Refer to the exhibit.
Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?
Refer to the exhibit.
Load-balanced traffic is coming in from the WAN destined to a host at 172.16.1.190. Which next-hop is used by the router to forward the request?
What happens when a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that recently aged out?
Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?
Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configured on the right. Not all commands are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
How many objects, Keys and JSON list values are present?
Drag and drop the management connection types from the left onto the definitions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A.
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?
How does MAC learning function on a switch?
A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?
What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule Issue. Which subnet and mask Identify what is configured on the en0 interface?
After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of each enterprise router with a local username and password. Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?
Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 must be implemented on R1 to the ISP The uplink between R1 and the ISP must be configured with a manual assignment, and the LAN interface must be self-provisioned Both connections must use the applicable IPv6 networks Which two configurations must be applied to R1? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?
Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States?
Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto their description on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?
Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.
Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?
Refer to the exhibit.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?
Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right. Not all terms are used.
Which two wireless security stewards use Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol for encryption and data integrity'? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What determines the sequence in which materials are planned during the material requirements planning (MRP) run?
Refer to the exhibit.
What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)
Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?
What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?
Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?
Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS to host virtual machines?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
The P2P blocking action option is disabled on the WLC.
Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?
What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?
Which capability does TFTP provide?
A)
B)
C)
D)
An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP
What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?
What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?
How is a configuration change made to a wireless AP in lightweight mode?
A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)
How does IPsec provide secure networking for applications within an organization?
Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets are flowing from 192.168 10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20 75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?
What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?
Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?
The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?
Refer to the exhibit.
After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?
Refer to the exhibit.
An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two
changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose
two )
Refer to the Exhibit.
After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?
An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?
What is the benefit of using FHRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?
Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?
When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.
Which IP address is the source IP?
Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
What describes the operation of virtual machines?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
What is a DHCP client?
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )
Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)
What is a benefit of VRRP?
in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose two)
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?
A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
Refer to the exhibit.
A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)
B)
C)
D)
An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
Refer to the exhibit.
What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.
What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
Refer to the exhibit.
If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?
(Choose two.)
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this configuration?
What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?
What Is a syslog facility?
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)