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Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit.

The static route is not present in the routing table of an adjacent OSPF neighbor router. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the next hop of 10.20.20.1 in the prefix list DMZ-STATIC

B.

Configure the next-hop interface at the end of the static router for it to get redistributed

C.

Configure a permit 20 statement to the route map to redistribute the static route

D.

Configure the subnets keyword in the redistribution command

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Question 2

Refer to the exhibit SW100 cannot receive routes from R1 Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option C

Question 3

What are the two prerequisites to enable BFD on Cisco routers? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

A supported IP routing protocol must be configured on the participating routers.

B.

OSPF Demand Circuit must run BFD on all participating routers.

C.

ICMP must be allowed on all participating routers.

D.

UDP port 1985 must be allowed on all participating routers.

E.

Cisco Express Forwarding and IP Routing must be enabled on all participating routers.

Question 4

Refer to lhe exhibit An engineer must filter EIGRP updates that are received to block all 10 10 10.0/24 prefixes The engineer tests the distribute list and finds one associated prefix. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

There is a permit in the route map that allows this prefix A deny 20 statement is required with a match condition to match a new ACL that denies all prefixes

B.

There is a permit in the ACL that allows this prefix into EI6RP. The ACL should be modified to deny 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255.

C.

There is a permit in the route map that allows this prefix A deny 20 statement is required with no match condition to block the prefix.

D.

There is a permit in the ACL that allows this prefix into EIGRP. The ACL should be modified to deny 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0.

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Establish connectivity between the NTP server and the switch.

B.

Configure the local time on Cisco DNA Center

C.

Configure the local time on the SW1 device

D.

Establish connectivity between the NTP server and Cisco DNA Center.

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting suboptimal communication from the 192.168.5.32/28 subnet to the 172.16.3.16/28 segment using the slowest links. Which configuration resolves the suboptimal routing issue?

Options:

A.

R1(config-router)#router elgrp 100

R1(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1 metric 1000000 1111

B.

R2{config-router)#router ospf 1

R2{config-roiiter)#default-metric 1

R1(config-router)#router ospf 1

R1(config-router)#default-metric 10

C.

R2(config-router)#ro liter eigrp 100

R2(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1 metric 1000000 1111

D.

R2(config-router)#ro uter ospf 1

R2(config-router)#default-metric 10

R1(config-router)#router ospf 1

R1(config-router)#default-metric 1

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer cannot determine the time of the problem on R1 due to a mismatch between the router local clock and legs. Which command synchronizes the time between new log entries and the local clock on R1?

Options:

A.

service timestamps debug datetime msec show.timezone

B.

service timestamps log datetime locatetime msec

C.

service timestamps datebug datetime localtime msec

D.

service timestamps log datetime msec show-timezone

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit.

During ISP router maintenance, the network produced many alerts because of the flapping interface. Which configuration on R1 resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

no snmp trap link-status

B.

snmp trap link-status down

C.

snmp trap ip verify drop-rate

D.

ip verify drop-rate notify hold-down 60

Question 9

Which Layer 3 VPN attribute allows different customers to connect to the same MPLS network with overlapping IP ranges?

Options:

A.

MP-BGP

B.

VRF

C.

RT

D.

RD

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit.

A shoe retail company implemented the uRPF solution for an antispoofing attack. A network engineer received the call that the branch A server is under an IP spoofing attack. Which configuration must be implemented to resolve the attack?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit An engineer observes that every time the ICMP packet is lost at a polling interval, track 1 goes down, which causes unnecessary disruption and instability in the network. The engineer does not want the traffic to be rerouted if the loss of ICMP packets is negligible. If the packet loss is persistent for a longer duration, the track must go down and the traffic must be rerouted. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Change the IP SLA schedule to run only at certain intervals.

B.

Increase the threshold value from 1000 to 1500.

C.

Increase the timeout value from 1000 to 1500

D.

Define a delay timer under track 1.

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration advertises more specific routes to R1 without sending a BGP summary route?

Options:

A.

R1#configure terminal

R1 (config)#rouler BGP 100

R1 (conflg-router)#no auto-summary

B.

R1#configure terminal

R1 (config)#router BGP 100

R1 (config-router)#auto-summary

C.

R2#configure terminal

R2 (conflg)#router BGP 100

R2 (config-rouler)»no auto-summary

D.

R2#configure terminal

R2 (config)#router BGP 100

R2 (config-router)#auto-summary

Question 13

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer finds that PC1 is accessing the hotel website to do the booking but fails to make payment. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Allow stub network 10.10.202.168/30 on router R3 OSPF.

B.

Decrease the AD to 5 OSPF route 192.168.94.0 on R1.

C.

Increase the AD to 200 of static route 192.168.94.0 on R3.

D.

Configure a reverse route on R1 for PC1 172.16.1.0/24.

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit.

A prefix list is created to filter routes inbound to an EIGRP process except for network 10 prefixes After the prefix list is applied no network 10 prefixes are visible in the routing table from EIGRP. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 20 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 9.

B.

ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32

C.

ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 5 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 9 no ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 20 permit 10.0.0.0/8

D.

ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 20 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 9 ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit. The ISP router is fully configured for customer A and customer B using the VRF-Lite feature. What is the minimum configuration required for customer A to communicate between routers A1 and A2?

Options:

A.

A1interface fa0/0description To->ISPip add 172.31.100.1 255.255.255.0no shut!router ospf 100net 172.31.100.1 0.0.0.255 area 0A2interface fa0/0description To->ISPip add 172.31.200.1 255.255.255.0no shut!router ospf 100net 172.31.200.1 0.0.0.255 area 0

B.

A1interface fa0/0description To->ISPip vrf forwarding Aip add 172.31.100.1 255.255.255.0no shut!router ospf 100net 172.31.100.1 0.0.0.255 area 0A2interfacefa0/0description To->ISPip vrf forwarding Aip add 172.31.200.1 255.255.255.0no shut!router ospf 100net 172.31.200.1 0.0.0.255 area 0

C.

A1interface fa0/0description To->ISPip add 172.31.200.1 255.255.255.0no shut!router ospf 100net 172.31.200.1 0.0.0.255 area 0A2interface fa0/0description To->ISPip add 172.31.100.1 255.255.255.0no shut!router ospf 100net 172.31.100.1 0.0.0.255 area 0

D.

A1interface fa0/0description To->ISPip vrf forwarding Aip add 172.31.100.1 255.255.255.0no shut!router ospf 100 vrf Anet 172.31.200.1 0.0.0.255 area 0A2interface fa0/0description To->ISPip vrf forwarding Aip add 172.31.100.1 255.255.255.0no shut!router ospf 100 vrf Anet 172.31.200.1 0.0.0.255 area 0

Question 16

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wanted to make R1 always elected as DR. R2 as BDR. and R3 as DROTHER but could not achieve the desired results. Which two configurations resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

On the R1 FO/0 interface, configure OSPF priority to 255.

B.

On the R2 FO/0 interface, configure OSPF priority to 201.

C.

On the R1 F0/0 interface, configure OSPF priority to 202.

D.

On the R3 FO'O interface, configure OSPF priority to 201.

E.

On the R2 FO/0 interface, configure OSPF priority to 200.

Question 17

Refer to the exhibit. The users from subnet 172.16.1.16/28 are experiencing connectivity issues to subnet 172.16.2.32/48. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#route-map REDIST permit 10

R1(config-route-map) #match Ip address 15

R1 (config-route-map) #exit

R1(config)# access-list 15 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255

R1(config-router) #router eigrp 100

R1(config-router) #redistrlbute ospf 1 route-map REDIST

B.

R1(oonfig-router) #router ospf 1

R2(config-router) #redistribute eigrp 100 subnets metric 100C.

C.

R1(config-router>#routereigrp 100

R1(config-router>#redistribute ospf 1 metric 1000000 1111

D.

R1(config)#route-map REDIST permit 10

R1(config-roule-map) #match ip address 15

R1 (config-route-map) #exlt

R1(config)# access-list 15 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255

R1(config-router) #router ospf 1

R1(config-router) #redistrlbute elgrp 100 subnets route-map REDIST

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit.

R4 is experiencing packet drop when trying to reach 172.16.2.7 behind R2. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Insert a /16 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254

B.

Insert a /24 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254

C.

Enable auto summarization on all three routers R1, R2, and R3

D.

Disable auto summarization on R2

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit. Users are experiencing slow response times from critical application servers connected to the network. The engineer determined from the console log that there is a DOS attack on the interface GigabitEthernet0/0. Which action must the engineer take to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure an access group on GigabitEthernet0/0 to block traffic from 192.168.1.1.

B.

Configure an access group on GigabitEthernet0/0 to block traffic from 172.17.132.95.

C.

Restrict CoPP traffic on the management interface from 172.17.132.95 and 192.168.1.1.

D.

Configure QoS on FastEthernet0/0 to restrict bandwidth usage for 172.17.132.95 and 192.168.1.1.

Question 20

An engineer received a ticket about a router that has reloaded. The monitoring system graphs show different traffic patterns between logical and physical interfaces when the router is rebooted. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the snmp ifindex persist command globally.

B.

Clear the logical interfaces with snmp ifindex clear command

C.

Configure the snmp ifindex persist command on the physical interfaces.

D.

Trigger a new snmpwalk from the monitoring system to synchronize interface OlDs

Question 21

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must troubleshoot a connectivity issue impacting the redistribution of the subnet 172.16.2.48/28 into the OSPF domain. Which configuration on router R1 advertises this subnet into the OSPF domain?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#route-map CCNP permit 10R1(config-route-map)#match route-type internalR1(config-router)#router ospf 10R1(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 subnets route-map CCNP

B.

R1(config)#route-map CCNP permit 10R1(config-route-map)#match route-type level-2R1(config-router)#router ospf 10R1(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 subnets route-map CCNP

C.

R1(config)#route-map CCNP deny 10R1(config-route-map)#match tag 200R1(config)#route-map CCNP permit 10R1(config-router)#router ospf 10R1(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 subnets route-map CCNP

D.

R1(config)#route-map CCNP permit 10R1(config-route-map)#match tag 200R1(config-route-map)#exitR1(config-router)#router ospf 10R1(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 subnets route-map CCNP

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit A network engineer notices that the configured track option is down Which configuration resolves the issue*?

Options:

A.

ip sla schedule 10 start-time now

B.

ip sla schedule 10 start-time pending life forever

C.

ip sla schedule 10 no timeout

D.

ip sla schedule 10 no threshold

Question 23

A company Is redesigning WAN infrastructure so that all branch sites must communicate via the head office and the head office can directly communicate with each site independently. The network engineer must configure the head office router by considering zero-touch technology when adding new sites in the same WAN infrastructure. Which configuration must be applied to the head office router to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 24

An administrator attempts to download the pack NBAR2 file using TFTP from the CPE router to another device over the Gi0/0 interface. The CPE is configured as below:

The transfer fails. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Change the WAN ACL to permit the UDP port 69 to allow TFTP

B.

Make the permit udp any eq tftp any entry the last entry in the WAN ACL.

C.

Change the WAN ACL to permit the entire UDP destination port range

D.

Shorten the file name to the 8+3 naming convention.

Question 25

Refer to the exhibit. A customer finds that traffic from the application server (192.168.1.1) to the HUB site passes through a congested path that causes random packet drops. The NOC team influences the BGP path with MED on RB. but RD still sees that traffic coming from RA is not taking an alternate route. Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 26

Which method provides failure detection in BFD?

Options:

A.

short duration, high overhead

B.

short duration, low overhead

C.

long duration, high overhead

D.

long duration, low overhead

Question 27

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer implemented an access list on R1 to allow anyone to Telnet except R2 Loopback0 to R1 Loopback4 How must sequence 20 be replaced on the R1 access list to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

sequence 20 permit tcp host 1001 ABC:2011:7:: 1 host 400A:0:400C::1 eq telnet

B.

sequence 20 deny tcp host 400A:0:400C::1 host 1001 :ABC:2011:7::1 eq telnet

C.

sequence 20 deny tcp host 1001:ABC:2011:7::1 host 400A:0:400C::1 eq telnet

D.

sequence 20 permit tcp host 400A:0:400C::1 host 1001ABC:2011:7::1 eq telnet

Question 28

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer implemented CoPP to limit Telnet traffic to protect the router CPU. It was noticed that the Telnet traffic did not pass through CoPP Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 29

Refer to the exhibit.

Which set of commands restore reachability to loopback0?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 30

Users report issues with reachability between areas as soon as an engineer configured summary routes between areas in a multiple area OSPF autonomous system. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the summary-address command on the ASBR.

B.

Configure the summary-address command on the ABR.

C.

Configure the area range command on the ABR.

D.

Configure the area range command on the ASBR.

Question 31

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 test its directly connected EIGRP peer 172.16.33.2 (SW1). Which configuration resolves the issue1?

Options:

A.

key chain EIGRP key 1 key-string Cisco!interface Gigabit Ethernet 2 IP authentication mode elgrp 88 md5 IP authentication key-chain elgrp 88 EIGRP

B.

key chain EIGRP key1 key-string Cisco!interface Gigabit Ethernet 2.10 IP authentication mode eigrp 88 md5 IP authentication key-chain eigrp 88 Cisco

C.

key chain EIGRP key 1 key-string Cisco !interface Gigabit Ethernet 2.10 IP authentication mode elgrp 88 md5 IP authentication key-chain eigrp 88 EIGRP

D.

key chain EIGRP key1 key-string Cisco !interface Gigabit Ethernet 2 IP authentication mode eigrp 88 md5 IP authentication key-chain elgrp 88 Cisco

Question 32

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures two ASBRs 10 4 17.6 and 10 4 15 5 in an OSPF network to redistribute routes from EIGRP However, both ASBRs show the EIGRP routes as equal costs even though the next-hop router 10 4 17 6 is closer to R1 How should the network traffic to the EIGRP prefixes be sent via 10 4.17.6?

Options:

A.

The administrative distance should be raised to 120 from the ASBR 10.4.15 5.

B.

The redistributed prefixes should be advertised as Type 1

C.

The ASBR 10 4 17 6 should assign a tag to match and assign a lower metnc on R1

D.

The administrative distance should be raised to 120 from the ASBR 104.17.6

E.

The admitstrative distance should be raised to 120 from the ASBR 104 15.5.

F.

The redistributed prefixes should be advertised as Type 1.

G.

The ASBR 10 4 17 6 should assign a tag to match and assign a tower metnc on R1

Question 33

A customer reports that traffic is not passing on an EIGRP enabled multipoint interface on a router configured as below:

interface Serial0/0

no ip address

interface Server0/0/0.9 multipoint

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.248

ip split-horizon eigrp 1

Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Enable poison reverse

B.

Enable split horizon

C.

Disable poison reverse

D.

Disable split horizon

Question 34

Refer to the exhibit. The engineer is getting an error when trying to transfer a new IOS file to the router. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Delete some files on the router flash memory.

B.

Delete some files on the router NVRAM.

C.

Remove any access-list filtering the TFTP file transfer.

D.

Split the file into parts to transfer them one by one.

Question 35

:579

Refer to the exhibit. Router ABR-Rtr is not propagating the internet routes in OSPF area 10. which causes internet reachability problems in the area. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ABR-Rtr must configure the default-information originate always command.

B.

ABR-Rtr must configure the area 10 stub no-summary command.

C.

ABR-Rtr network type must be broadcast network.

D.

ABR-Rtr must advertise the 0.0.0.0/0 default route in area 10.

Question 36

Refer to the exhibit A company builds WAN infrastructure between the head office and POPs using DMVPN hub-and-spoke topology to provide end-to-end communication All POPs must maintain point-to-point connectivity with the head office Which configuration meets the requirement at routers R12 and R13?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 37

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables OSPF for area 0 interfaces to adjacency with a neighboring router with the same VRF?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1 vrf CCNPinterface Ethernet1ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0interface Ethernet2ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

B.

router ospf 1interface Ethernet1ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0interface Ethernet2ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

C.

router ospf 1 vrf CCNPnetwork 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0network 10.2.2.2 0.0.0.0 area 0

D.

router ospf 1 vrf CCNPnetwork 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

Question 38

Refer to the exhibit.

The security department recently installed a monitoring device between routers R3 and R5, which a loss of network connectivity for users connected to R5. Troubleshooting revealed that the monitoring device cannot forward multicast packets. The team already updated R5 with the correct configuration. Which configuration must be implemented on R3 to resolve the problem by ensuring R3 as the DR for the R3-R5 segment?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit R1 cannot establish a neighbor relationship with R2 Which action resolves the issue"?

Options:

A.

Configure the mtu Ignore command on the Interfaces of R1 and R2

B.

Configure the ip ospf network point-to-point command on the interfaces of R1 and R2

C.

Configure the ip ospf network broadcast command on the interfaces of R1 and R2

D.

Configure the neighbor 2.2.2.2 command on R1 under the OSPF process

Question 40

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has a route map configured, which results in a loss of partial IPv6 prefixes for the BGP neighbor, resulting in service degradation. How can the full service be restored?

Options:

A.

The neighbor requires a soft reconfiguration, and this will clear the policy without resetting the BGP TCP connection.

B.

The prefix lit requires all prefixes that R1 is advertising to be added to it, and this will allow additional prefixes to be advertised.

C.

The route map requires a deny 20 statement without set conditions, and this will allow additional prefixes to be advertised.

D.

The route map requires a permit 20 statement without set conditions, and this will allow additional prefixes to be advertised.

Question 41

Refer to the exhibit. R10 attempts to copy an image file from R11 using TFTP, and the operation is timing out. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Change R10 duplex to auto to resolve the duplex mismatch between routers R10 and R11.

B.

R10 must be configured to belong to the same VRF TFTP.

C.

R11 requires the TFTP server source-interface to be set to GigabitEthernetO/0.

D.

R11 requires the TFTP server command for the image to be set to the VRF TFTP.

Question 42

A network engineer must configure a DMVPN network so that a spoke establishes a direct path to another spoke if the two must send traffic to each other. A spoke must send traffic directly to the hub if required Which configuration meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 43

The network administrator configured the router for Control Plane Policing to limit OSPF traffic to be

policed to 1 Mbps. Any traffic that exceeds this limit must also be allowed at this point for traffic

analysis. The router configuration is:

access-list 100 permit ospf any any

!

class-map CM-OSPF

match access-group 100

!

policy-map PM-COPP

class CM-OSPF

police 1000000 conform-action transmit

!

control-plane

service-policy output PM-COPP

The Control Plane Policing failed to monitor and police OSPF traffic. Which configuration resolves this

issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 44

An engineer is creating a policy that overrides normal routing behavior.if the route to a destination of

10.100.100.0/24 is withdrawn from the routing

Table, the policy must direct traffic to a next hop of 10.1 1.1. if the route is present in the routing table, then

normal forwarding must occur. Which

configuration meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

access-list 100 permit ip any any!route-map POLICY permit 10match ip address 100set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1

B.

access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255!Route-map POLICY permit 10match ip address 100set ip default next-hop 10.1.1.1

C.

access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255!route-map POLICY permit 10match ip address 100set ip next-hop 10.1.1.1!route map POLICY permit 20

D.

access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255!route map POLICY permit 10match ip address 100Set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1!route-map POLICY permit 20

Question 45

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure a LAN-to-LAN IPsec VPN between R1 and the remote router. Which IPsec

Phase 1 configuration must the engineer use for the local router?

Options:

A.

crypto isakmp policy 5authentication pre-shareencryption 3deshash shagroup 2!crypto isakmp key cisco123 address 200.1.1.3

B.

crypto isakmp policy 5authentication pre-shareencryption 3deshash md5group 2!crypto isakmp key cisco123 address 200.1.1.3

C.

crypto isakmp policy 5authentication pre-shareencryption 3deshash md5group 2!crypto isakmp key cisco123 address 199.1.1.1

D.

crypto isakmp policy 5authentication pre-shareencryption 3deshash md5group 2!crypto isakmp key cisco123! address 199.1.1.1

Question 46

Refer to the exhibit The SNMP server with IP address 172.16 4 4 cannot access host router A Which configuration command on router A resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

snmp-server community ccnp

B.

access-list 4 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.3

C.

access-list 4 permit host 172.16.4.4

D.

snmp-server host 172.16.4.4 ccnp

Question 47

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured BGP and wants to select the path from 10.77.255.57 as the best path instead

of current best path. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure AS_PATH prepend for the current best path

B.

Configure higher MED to select as the best path

C.

Configure AS_PATH prepend for the desired best path

D.

Configure lower LOCAL_PREF to select as the best path

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit An engineer must connect the Reno and Detroit spokes using DMVPN phase 2 Hub tunnel configuration is

Which configuration accomplishes the task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 49

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer implemented CoPP but did not see OSPF traffic going through it. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ip access-list extended OSPF permit ospf any any

B.

policy-map COPP class OSFP police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit violate-action drop

C.

control-plane service-policy input COPP

D.

class-map match-all OSFP match access-group name OSPF

Question 50

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator notices these console messages from host 10.11.110.12 originating from interface E1/0. The administrator considers this an unauthorized attempt to access SNMP on R1. Which action prevents the attempts to reach R1 E1/0?

Options:

A.

Configure IOS control plane protection using ACL 90 on interface E1/0

B.

Configure IOS management plane protection using ACL 90 on interface E1/0

C.

Create an inbound ACL on interface E1/0 to deny SNMP from host 10.11.110.12

D.

Add a permit statement including the host 10.11.110.12 into ACL 90

Question 51

An engineer must establish a connection between two CE routers for two customers with overlapping IP addresses Customer_a is connected to interfaces Gig0/0, and Customer_b is connected to interfaces Gig0/1. Routers CE1 and CE2 are configured as follows:

Drag and drop the code snippets from the right onto the boxes in the configuration to establish the needed connection. Snippets may be used more than once.

Options:

Question 52

Refer to the exhibit.

AS111 is receiving its own routes from AS200 causing a loop in the network. Which configuration provides loop prevention?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 53

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must troubleshoot a connectivity issue impacting the redistribution of the subnet 172.16.2.48/28 into the OSPF domain. Which configuration on router R1 advertises this subnet into OSPF?

Options:

A.

R1(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 subnets route-map CCNP

R1(config)#router ospf 10

R1(config-route-map)#match route-type level-2

R1(config)#route-map CCNP permit 10

B.

R1(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 subnets route-map CCNP

R1(config)#router ospf 10

R1(config)#route-map CCNP permit 10

R1(config-route-map)#match tag 200

R1(config)#route-map CCNP deny 10

C.

R1(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 subnets route-map CCNP

R1(config)#router ospf 10

R1(config-route-map)#match route-type internal

R1(config)#route-map CCNP permit 10

D.

R1(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 subnets route-map CCNP

R1(config)#router ospf 10

R1(config-route-map)#exit

R1(config-route-map)#match tag 200

R1(config)#route-map CCNP permit 10

Question 54

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is configuring a GRE tunnel to establish an EIGRP neighbor to a remote router. The other tunnel endpoint is already configured. After applying the configuration as shown, the tunnel started flapping. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Stop sending a route matching the tunnel destination across the tunnel.

B.

Modify the network command to use the Tunne10 Interface netmask.

C.

Advertise the Loopback0 interface from R2 across the tunnel.

D.

Readdress the IP network on the Tunne10 on both routers using the /31 netmask.

Question 55

Refer to the exhibit.

The none area 0 routers in OSPF still receive more specific routes of 10.1.1.0.10.1.2.0.10.1.3.0 from area 0. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure route summarization on OSPF-enabled interfaces.

B.

Summarize by using the summary-address 10.1.0.0 255.255.252.0 command.

C.

Summarize by using the area range command on ABRs

D.

Configure the summary-address 10.1.0.0 255.255.252.0 command under OSPF process.

Question 56

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer Is troubleshooting a routing loop on the network to reach the 172.16.3.0/16 from the OSPF domain. Which configuration on router R1 resolves the Issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 57

Refer to the exhibit. A customer reports a failure and intermittent disconnection between two office buildings, site X and site Y. The network team determines that both sites are exchanging email application traffic with the data center network. Which configuration resolves the issue between site X and site Y?

Options:

A.

R5(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.2 next-hop-self

R5(config)#router bgp 65101

B.

R2(config-router)#no timers bgp 3 15

R2(config)#router bgp 65101

C.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.5 update-source loopback 0

R2(config)#router bgp 65101

D.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.5 next-hop-self

R2(config)#router bgp 65101

Question 58

A newly installed spoke router is configured for DMVPN with the ip mtu 1400 command. Which configuration allows the spoke to use fragmentation with the maximum negotiated TCP MTU over GRE?

Options:

A.

ip tcp adjust-mss 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation after-encryption

B.

ip tcp adjust-mtu 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation after-encryption

C.

ip tcp adjust-mss 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation mtu-discovery

D.

ip tcp adjust-mtu 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation mtu-discovery

Question 59

Refer to the exhibit. The default route is not advertised to the neighboring router. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the redistribute static metric 200 subnets command under OSPF.

B.

Configure OSPF on the Dialer0 interface.

C.

Configure the network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 command under OSPF.

D.

Configure the default-information originate command under OSPF.

Question 60

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has configured policy-based routing and applied the configured to the correct interface. How is the configuration applied to the traffic that matches the access list?

Options:

A.

It is sent to 209.165.202.131.

B.

It is sent to 209.165.202.129.

C.

It is dropped.

D.

It is forwarded using the routing table lookup.

Question 61

Which technique removes the outermost label of an MPLS-tagged packet before the packet is forwarded to an adjacent LER?

Options:

A.

label swap

B.

explicit-null

C.

label imposition

D.

PHP

Question 62

Which MPLS value is combined with the IP prefix to convert to a VPNv4 prefix?

Options:

A.

16-byte Route Distinguisher

B.

8-byte Route Target

C.

16-byte Route Target

D.

8-byte Route Distinguisher

Question 63

An engineer is implementing a coordinated change with a server team. As part of the change, the engineer must configure interlace GigabitEthernet2 in an existing VRF "RED" then move theinterface to an existing VRF "BLUE" when the server team is ready. The engineer configured interface GigabitEthemet2 in VRF "RED"

Which configuration completes the change?

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet2no ip addressvrf forwarding BLUE

B.

interface GigabitEthernet2no vrf forwarding REDvrf forwarding BLUEip address 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.254

C.

interface GigabitEthernet2no vrf forwarding REDvrf forwarding BLUE

D.

interface GigabitEthernet2no ip addressip address 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.254vrf forwarding BLUE

Question 64

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the Customer Edge router (AS 64511) to send only summarized routes toward ISP-1 (AS 100) and ISP-2 (AS 200).

router bgp 64511

network 172.16.20.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.21.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.22.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.23.0 mask 255.255.255.0

aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0

After this configuration. ISP-1 and ISP-2 continue to receive the specific routes and the summary route. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

router bgp 64511aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only

B.

router bgp 64511neighbor 192.168.100.1 summary-onlyneighbor 192.168.200.2 summary-only

C.

interface E 0/0ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC!interface E 0/1ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC!ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22 ge 24!route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC

D.

ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC deny 172.16.20.0/22 ge 22ip prefix-list PL BLOCK SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22!route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC!router bgp 64511aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255 255.252.0 suppress-map BLOCKSPECIFIC

Question 65

What are two MPLS label characteristics? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The label edge router swaps labels on the received packets.

B.

Labels are imposed in packets after the Layer 3 header.

C.

LDP uses TCP for reliable delivery of information.

D.

An MPLS label is a short identifier that identifies a forwarding equivalence class.

E.

A maximum of two labels can be imposed on an MPLS packet.

Question 66

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is being monitored using SNMP and monitoring devices are getting only partial information. What action should be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the CoPP policy to increase the configured exceeded limit for SNMP.

B.

Modify the access list to include snmptrap.

C.

Modify the CoPP policy to increase the configured CIR limit for SNMP.

D.

Modify the access list to add a second line to allow udp any any eq snmp

Question 67

Refer to Exhibit.

The network administrator configured the branch router for IPv6 on the E0/0 interface. The neighboring router is fully configured to meet requirements, but the neighbor relationship is not coming up. Which action fixes the problem on the branch router to bring the IPv6 neighbors up?

Options:

A.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the router ospfv3 4 process by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

B.

Disable IPv6 on the E0/0 interface using the no ipv6 enable command

C.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the E0/0 interface by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

D.

Disable OSPF for IPv4 using the no ospfv3 4 area 0 ipv4 command under the E0/0 interface

Question 68

Drag and drop the actions from the left into the correct order on the right to configure a policy to avoid following packet forwarding based on the normal routing path.

Options:

Question 69

Refer to the exhibit.

A client is concerned that passwords are visible when running this show archive log config all.

Which router configuration is needed to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

MASS-RTR(config-archive-log-cfg)#password encryption aes

B.

MASS-RTR(config)#aaa authentication arap

C.

MASS-RTR(config)#service password-encryption

D.

MASS-RTR(config-archive-log-cfg)#hidekeys

Question 70

Which IGPs are supported by the MPLS LDP autoconfiguration feature?

Options:

A.

RIPv2 and OSPF

B.

OSPF and EIGRP

C.

OSPF and ISIS

D.

ISIS and RIPv2

Question 71

In which two ways does the IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table operate? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

by IPv6 routing protocols to securely build neighborships without the need of authentication

B.

by the recovery mechanism to recover the binding table in the event of a device reboot

C.

by IPv6 HSRP to make sure neighbors are authenticated before being used as gateways

D.

by various IPv6 guard features to validate the data link layer address

E.

by storing hashed keys for IPsec tunnels for the built-in IPsec features

Question 72

Refer to the exhibit.

A user has set up an IP SLA probe to test if a non-SLA host web server on IP address 10.1.1.1 accepts HTTP sessions prior to deployment. The probe is failing. Which action should the network administrator recommend for the probe to succeed?

Options:

A.

Re-issue the ip sla schedule command.

B.

Add icmp-echo command for the host.

C.

Add the control disable option to the tcp connect.

D.

Modify the ip sla schedule frequency to forever.

Question 73

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured NTP on a Cisco router to get synchronized time for system and logs from a unified time source The configuration did not work as desired Which service must be enabled to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime localtime global command.

B.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime synchronize global command.

C.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime console global command.

D.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime clock-period global command

Question 74

An engineer configured a Cisco router to send reliable and encrypted notifications for any events to the management server. It was noticed that the notification messages are reliable but not encrypted. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure all devices for SNMPv3 informs with priv.

B.

Configure all devices for SNMPv3 informs with auth.

C.

Configure all devices for SNMPv3 traps with auth.

D.

Configure all devices for SNMPv3 traps with priv.

Question 75

Exhibit:

NTP is configured across the network infrastructure and Cisco DNA Center. An NTP issue was reported on the Cisco DNA Center at 17:15. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Check and resolve reachability between the WLC and the NTP server

B.

Reset the NTP server to resolve any synchronization issues for all devices

C.

Check and resolve reachability between Cisco DNA Center and the NTP server

D.

Check and configure NTP on the WLC and synchronize with Cisco DNA Center

Question 76

Refer to the exhibit.

AS65510 iBGP is configured for directly connected neighbors. R4 cannot ping or traceroute network 192 168.100.0/24 Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure R4 as a route reflector server and configure R1 as a route reflector client

B.

Configure R1 as a route reflector server and configure R2 and R3 as route reflector clients

C.

Configure R4 as a route reflector server and configure R2 and R3 as route reflector clients.

D.

Configure R1 as a route reflector server and configure R4 as a route reflector client

Question 77

Which feature drops packets if the source address is not found in the snooping table?

Options:

A.

IPv6 Source Guard

B.

IPv6 Destination Guard

C.

IPv6 Prefix Guard

D.

Binding Table Recovery

Question 78

Refer to the exhibit.

While troubleshooting an EIGRP neighbor adjacency problem, the network engineer notices that the interface connected to the neighboring router is not participating in the EIGRP process. Which action resolves the issues?

Options:

A.

Configure the network command to network 172.16.0.1 0.0.0.0

B.

Configure the network command under EIGRP address family vrf CLIENT1

C.

Configure EIGRP metrics on interface FastEthernet0/3

D.

Configure the network command under EIGRP address family ipv4

Question 79

Drag and drop the MPLS concepts from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 80

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator can see the DHCP discovery packet in R1. but R2 is not replying to the DHCP request. The R1 related interface is configured with the DHCP helper address. If the PC is directly connected to the FaO/1 interface on R2, the DHCP server assigns as IP address from the DHCP pool to the PC. Which two commands resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

service dhcp-relay command on R1

B.

ip dhcp option 82 command on R2

C.

service dhcp command on R1

D.

ip dhcp relay information enable command on R1

E.

ip dhcp relay information trust-all command on R2

Question 81

An engineer configured Reverse Path Forwarding on an interface and noticed that the routes are dropped when a route lookup fails on that interface for a prefix that is available in the routing table Which interface configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx

B.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via any

C.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via allow-default

D.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via 12-src

Question 82

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the failed authentication attempt to the router?

Options:

A.

Configure aaa authorization login command on line vty 0 4

B.

Configure aaa authorization login command on line console 0

C.

Configure aaa authorization console global command

D.

Configure aaa authorization console command on line vty 0 4

Question 83

Refer to the exhibit. The Los Angeles and New York routers are receiving routes from Chicago but not from each other. Which configuration fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Tunnel1no ip split-horizon eigrp 111

B.

Interface Tunnel1Ip next-hop-self elgrp 111

C.

Interface Tunnel1tunnel mode Ipsec Ipv4

D.

Interface Tunnel1tunnel protection ipsec profile IPSec-PROFILE

Question 84

What are two functions of MPLS Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

LDP and BGP can be used for Pseudowire signaling.

B.

It is used for transparent point-to-multipoint connectivity between Ethernet links/sites.

C.

BGP is used for signaling customer VPNv4 routes between PE nodes.

D.

A packet with node segment ID is forwarded along with shortest path to destination.

E.

Customer traffic is encapsulated in a VPN label when it is forwarded in MPLS network.

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two paths to reach 192.168.13.0/24. but traffic is sent only through R3. Which action allows traffic to use both paths?

Options:

A.

Configure the bandwidth 2000 command under interface FastEthernet0/0 on R2.

B.

Configure the variance 4 command under the EIGRP process on R2.

C.

Configure the delay 1 command under interface FastEthernet0/0 on R2.

D.

Configure the variance 2 command under the EIGRP process on R2

Question 86

Refer to Exhibit.

Which two configurations allow clients to get dynamic ip addresses assigned?

Options:

A.

Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 61 as the first line

B.

Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 86 as the first line

C.

Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 68 as the first line

D.

Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 69 as the first line

E.

Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 67 as the first line

Question 87

Refer to the exhibit.

BGP and EIGRP are mutually redistributed on R3, and EIGRP and OSPF are mutually redistributed on R1. Users report packet loss and interruption of service to applications hosted onthe 10.1.1.0724 prefix. An engineer tested the link from R3 to R4 with no packet loss present but has noticed frequent routing changes on R3 when running the debug ip route command. Which action stabilizes the service?

Options:

A.

Tag the 10.1.1.0/24 prefix and deny the prefix from being redistributed into OSPF on R1.

B.

Repeat the test from R4 using ICMP ping on the local 10.1.1.0/24 prefix, and fix any Layer 2 errors on the host or switch side of the subnet. ^ C. Place an OSPF distribute-list outbound on R3 to block the 10.1.10/24 prefix from being advertised back to R3.

C.

Reduce frequent OSPF SPF calculations on R3 that cause a high CPU and packet loss on traffic traversing R3.

Question 88

A customer reports to the support desk that they cannot print from their PC to the local printer id:401987778. Which tool must be used to diagnose the issue using Cisco DNA Center Assurance?

Options:

A.

application trace

B.

path trace

C.

ACL trace

D.

device trace

Question 89

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator redistributed the default static route into OSPF toward all internal routers to reach to Internet. Which set of commands restores reachability to the Internet by internal routers?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1default-information originate

B.

router ospf 1network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

C.

router ospf 1redistribute connected 0.0.0.0

D.

router ospf 1redistribute static subnets

Question 90

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is discovering a Cisco Catalyst 9300 and a Cisco WLC 3504 in Cisco DNA Center. The Catalyst 9300 is added successfully However the WLC is showing [ error "uncontactable" when the administrator tries to add it in Cisco DNA Center. Which action discovers WLC in Cisco DNA Center successfully?

Options:

A.

Copy the .cert file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.

B.

Delete the WLC 3504 from Cisco DNA Center and add it to Cisco DNA Center again.

C.

Add the WLC 3504 under the hierarchy of the Catalyst 9300 connected devices.

D.

Copy the .pern file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.

Question 91

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the branch router for IPv6 on the E 0/0 interface The neighboring router is fully configured to meet requirements, but the neighbor relationship is not coming up. Which action fixes the problem on the branch router to bring the IPv6 neighbors up?

Options:

A.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the E 0/0 interface by using the address-family Ipv4 unicast command

B.

Disable IPv6 on the E 0/0 interface using the no ipv6 enable command

C.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the router ospfv3 4 process by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

D.

Disable OSPF for IPv4 using the no ospfv3 4 area 0 ipv4 command under the E 0/0 interface.

Question 92

Refer to the exhibits.

A user on the 192.168.1.0/24 network can successfully ping 192.168.3.1, but the administrator cannot ping 192.168.3.1 from the LA router. Which set of configurations fixes the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 93

Exhibit:

An engineer configured R2 and R5 as route reflectors and noticed that not all routes are sent to R1 to advertise to the eBGP peers. Which iBGP routers must be configured as route reflectors to advertise all routes to restore reachability across all networks?

Options:

A.

R1 and R4

B.

R1 and R5

C.

R4 and R5

D.

R2 and R5

Question 94

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured an IPv6 access list to allow TCP return frame only, but it is not working as expected. Which changes resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 95

Refer to the exhibit.

To provide reachability to network 10.1.1.0 /24 from R5, the network administrator redistributes EIGRP into OSPF on R3 but notices that R4 is now taking a ........... path through R5 to reach 10.1.1.0/24 network. Which action fixes the issue while keeping the reachability from R5 to 10.1.1.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

Change the administrative distance of the external EIGRP to 90.

B.

Apply the outbound distribution list on R5 toward R4 in OSPF.

C.

Change the administrative distance of OSPF to 200 on R5.

D.

Redistribute OSPF into EIGRP on R4

Question 96

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must mutually redistribute routes at the Chicago router to the LA and NewYork routers. The configuration of the Chicago router is this:

After the configuration, the LA router receives all the NewYork routes, but NewYork router does not receive any LA routes. Which set of configurations fixes the problem on the Chicago router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 97

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the adjacency issue?

Options:

A.

Match the hello interval timers.

B.

Configure the same EIGRP process IDs.

C.

Match the authentication keys.

D.

Configure the same autonomous system numbers.

Question 98

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configured redistribution on an ASBR to reach to all WAN networks but failed Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

The route map must have the keyword prefix-list to evaluate the prefix list entries

B.

The OSPF process must have a metric when redistributing prefixes from EIGRP.

C.

The route map EIGRP->OSPF must have the 10.0.106.0/24 entry to exist in one of the three prefix lists to pass

D.

EIGRP must redistribute the 10.0.106.0/24 route instead of using the network statement

Question 99

How does an MPLS Layer 3 VPN function?

Options:

A.

set of sites use multiprotocol BGP at the customer site for aggregation

B.

multiple customer sites interconnect through service provider network to create secure tunnels between customer edge devices

C.

set of sites interconnect privately over the Internet for security

D.

multiple customer sites interconnect through a service provider network using customer edge to provider edge connectivity

Question 100

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is connected with R2 via GigabitEthernet0/0, and R2 cannot ping R1. What action will fix the issue?

Options:

A.

Fix route dampening configured on the router.

B.

Replace the SFP module because it is not supported.

C.

Fix IP Event Dampening configured on the interface.

D.

Correct the IP SLA probe that failed.

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit. The remote server is failing to receive the NetFlow data Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the flow transport command transport udp 2055 to move under flow monitor profile.

B.

Modify the interlace command to Ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 Input.

C.

Modify the udp port under flow exporter profile to Ip transport udp 4739.

D.

Modify the flow record command record v4_r1 to move under flow exporter profile.

Question 102

Exhibit:

Which action resolves the authentication problem?

Options:

A.

Configure the user name on the TACACS+ server

B.

Configure the UDP port 1812 to be allowed on the TACACS+ server

C.

Configure the TCP port 49 to be reachable by the router

D.

Configure the same password between the TACACS+ server and router.

Question 103

What does the PE router convert the Ipv4 prefix to within an MPLS VPN?

Options:

A.

VPN-IPv4 prefix combined with the 64-bit route distinguisher

B.

48-bit route combining the IP and PE router-id

C.

prefix that combines the ASN, PE router-id, and IP prefix

D.

eBGP path association between the PE and CE sessions

Question 104

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator can see the traps for the failed login attempts, but cannot see the traps of successful login attempts. What command is needed to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure logging history 2

B.

Configure logging history 3

C.

Configure logging history 4

D.

Configure logging history 5

Question 105

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is using the DNA Assurance Dashboard panel to troubleshoot an OSPF adjacency that failed between Edge_NYC interface GigabitEthernet1/3 with Neighbor Edge_SNJ. The administrator observes that the neighborship is stuck in exstart state. How does the administrator fix this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure to match the OSPF interface speed and duplex settings on both routers.

B.

Configure to match the OSPF interface MTU settings on both routers.

C.

Configure to match the OSPF interface unique IP address and subnet mask on both routers.

D.

Configure to match the OSPF interface network types on both routers.

Question 106

An engineer configured policy-based routing for a destination IP address that does not exist in the routing table. How is the packet treated through the policy for configuring the set ip default next-hop command?

Options:

A.

Packets are not forwarded to the specific next hop.

B.

Packets are forwarded based on the routing table.

C.

Packets are forwarded based on a static route.

D.

Packets are forwarded to the specific next hop.

Question 107

What statement about route distinguishes in an MPLS network is true?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishes make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network.

B.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

C.

Route distinguishes are used for label bindings

D.

Route distinguishes define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router

Question 108

Refer to the exhibit. The OSPF neighbor relationship is not coming up What must be configured to restore OSPF neighbor adjacency?

Options:

A.

OSPF on the remote router

B.

matching hello timers

C.

use router ID

D.

matching MTU values

Question 109

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer wanted to set a tag of 30 to route 10 1.80.65/32 but it failed How is the issue fixed?

Options:

A.

Modify route-map ospf-to-eigrp permit 30 and match prefix-list ccnp2.

B.

Modify route-map ospf-to-eigrp permit 10 and match prefix-list ccnp2.

C.

Modify prefix-list ccnp3 to add 10.1.64.0/20 le 24

D.

Modify prefix-list ccnp3 to add 10.1.64.0/20 ge 32

Question 110

Which two components are needed for a service provider to utilize the LVPN MPLS application? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The P routers must be configured for MP-iBGP toward the PE routers

B.

The P routers must be configured with RSVP.

C.

The PE routers must be configured for MP-iBGP with other PE routers

D.

The PE routers must be configured for MP-eBGP to connect to CEs

E.

The P and PE routers must be configured with LDP or RSVP

Question 111

What is the minimum time gap required by the local system before putting a BFD control packet on the wire?

Options:

A.

Detect Mult

B.

Required Min Echo RX Interval

C.

Desired Min TX Interval

D.

Required Min RX Interval

Question 112

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1. and match the same tag on R2 to deny when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.

B.

Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1. and match the same tag on R2 to allow when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.

C.

Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.

D.

Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing domain.

Question 113

Refer to the exhibit.

The neighbor relationship is not coming up Which two configurations bring the adjacency up? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NYrouter ospf 1area 0 authentication message-digest

B.

LAinterface E 0/0ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 Cisco123

C.

NYinterface E 0/0no ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 Cisco123ip ospf authentication-key Cisco123

D.

LAinterface E 0/0ip ospf authentication-key Cisco123

E.

LArouter ospf 1area 0 authentication message-digest

Question 114

Refer to Exhibit.

Traffic from the branch network should route through HQ R1 unless the path is unavailable. An engineer tests this functionality by shutting down interface on the BRANCH router toward HQ_R1 router but 192.168.20.0/24 is no longer reachable from the branch router. Which set of configurations resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

HQ_R1(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R1(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.2

B.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 172.16.35.1

C.

HQ_R2(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R2(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.5

D.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 172.16.35.2

Question 115

Refer to the exhibit. The engineer configured and connected Router2 to Router1. The link came up but could not establish a Telnet connection to Router1 IPv6 address of 2001:DB8::1. Which configuration allows Router2 to establish a Telnet connection to Router1?

Options:

A.

jpv6 unicast-routing

B.

permit ICMPv6 on access list INGRESS for Router2 to obtain IPv6 address

C.

permit ip any any on access list EGRESS2 on Router1

D.

IPv6 address on GigabitEthernet0/0

Question 116

Refer to Exhibit.

A network administrator added one router in the Cisco DNA Center and checked its discovery and health from the Network Health Dashboard. The network administrator observed that the router is still showing up as unmonitored. What must be configured on the router to mount it in the Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

Configure router with NetFlow data

B.

Configure router with the telemetry data

C.

Configure router with routing to reach Cisco DNA Center

D.

Configure router with SNMPv2c or SNMPv3 traps

Question 117

Refer to the exhibit. Which action restores the routes from neighbors while still filtering 1.1.1.0/24?

Options:

A.

Add a second line in the access list to permit any.

B.

Modify the route map to permit the access list instead of deny it

C.

Modify the access list to deny instead of permit it.

D.

Add a second sequence in the route map permit 20

Question 118

Refer to the exhibit.

PC-2 failed to establish a Telnet connection to the terminal server. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 119

Clients on ALS2 receive IPv4 and IPv6 addresses but clients on ALS1 receive only IPv4 addresses and not IPv6 addresses. Which action on DSW1 allows clients on ALS1 to receive IPv6 addresses?

Options:

A.

Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 helper address 2002:404:404::404:404

B.

Configure DSW1(dhcp-config)#default-router 2002:A04:A01::A04:A01

C.

Configure DSW1(config)#ipv6 route 2002:404:404:404:404/128 FastEthernet1/0

D.

Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 dhcp relay destination 2002:404:404::404:404 GigabitEthernet1/2

E.

Option A

F.

Option B

G.

Option C

Question 120

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1. and match the same tag on R2 to allow when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.

B.

Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing domain.

C.

Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.

D.

Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.

Question 121

What does IPv6 Source Guard utilize to determine if IPv6 source addresses should be forwarded?

Options:

A.

ACE

B.

ACLS

C.

DHCP

D.

Binding Table

Question 122

What are two functions of IPv6 Source Guard? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It uses the populated binding table for allowing legitimate traffic.

B.

It works independent from IPv6 neighbor discovery.

C.

It denies traffic from unknown sources or unallocated addresses.

D.

It denies traffic by inspecting neighbor discovery packets for specific pattern.

E.

It blocks certain traffic by inspecting DHCP packets for specific sources.

Question 123

An engineer configured access list NON-CISCO in a policy to influence routes

What are the two effects of this route map configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Packets are not evaluated by sequence 10.

B.

Packets are evaluated by sequence 10.

C.

Packets are forwarded to the default gateway.

D.

Packets are forwarded using normal route lookup.

E.

Packets are dropped by the access list.

Question 124

Refer to the exhibit.

SanFrancisco and Boston routers are choosing slower links to reach each other despite the direct links being up Which configuration fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 125

Refer to the exhibit.

All the serial between R1, R2, and R3 have the Same bandwidth. User on the 192.168.1.0/24 network report slow response times while they access resource on network 192.168.3.0/24. When a traceroute is run on the path. It shows that the packet is getting forwarded via R2 to R3 although the link between R1 and R3 is still up. What must the network administrator to fix the slowness?

Options:

A.

Change the Administrative Distance of EIGRP to 5.

B.

Add a static route on R1 using the next hop of R3.

C.

Remove the static route on R1.

D.

Redistribute theR1 route to EIGRP

Question 126

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has successfully set up a floating static route from the BRANCH router to the HQ network using HQ_R1 as the primary default gateway When the g0/0 goes down on HQ_R1, the branch network cannot reach the HQ network 192.168.20.0/24. Which set of configurations resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

HQ_R3(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R3(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.1

B.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 192.168.100.2

C.

HQ R3(config)# Ip sla responderHQ R3(config)# Ip sla responder Icmp-echo 172.16.35.5

D.

BRANCH(config)# Ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sta)# Icmp-echo 192.168.100.1

Question 127

Which two statements about VRF-Lite configurations are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They support the exchange of MPLS labels

B.

Different customers can have overlapping IP addresses on different VPNs

C.

They support a maximum of 512.000 routes

D.

Each customer has its own dedicated TCAM resources

E.

Each customer has its own private routing table.

F.

They support IS-IS

Question 128

Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right.

Options:

Question 129

Drag and drop the DHCP messages from the left onto the correct uses on the right.

Options:

Question 130

Which transport layer protocol is used to form LDP sessions?

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

SCTP

C.

TCP

D.

RDP

Question 131

Drag and drop the SNMP attributes in Cisco IOS devices from the left onto the correct SNMPv2c or SNMPV3 categories on the right.

Options:

Question 132

Refer to the exhibit.

Redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols, and nowPC2 PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1. What are the two solutions to fix the problem? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Filter RIP routes back into RIP when redistributing into RIP in R2

B.

Filter OSPF routes into RIP FROM EIGRP when redistributing into RIP in R2.

C.

Filter all routes except RIP routes when redistributing into EIGRP in R2.

D.

Filter RIP AND OSPF routes back into OSPF from EIGRP when redistributing into OSPF in R2

E.

Filter all routes except EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF in R3.

Question 133

Drag and drop the MPLS VPN device types from me left onto the definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 134

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer for AS64512 must remove the inbound and outbound traffic from link A during maintenance without closing the BGP session so that there ............ a backup link over link A toward the ASN. Which BGP configuration on R1 accomplishes this goal?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 135

What is an advantage of using BFD?

Options:

A.

It detects local link failure at layer 1 and updates routing table.

B.

It detects local link failure at layer 2 and updates routing protocols.

C.

It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 3 problems.

D.

It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 2 problems.

Question 136

Refer to the exhibit.

The ACL is placed on the inbound Gigabit 0/1 interface of the router. Host

192.168.10.10cannot SSH to host 192.168.100.10 even though the flow is permitted. Which action

resolves the issue without opening full access to this router?

Options:

A.

Move the SSH entry to the beginning of the ACL

B.

Temporarily move the permit ip any any line to the beginning of the ACL to see if the flow works

C.

Temporarily remove the ACL from the interface to see if the flow works

D.

Run the show access-list FILTER command to view if the SSH entry has any hit statistic associated with it

Question 137

Which statement about IPv6 ND inspection is true?

Options:

A.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

C.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

D.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

Question 138

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator that is connected to the console does not see debug messages when

remote users log in. Which action ensures that debug messages are displayed for remote logins?

Options:

A.

Enter the transport input ssh configuration command.

B.

Enter the terminal monitor exec command.

C.

Enter the logging console debugging configuration command.

D.

Enter the aaa new-model configuration command.

Question 139

Which statement about route distinguishers in an MPLS network is true?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

B.

Route distinguishers are used for label bindings.

C.

Route distinguishers make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network.

D.

Route distinguishers define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router.

Question 140

Which list defines the contents of an MPLS label?

Options:

A.

20-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL

B.

32-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL

C.

20-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit

D.

32-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit

Question 141

Drag and drop the addresses from the left onto the correct IPv6 filter purposes on the right.

Options:

Question 142

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration denies Telnet traffic to router 2 from 198A:0:200C::1/64?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 143

What is a prerequisite for configuring BFD?

Options:

A.

Jumbo frame support must be configured on the router that is using BFD.

B.

All routers in the path between two BFD endpoints must have BFD enabled.

C.

Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled on all participating BFD endpoints.

D.

To use BFD with BGP, the timers 3 9 command must first be configured in the BGP routing process.

Question 144

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configured VRF lite for customer A. The technician at the remote site misconfigured VRF on the router. Which configuration will resolve connectivity for both sites of customer_a?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 145

Refer to the exhibits.

Phase-3 tunnels cannot be established between spoke-to-spoke in DMVPN. Which two

commands are missing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The ip nhrp redirect command is missing on the spoke routers.

B.

The ip nhrp shortcut command is missing on the spoke routers.

C.

The ip nhrp redirect commands is missing on the hub router.

D.

The ip nhrp shortcut commands is missing on the hub router.

E.

The ip nhrp map command is missing on the hub router.

Question 146

Refer to the exhibit.

Users report that IP addresses cannot be acquired from the DHCP server. The DHCP

server is configured as shown. About 300 total nonconcurrent users are using this DHCP server, but none of them are active for more than two hours per day. Which action fixes the issue within the current resources?

Options:

A.

Modify the subnet mask to the network 192.168.1.0 255.255.254.0 command in the DHCP pool

B.

Configure the DHCP lease time to a smaller value

C.

Configure the DHCP lease time to a bigger value

D.

Add the network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 command to the DHCP pool

Question 147

Refer to the exhibit.

Which subnet is redistributed from EIGRP to OSPF routing protocols?

Options:

A.

10.2.2.0/24

B.

10.1.4.0/26

C.

10.1.2.0/24

D.

10.2.3.0/26

Question 148

While working with software images, an engineer observes that Cisco DNA Center cannot upload its software image directly from the device. Why is the image not uploading?

Options:

A.

The device must be resynced to Cisco DNA Center.

B.

The software image for the device is in install mode.

C.

The device has lost connectivity to Cisco DNA Center.

D.

The software image for the device is in bundle mode

Question 149

Which protocol does VRF-Lite support?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

ODR

C.

EIGRP

D.

IGRP

Question 150

An engineer is trying to copy an IOS file from one router to another router by using TFTP. Which two actions are needed to allow the file to copy? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Copy the file to the destination router with the copy tftp: flash: command

B.

Enable the TFTP server on the source router with the tftp-server flash: command

C.

TFTP is not supported in recent IOS versions, so an alternative method must be used

D.

Configure a user on the source router with the username tftp password tftp command

E.

Configure the TFTP authentication on the source router with the tftp-server authentication local command

Question 151

What is an advantage of using BFD?

Options:

A.

It detects local link failure at layer 1 and updates routing table.

B.

It detects local link failure at layer 2 and updates routing protocols.

C.

It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 3 problems.

D.

It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 2 problems.

Question 152

Refer to the following output:

Router#show ip nhrp detail

10.1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47

TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat registered used

NBMA address: 10.12.1.2

What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?

Options:

A.

It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.

B.

Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.

C.

NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.

D.

The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.

E.

The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten.

Question 153

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about R1 is true?

Options:

A.

OSPF redistributes RIP routes only if they have a tag of one.

B.

RIP learned routes are distributed to OSPF with a tag value of one.

C.

R1 adds one to the metric for RIP learned routes before redistributing to OSPF.

D.

RIP routes are redistributed to OSPF without any changes.

Question 154

Which attribute eliminates LFAs that belong to protected paths in situations where links in a network are connected through a common fiber?

Options:

A.

shared risk link group-disjoint

B.

linecard-disjoint

C.

lowest-repair-path-metric

D.

interface-disjoint

Question 155

An engineer configured a company’s multiple area OSPF head office router and Site A cisco

routers with VRF lite. Each site router is connected to a PE router of an MPLS backbone.

After finishing both site router configurations, none of the LSA 3,4 5, and 7 are installed at Site A router. Which configuration resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

configure capability vrf-lite on Site A and its connected PE router under router ospf 1 vrf abc

B.

configure capability vrf-lite on Head Office and its connected PE router under router ospf 1 vrf abc

C.

configure capability vrf-lite on both PE routers connected to Head Office and Site A routers under routtr ospf 1 vrf abc

D.

configure capability vrf-lite on Head Office and Site A routers under router ospf 1 vrf abc

Question 156

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route

to the destination, a different next hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

Options:

A.

Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.

B.

The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.

C.

The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.

D.

The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Question 157

What is a role of route distinguishers in an MPLS network?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishers define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router

B.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

C.

Route distinguishers are used for label bindings.

D.

Route distinguishers make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network

Question 158

Which statement about route distinguishers in an MPLS network is true?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

B.

Route distinguishers are used for label bindings.

C.

Route distinguishers make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network.

D.

Route distinguishers define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router.

Question 159

Which two protocols can cause TCP starvation? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

TFTP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

FTP

Question 160

Refer to the exhibit.

Which interface configuration must be configured on the spoke A router to enable a dynamic DMVPN tunnel with the spoke B router?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 161

An engineer configured a leak-map command to summarize EIGRP routes and advertise specifically loopback 0 with an IP of 10.1.1.1.255.255.255.252 along with the summary route. After finishing configuration, the customer complained not receiving summary route with specific loopback address. Which two configurations will fix it? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.3.

B.

Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1.0.0.0.252.

C.

Configure access-list 1 and match under route-map Leak-Route.

D.

Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 10 and match access-list 1.

E.

Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 20.

Question 162

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has configured DMVPN on a spoke router. What is the WAN IP address of another spoke router within the DMVPN network?

Options:

A.

172.18.46.2

B.

192.168.1.4

C.

172.18.16.2

D.

192.168.1.1

Question 163

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the imp-null tag represent in the MPLS VPN cloud?

Options:

A.

Pop the label

B.

Impose the label

C.

Include the EXP bit

D.

Exclude the EXP bit

Question 164

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is the remote NetFlow server failing to receive the NetFlow data?

Options:

A.

The flow exporter is configured but is not used.

B.

The flow monitor is applied in the wrong direction.

C.

The flow monitor is applied to the wrong interface.

D.

The destination of the flow exporter is not reachable.

Question 165

Which command displays the IP routing table information that is associated with VRF-Lite?

Options:

A.

show ip vrf

B.

show ip route vrf

C.

show run vrf

D.

show ip protocols vrf

Question 166

Which statement about IPv6 ND inspection is true?

Options:

A.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

C.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

D.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

Question 167

Which is statement about IPv6 inspection is true?

Options:

A.

It teams and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables

C.

It teams and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables

D.

It team and secures binding for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

Question 168

Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or influencing the IP data plane?

Options:

A.

nonbroadcast multiaccess

B.

packet switching

C.

policy-based routing

D.

forwarding information base

Question 169

Which statement about MPLS LDP router ID is true?

Options:

A.

If not configured, the operational physical interface is chosen as the router ID even if a loopback is configured.

B.

The loopback with the highest IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The MPLS LDP router ID must match the IGP router ID.

D.

The force keyword changes the router ID to the specified address without causing any impact.

Question 170

What is a limitation of IPv6 RA Guard?

Options:

A.

It is not supported in hardware when TCAM is programmed

B.

It does not offer protection in environments where IPv6 traffic is tunneled.

C.

It cannot be configured on a switch port interface in the ingress direction

D.

Packets that are dropped by IPv6 RA Guard cannot be spanned

Question 171

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to configure local authentication on the console line, but the device is trying to authenticate using TACACS+. Which action produces the desired configuration?

Options:

A.

Add the aaa authentication login default none command to the global configuration.

B.

Replace the capital “C” with a lowercase “c” in the aaa authentication login Console local command.

C.

Add the aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local-case command to the globalconfiguration.

D.

Add the login authentication Console command to the line configuration

Question 172

Which option is the best for protecting CPU utilization on a device?

Options:

A.

fragmentation

B.

COPP

C.

ICMP redirects

D.

ICMP unreachable messages

Question 173

Drag and drop the packet types from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 174

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP SLA is configured to use the backup default route when the primary is down, but it is not working as desired. Which command fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 10 track 1

B.

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2

C.

R1(config)#ip sla track 1

D.

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.1.1.1.1 track 1

Question 175

An engineer configured a leak-map command to summarize EIGRP routes and advertise specifically loopback 0 with an IP of 10.1.1.1.255.255.255.252 along with the summary route. After finishing configuration, the customer complained not receiving summary route with specific loopback address. Which two configurations will fix it? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.3.

B.

Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1.0.0.0.252.

C.

Configure access-list 1 and match under route-map Leak-Route.

D.

Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 10 and match access-list 1.

E.

Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 20.

Question 176

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to block the route to 192.168.2.2 from the routing table by using the

configuration that is shown. The route is still present in the routing table as an OSPF route. Which action blocks the route?

Options:

A.

Use an extended access list instead of a standard access list.

B.

Change sequence 10 in the route-map command from permit to deny.

C.

Use a prefix list instead of an access list in the route map.

D.

Add this statement to the route map: route-map RM-OSPF-DL deny 20.

Question 177

Refer to the exhibit.

Users in the branch network of 2001:db8:0:4::/64 report that they cannot access the Internet. Which command is issued in IPv6 router EIGRP 100 configuration mode to solve this issue?

Options:

A.

Issue the eigrp stub command on R1

B.

Issue the no neighbor stub command on R2.

C.

Issue the eigrp command on R2.

D.

Issue the no eigrp stub command on R1.

Question 178

Refer to the exhibit. an engineer is trying to get 192.168.32.100 forwarded through 10.1.1.1, but it was forwarded through 10.1.1.2. What action forwards the packets through 10.1.1.1?

Options:

A.

Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with lower admin distance.

B.

A. Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with longer prefix than /19.

C.

A. Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with lower metric.

D.

A. Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with equal or longer prefix than /24.

Question 179

Which statement about IPv6 RA Guard is true?

Options:

A.

It does not offer protection in environments where IPv6 traffic is tunneled.

B.

It cannot be configured on a switch port interface in the ingress direction.

C.

Packets that are dropped by IPv6 RA Guard cannot be spanned.

D.

It is not supported in hardware when TCAM is programmed.

Question 180

Which statement about MPLS LDP router ID is true?

Options:

A.

If not configured, the operational physical interface is chosen as the router ID even if a loopback is configured.

B.

The loopback with the highest IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The MPLS LDP router ID must match the IGP router ID.

D.

The force keyword changes the router ID to the specified address without causing any impact.

Question 181

Refer to the exhibit.

The output of the trace route from R5 shows a loop in the network. Which configuration

prevents this loop?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 182

Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right.

Options:

Question 183

When provisioning a device in Cisco DNA Center, the engineer sees the error message “Cannot select the device. Not compatible with template”.

What is the reason for the error?

Options:

A.

The template has an incorrect configuration.

B.

The software version of the template is different from the software version of the device.

C.

The changes to the template were not committed.

D.

The tag that was used to filter the templates does not match the device tag.

Question 184

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from

the 192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 185

Which two statements about redistributing EIGRP into OSPF are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database

B.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 5 LSAs in the OSPF database

C.

The administrative distance of the redistributed routes is 170

D.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 1

E.

The redistributed EIGRP routes as placed into an OSPF area whose area ID matches the EIGRPautonomous system number

F.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 2 routes in the routing table

Question 186

A network engineer needs to verify IP SLA operations on an interface that shows on indication of

excessive traffic.

Which command should the engineer use to complete this action?

Options:

A.

show frequency

B.

show track

C.

show reachability

D.

show threshold

Question 187

Which command is used to check IP SLA when an interface is suspected to receive lots of traffic with options?

Options:

A.

show track

B.

show threshold

C.

show timer

D.

show delay

Question 188

Which protocol does MPLS use to support traffic engineering?

Options:

A.

Tag Distribution Protocol (TDP)

B.

Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)

C.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

D.

Label Distribution Protocol (LDP)

Question 189

Which command allows traffic to load-balance in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN configuration?

Options:

A.

multi-paths eibgp 2

B.

maximum-paths 2

C.

Maximum-paths ibgp 2

D.

multi-paths 2

Exam Detail
Vendor: Cisco
Certification: CCNP Enterprise
Exam Code: 300-410
Last Update: Dec 14, 2025
300-410 Question Answers
Page: 1 / 47
Total 630 questions