
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
Refer to the exhibit.
When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right
How does QoS optimize voice traffic?
which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?
What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)
How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.
Refer to Exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
Refer to the exhibit.
How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)
What is a DNS lookup operation?
What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?
What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?
Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose two)
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
Why choose Cisco DNA Center for automated lifecycle management?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches?
Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?
It work security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?
Which is a fact related to FTP?
Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC?
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?
Which two wireless security stewards use Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol for encryption and data integrity'? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured conrectly, and the expected routes are being exchanged among the routers. Which set of routes are leamed from neighbors and installed on router 2?
Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch AccSw2 has just been added to the network along with PC2. All VLANs have been implemented on AccSw2. How must the ports on AccSw2 be configured to establish Layer 2 connectivity between PC1 and PC2?
B. 
C. 
D. 
Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:
• using an industry-standard trunking protocol
• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs
How must the interconnecting ports be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.
What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?
A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP address 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?
Refer to the exhibit. With a reference bandwidth of 100 Gb on all routers, which path does router Y use to get to network 192.168.1.0/24?
An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?
What is the function of northbound API?
What is a functionality of the control plane in the network?
A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1. 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am. Which command should be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?
Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?
Refer to the exhibit. Company A wants to use a RADIUS server to service all user and device authentication attempts with a more secure and granular authentication approach. Not all client devices support dot1x authentication. Which two configuration changes must be made to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken so that neighbofing devices rapidly discover switch Cat9300?
What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?
What is the benefit of using FHRP (First Hop Redundancy Protocol)?
Refer to the exhibit. Four load-balancing servers are reachable through this router; however, the company is removing all static and default routes on the router.
Server 1 - 10.12.14.14
Server 2 - 192.168.4.4
Server 3 - 209.165.200.5
Server 4 - 209.165.201.26
Which server will handle all traffic after the policy changes take effect?
Refer to the exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the lookback3 interface of the Washington router.
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule Issue. Which subnet and mask Identify what is configured on the en0 interface?
A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?
Which enhancements were implemented as part of WPA3?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the prefix length for the route that router1 will use to reach host A?
Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?
Refer to Itie exhibit
A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:
* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically
* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen
Which two commands must be configured to complete this task"? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
In which structure does the word "warning" directly reside?
What is used as a solution for protecting an individual network endpoint from attack?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
What is the role of SNMP in the network?
Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)
What is a DHCP client?
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the subnet masks from the left onto the corresponding subnets on the right. Not all subnet masks used.
An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2.
An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP
What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?
How does network automation help reduce network downtime?
SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?
A)
B)
C)
D)
An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer configures the CCNA WLAN so that clients must authenticate hourly and to limit the number of simultaneous connections to the WLAN to Which two actions complete this configuration? (Choose two.)
What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?
When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?
What are two reasons a switch experiences frame flooding? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?
Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?
Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from the left onto the corresponding modes on the right.
Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?
Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?
Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?
Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?
Which interface condition is occurring in this output?
Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.
Which set of actions corrects the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Which key function is provided by the data plane?
Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.
Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table
How does the switch handle the frame?
Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)
An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?
Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17
O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20
R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8
R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12
Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)
What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?
What are two behaviors of a point-to-point WAN topology? (Choose two.)
How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?
Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.
Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?
What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
How does MAC learning function?
Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.
Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?
B. 
C. 
D. 
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
How does automation affect network management processes?
How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:
Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.
Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.
Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is adding another physical interface as a new member to the existing Port-Channel1 bundle.
Which command set must be configured on the new interface to complete the process?
Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?
What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
What is represented by the word "LB13" within this JSON schema?
Refer to the exhibit.
The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?
Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addresses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated address self-assignment on the IPv6 network?
Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?
Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?
How does MAC learning function?
What is the function of generative AI in network operations?
An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)
What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?
Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
What is the main purpose of SSH management access?
An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?
What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.
What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?
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In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).
