Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?
Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.
How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?
Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?
Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?
Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
What is the benefit of using FHRP?
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?
What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?
What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
What is a DNS lookup operation?
Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.
Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
Which output displays a JSON data representation?
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right
What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?
Refer to the exhibit.
After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
Refer to the exhibit.
After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?
What does physical access control regulate?
When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?
Refer to Exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.
Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
Refer to the exhibit.
which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?
Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )
After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
Refer to the Exhibit.
After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?
Which network action occurs within the data plane?
When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?
When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?
What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?
What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Which is a fact related to FTP?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the component details on the right.
Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?
Which component controls and distributes physical resources for each virtual machine?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must translate the PC1 IP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)
Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?
Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?
Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?
Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. A network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet passes through R2.
Which command must be used?
Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)
Which CRUD operation corresponds to me HTTP GET method?
Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IP address 192.168 0 10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from me left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.
Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?
What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics from the lett onto the corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?
What is the difference between SNMP traps and SNMP polling?
Refer to the exhibit.
A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements:
• accommodates current configured VLANs
• expands the range to include VLAN 20
• allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs
Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule Issue. Which subnet and mask Identify what is configured on the en0 interface?
Drag and drop the HTTP methods used with REST-Based APIs from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)
What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?
Why implement VRRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
How does MAC learning function on a switch?
When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?
How do UTP and STP cables compare?
A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
Drag and drop the characteristics of northbound APIs from the left onto any position on the right. Not all characteristics are used.
A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP address 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is shown?
Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?
What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)
What is an Ansible inventory?
Refer to the exhibit.
An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:
• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2
• R1 will never participate in DR elections
• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.
Which configuration must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is the put method within HTTP?
Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?
A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A switch is forwarding a frame out of all interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?
Refer to the exhibit.
The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?
A manager asks a network engineer to recommend a cloud service model so that employees do not spend time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which per-hop QoS behavior is R1 applying to incoming packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?
Refer to the exhibit.
The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?
Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?
How does MAC learning function on a switch?
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)
Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the globally unique address classes?
Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.
Which command creates a static NAT binding for a PC address of 10.1.1.1 to the public routable address 209.165.200.225 assigned to the PC?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit. Company A wants to use a RADIUS server to service all user and device authentication attempts with a more secure and granular authentication approach. Not all client devices support dot1x authentication. Which two configuration changes must be made to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)
Which AP mode serves as the primary hub in a point-to-multipoint network topology.
Which device separates networks by security domains?
What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?
Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?
What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?
What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)
Refer to Exhibit.
Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.
Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
What is a function of TFTP in network operations?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.
Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
What is the purpose of an SSID?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?
Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right
An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
Refer to the exhibit.
The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?
Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?
If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?
Refer to the exhibit.
Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Which function does an SNMP agent perform?
What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.
All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate, register, and accept terms before accessing the internet?
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?
Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?
Which statement describes virtual machines?
Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.
Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?
Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
Which interface condition is occurring in this output?
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?
Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?
How does MAC learning function?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID "Office_WLan" has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
What is the function of generative AI in network operations?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17
O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20
R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8
R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12
Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?
What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?
Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop is used to route packets to the application server at 152.168.32.85?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.
Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?
Which statement describes virtualization on containers?
Which role does AI play in monitoring network data flow?
How does MAC learning function?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
What is represented by the word "LB13" within this JSON schema?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
How does automation affect network management processes?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)
How does MAC learning function?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?
Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?
A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP address of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?
Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?
Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?
Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.
Which set of actions corrects the configuration?
Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?
What is represented in line 3 within this JSON schema?
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?
Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the host address of 192.168.18.16?
Refer to the exhibit. All routers In the network are configured. R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configured on R2 to be elected as the DR in the network?
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
What is the main capability of multifactor authentication?
Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)
Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a function of Layer 3 switches?
How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the metric for the route to the 192.168.10.33 host?
Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices from the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?
What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?
Which switch port configuration must be configured when connected to an AP running in FlexConnect mode, and the WLANs use flex local switching?
What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23
Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addresses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated address self-assignment on the IPv6 network?
An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?
Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN routing is configured on SW1. Client A is running Linux as an OS in VLAN 10 with a default gateway IP 10.0.0.1 but cannot ping client B in VLAN 20 running Windows. What action must be taken to verify that client A has the correct IP settings?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:
Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.
Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.
Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
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