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Total 409 questions

APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Where in the project life cycle benefits realization most common?

Options:

A.

The start of deployment.

B.

The end of deployment.

C.

The end of the concept phase prior to handover

D.

The extended life cycle.

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Question 2

Which of these is not part of the linear project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Operations

D.

Transition

Question 3

The purpose of quality assurance is to:

Options:

A.

provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

determine a set of procedures and standards for project management.

C.

inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes.

D.

define the scope and specifics of a project's deliverables

Question 4

Which one of the following best describes a project issue?

Options:

A.

A major problem that requires formal escalation.

B.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

C.

An uncertain event that may or may not occur.

D.

An opportunity that occurs through change control.

Question 5

During the consideration of when and how the development of the project management plan should take place, the objectives of carrying out such an exercise can often appear to be uncertain. As a recommendation, the project management plan should be:

Options:

A.

assembled when all information is available.

B.

developed iteratively throughout the early stages of the project.

C.

completed in detail before the project is authorised.

D.

free from detailed schedule information.

Question 6

What is the importance of having a business case?

Options:

A.

It allows the sponsor to use the document as a baseline to calculate project slippage.

B.

It provides an overview of the project team performance at each stage of delivery.

C.

It shows how the project manager is performing in delivering the project

D.

It allows the sponsor to decide on project continuously when used at gate review

Question 7

What is the purpose of a stakeholder grid?

Options:

A.

A means of stakeholder identification.

B.

It provides a statement of the stakeholder communications plan.

C.

To understand a stakeholder's position in relation to the project.

D.

It presents an action plan for stakeholder management.

Question 8

A generic linear project life cycle might include the sequence:

Options:

A.

Definition, concept, design, implementation, transition.

B.

Concept. definition, deployment. transition.

C.

Planning, deployment, closing, learning, review.

D.

Feasibility, planning, deployment, handover. review.

Question 9

What action can lead to more consistent communication in the project?

Options:

A.

Only transmitting information that stakeholders have requested, ensuring that any excess information is kept to a minimum.

B.

Communication is carried out en-masse ensuring that all stakeholders get all information.

C.

Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework.

D.

Communicating information on a one-way basis reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time providing feedback

Question 10

Which of the following responsibilities lies with the project management office?

Options:

A.

Liaising with end users.

B.

Managing suppliers.

C.

Providing technical support.

D.

Supporting the project sponsor.

Question 11

Which of the following would be considered as a valid objective for the post project review?

Options:

A.

Plan the next project for the project team.

B.

Make proposals for the operation of the project deliverables.

C.

Improve future estimating accuracy.

D.

Plan how to complete the objectives of the project.

Question 12

When delivering a project, the project manager has to balance which of the following constraints?

Options:

A.

Definition and delivery.

B.

Time, cost and quality.

C.

Budget, spend and contingency.

D.

Cost and scope.

Question 13

The purpose of project progress reporting is to:

Options:

A.

ensure a simpler critical path.

B.

enable the tracking of project deliverables.

C.

ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

D.

provide an increased total float.

Question 14

The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why, when and how is called the:

Options:

A.

communication management plan.

B.

stakeholder mapping grid.

C.

document distribution schedule.

D.

responsibility assignment matrix.

Question 15

Which of the following are typical estimating methods? 1) Analytical 2) Budgeting 3) Analogous 4) Parametric

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 16

Which of the following is not a purpose of milestones?

Options:

A.

Adjusting resource requirements.

B.

Controlling project progress.

C.

Scheduling payments for deliverables.

D.

Setting major deadlines.

Question 17

Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?

Options:

A.

Recommendation.

B.

Justification.

C.

Planning.

D.

Continuous improvement

Question 18

Portfolio management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the co-ordinated management of related projects, including related business-as-usual activities.

B.

the formal process through which changes to the project plan are approved and introduced.

C.

the identification of the benefits (of A. project or programme) at an organisational level and the tracking and realisation of those benefits.

D.

the selection and management of all of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities, taking into account resource constraints.

Question 19

Which one Of the following statements about project risk is true?

Options:

A.

Risk is always beneficial to the project.

B.

Risk is neither beneficial or detrimental to the project

C.

Risk can be beneficial or detrimental to the project.

D.

Risk is always detrimental to the project.

Question 20

Which of the following aspects would best describe part of the project environment?

Options:

A.

The influence and interests of the key stakeholders of the project.

B.

The technical difficulties that are anticipated when undertaking the project.

C.

The circumstances within which the project is being undertaken.

D The relationship between the project manager and the project team.

Question 21

Which of the following role is primarily responsible for defining goals and creating vision for the operability of the project's outputs?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Product owner.

C.

User.

D Business case owner.

Question 22

In which phase of the project should the Procurement Strategy be written?

Options:

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Deployment

D.

Transition

Question 23

The group whose remit is to set the strategic direction of a project is commonly known as:

Options:

A.

the project management team.

B.

primary user group.

C.

steering group.

D supplier group.

Question 24

Risk management should be initiated...

Options:

A.

when the Project Management Plan is initiated.

B.

at the time the Work Breakdown Structure is developed.

C.

at the start of the project.

D.

once the project concept is understood.

Question 25

Configuration management is defined as a process which enables:

Options:

A.

the creation, maintenance, controlled change and the quality control of a scope of work.

B.

a structured approach to move an organisation from a current state to a future desired state.

C.

the safeguarding of stakeholder benefits, outputs and outcomes to requirements.

D.

the identification of differences would affect successful completion of objectives.

Question 26

The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the...

Options:

A.

Cost breakdown structure

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Business case

D.

Project management plan

Question 27

One aspect of quality planning is to:

Options:

A.

plan the audit of a project to provide assurance to the project board.

B.

provide confidence that a project will achieve its objectives in the required time frame.

C.

specify the acceptance criteria used to validate the outputs are fit for purpose.

D.

confirm routes for reporting to ensure effective communication

Question 28

Which one of the following would best describe a post project review?

Options:

A.

It is a personal appraisal for each team member on completion Of the project.

B.

It appraises the products of the project.

C.

It considers all aspects of the management of the project.

D It involves only the project implementation team.

Question 29

The post project review report should be:

Options:

A.

included in the project plan for the next similar project.

B.

restricted in circulation in case it contains critical information.

C.

archived for use in a future audit of project management processes.

D.

available to all project managers within the organisation

Question 30

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project team members?

Options:

A.

To establish formal reporting procedures for project progress.

B.

To assess the progress of their work against the strategic objectives.

C.

To ensure that work assigned to them by the Project Manager is performed.

D.

To identify and resolve project issues affecting the work delegated to them

Question 31

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Risk events always have beneficial effects on the project.

B.

Risk events can have either beneficial or detrimental effects on the project.

C.

Risk events always have detrimental effects on the project.

D.

Risk events have neither beneficial nor detrimental effects on the project.

Question 32

What role does the project manager have in the writing of the business case? The project manager:

Options:

A.

works with the project sponsor.

B.

has no involvement.

C.

must develop it themself.

D.

works with the end user.

Question 33

When in the project life cycle should the deployment baseline be formed?

Options:

A.

Deployment phase.

B.

Concept phase.

C.

Definition phase.

D.

Transition phase.

Question 34

Which activity is not utilised by scope management?

Options:

A.

Defining.

B.

Identifying.

C.

Delivering.

D.

Controlling.

Question 35

Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is considered to be the most important condition of compliance to ensure an effective plan is produced?

Options:

A.

The project team should not contribute to the writing of the PMP.

B.

The PMP should be agreed and signed off by both the sponsor and the project manager as a minimum.

C.

The sponsor should maintain ownership of the PM P.

D.

The PMP is necessary for effective stakeholder management.

Question 36

Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by:

Options:

A.

identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest.

B.

ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

C.

justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders.

D.

providing information to all stakeholders.

Question 37

Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?

1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members

2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members

3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area

4) Lack of accountability of team members

Options:

A.

1, 2 & 3

B.

1, 2 & 4

C.

1, 3 & 4

D.

2, 3 & 4

Question 38

Scope management in an iterative life cycle would ensure that:

Options:

A.

the must have' requirements are given the top priority for delivery.

B.

the scope is identified at a deeper level in the project.

C.

all stakeholders get what they want from the project.

D.

areas of the project that will be delivered are fully agreed

Question 39

What would be the effect if the resources required for a project's critical path activities were insufficient?

Options:

A.

It would reduce the project duration.

B.

It would extend the project duration.

C.

The quality of the deliverables would suffer.

D.

Resource smoothing should be applied to the critical path.

Question 40

Which one of the following is the best description of project scope?

Options:

A.

Scope is detailed in the business case.

B.

Scope is the total work content of a project.

C.

Scope is an outcome of the scheduling and estimating processes.

D.

Scope defines what is NOT delivered by the project.

Question 41

One way that communication could be improved in the project is to:

Options:

A.

ensure that free flowing feedback channels are planned into the communication structure.

B.

ensure that communication is carried out as much as possible, transmitting as much information as possible.

C.

target only those stakeholders who seem to show a valid interest in the project.

D.

avoid planning communication too much so that messages are not seen as rigid and overly complex.

Question 42

Inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria is an example of quality:

Options:

A.

reporting.

B.

control.

C.

assurance.

D.

planning.

Question 43

Which of the following is the responsibility of a project manager?

Options:

A.

Ensuring a project is aligned to the organisation's strategy.

B.

Focusing on project benefits and aligning priorities.

C.

Achieving the project's success criteria.

D.

Improving process, tools and techniques used in a project

Question 44

Which one of the following best characterises a project?

Options:

A.

An ongoing activity to maintain the company plant.

B.

A. transient endeavour carried out to meet specificobjectives.

C.

Continuous improvement of the company procedures.

D.

Manufacturing components for a new technology.

Question 45

The accuracy of an estimate should:

Options:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project life cycle.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle

Question 46

When delivering a project the Project Manager has to balance which one of the following constraints:

Options:

A.

definition and delivery.

B.

time, cost and quality.

C.

cost and scope.

D.

budget, spend and contingency

Question 47

When the project progresses through the life cycle. which one of the following aspects would be expected to occur?

Options:

A.

The accuracy of the estimate reduces and the level of contingency requirement increases.

B.

The accuracy of the estimate increases and the level of contingency requirement reduces.

C.

The accuracy and level Of contingency requirement both increase.

D.

The accuracy and level of contingency requirement both reduce.

Question 48

What is the prime advantage of using a parametric estimating method?

Options:

A.

Accuracy,

B.

Ability to deal With detailed information.

C.

Independence from historic data.

D.

Speed.

Question 49

Which of the following statements refers to how scope is managed in a linear project but not an iterative project?

Options:

A.

Teams can act on new knowledge to change the scope.

B.

Teams can re-prioritise requirements within the scope.

C.

The scope of work is the starting point for the implementation of change control.

D.

Scope definition is assumed to be fixed for the whole project

Question 50

A communications plan should be:

1) one way

2) adjustable

3) measurable

4) rigid

Options:

A.

2, 3 and 4

B.

1 and 3

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2 and 3

Question 51

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

Options:

A.

Storming.

B.

Forming.

C.

Norming.

D.

Performing

Question 52

While carrying out quality management for the project, you have been assigned the task of determining the quality standards that are applicable and how they should apply. Which part of quality management would best describe this activity?

Options:

A.

Quality planning.

B.

Quality assurance.

C.

Total quality.

D.

Quality control.

Question 53

The purpose of PESTLE analysis is to:

Options:

A.

understand the project's external operating environment.

B.

prioritise requirements that should be included in the project.

C.

periodically review the financial viability of the project.

D.

determine the project team's strengths and weaknesses.

Question 54

A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows the project manager to cross reference:

Options:

A.

the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) to match resources to the tasks.

B.

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the cost breakdown structure (CBS) to assign A. cost to each resource.

C.

the product breakdown structure (PBS) with the work breakdown structure (WBS) to assign activities to the products.

D.

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the product breakdown structure (PBS) to assign resources to deliverables.

Question 55

Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?

Options:

A.

To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.

B.

To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.

C.

To manage the project team in all daily activities.

D.

To receive and consider daily reports from team members.

Question 56

A typical risk management process would follow the steps:

Options:

A.

identification. analysis, response. closure.

B.

assessment, analysis. closure. response.

C.

assessment, planning, managing. response.

D.

identification, planning, response. closure

Question 57

Quality management ensures that ______ are fit for purpose.

Options:

A.

processes and outputs.

B.

standards and benefits.

C.

managers and teams.

D.

regulations and requirements.

Question 58

Which one of the following statements best describes resource scheduling?

Options:

A.

A. process which identifies activities that will need project resources.

B.

A. process to assign roles to project resources.

C.

A. process that identifies when resources are needed.

D.

A. process to estimate the project resources.

Question 59

Which one of the following statements best defines a portfolio?

Options:

A.

A. group of related projects, which may include business-as-usual activities, that delivers change.

B.

A. timetable of how project activities and project milestones are planned over a period of time.

C.

A. group of projects that represent the delivery of all, or a discrete part of a new capability.

D.

A. grouping of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities.

Question 60

Which of the following disadvantages applies to video conferencing?

Options:

A.

A level of technological expertise is required.

B.

Body language can reinforce the message.

C.

It is harder to maintain concentration.

D.

There are increased costs of getting to the meeting.

Question 61

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

Options:

A.

Steering group.

B.

Risk owner.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Project manager

Question 62

What is the main reason for having an extended life cycle?

Options:

A.

Allow the project to have extra time to ensure that that there is enough capacity to realise benefits.

B.

Allow upfront planning for any supplemental activities and incorporate additional considerations for benefits realisation.

C.

Allow time for stakeholders to decide how they will use the output to best effect that will realise benefits.

D.

Allow extra funding to be applied to the project to ensure that sufficient resources exist to maximise benefits realisation.

Question 63

What would be a most likely result for an organisation following a PESTLE analysis?

Options:

A.

The organisation would know what political change is most likely and therefore the impacts on objectives considered.

B.

The organisation would most likely have a number of options available as to how the desired objectives could be achieved.

C.

The organisation would have an understanding of the necessary skills required to deliver the objectives required.

D The organisation would be able to develop an accurate estimate of the costs and time frame forthe objectives to be achieved.

Question 64

One difference between a project and business as usual is:

Options:

A.

projects achieve specified benefits but business as usual has only vague benefits.

B.

projects drive change whereas business as usual continues existing activities.

C.

projects have tightly controlled budgets whereas business as usual does not.

D.

projects have unclear deadlines but business as usual has multiple milestones

Question 65

Which of the following are the major stakeholders of the project management plan?

1) Project sponsor

2) General public

3) Project team

4) Project manager

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 66

An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

Options:

A.

the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.

B.

technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.

C.

lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.

D.

the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

Question 67

Which one of the following takes place during closeout?

Options:

A.

Benefits realisation review.

B.

Final project review.

C.

Deliverables accepted by sponsor.

D.

Handover of relevant documentation

Question 68

A project manager would use a cost breakdown structure to produce:

Options:

A.

the cost of a do-nothing option.

B.

an analytical estimate.

C.

high-level project costs.

D.

a comparative estimate.

Question 69

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a...

Options:

A.

decision gate.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review.

Question 70

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

Options:

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

Question 71

Which of the following can be adjusted in a timebox situation?

Options:

A.

Deadline and duration.

B.

Time and cost.

C.

Scope and quality.

D.

Budget and resources.

Question 72

Which one of the following is a valid description of the phases of a complete project lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Start-up, feasibility, planning, execution and roll-out.

B.

Concept, screening, implementation, handover and closeout.

C.

Concept, definition, implementation, handover and closeout.

D.

Start-up, definition, development and production closedown.

Question 73

Communication is said to be the means by which information or instructions are:

Options:

A.

exchanged.

B.

received.

C.

clarified.

D.

given.

Question 74

What is a likely benefit of re-estimating throughout the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

The project will be much more economically viable.

B.

The business case is justified to a greater degree.

C.

Overall project duration is reduced.

D.

Reduction in contingency reserves are achieved.

Question 75

The project manager ___ the business case.

Options:

A.

is the sole author of.

B.

represents.

C.

implements.

D.

is not involved with.

Question 76

Which of the following phases precedes feasibility in an iterative project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Foundations.

B.

Pre-project.

C.

Concept.

D.

Initiation.

Question 77

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A. project is always the starting point for operational refinement.

Question 78

A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:

Options:

A.

define the terms of reference of the project manager.

B.

define the limits of the project sponsor's responsibilities.

C.

allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.

D.

allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

Question 79

Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Evaluation.

B.

Identification.

C.

Registration.

D.

Justification.

Question 80

The primary purpose of a product breakdown structure (PBS) is to:

Options:

A.

define all the products that the project will produce.

B.

define precisely what resources will be used on the project.

C.

detail all the products in order of priority.

D.

map out the key project elements identified in the business plan

Question 81

How many dimensions are included in the business case?

Options:

A.

Five

B.

One

C.

Three

D.

Four

Question 82

Resource levelling seeks:

Options:

A.

to schedule activities within the limits of their float.

B.

to minimise the use of overtime and weekend working.

C.

not to exceed the limits of resource available.

D.

to increase the resource availability

Question 83

What is the main objective of A. RAM?

Options:

A.

To provide a clear and concise summary of tasks or deliverables and the specific. responsibilities defined.

B.

To provide an outline of the reporting structure to assist in day-to-day management of the project.

C.

To provide an outline of the scope of the project and the specific deliverables that have been agreed for the project.

D.

To provide an outline of the specific costs of the project and which key deliverables they are allocated to.

Question 84

Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager.

B.

Sponsor.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Risk owner.

Question 85

Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the:

Options:

A.

components of each product.

B.

budget of each product.

C.

benefits of each product.

D.

risks of each product.

Question 86

One of the benefits of developing communication plans in projects is that this ensures:

Options:

A.

the power and influence of stakeholders is understood.

B.

that all communication is delivered face to face.

C.

your message is understood.

D.

clear reporting lines for the project.

Question 87

Controlling or influencing project success factors will:

Options:

A.

increase the likelihood of a successful project.

B.

ensure senior management support.

C.

measure progress towards a successful conclusion.

D.

ensure project completion.

Question 88

The role of a leader includes:

Options:

A.

effectively managing risks.

B.

selecting the project team.

C.

coaching and mentoring project staff.

D.

producing accurate project reports.

Question 89

One advantage of virtual communications is:

Options:

A.

that nonverbal signals can have an impact on discussions.

B.

it's easy to detect signs of conflict within the project team.

C.

access to a wider resource pool for the project.

D.

that the project team will always be co-located.

Question 90

Successful project communications will most likely occur when:

Options:

A.

the project sponsor takes responsibility for planning all stakeholder communication from the outset.

B.

email is the primary method used in order to get information to stakeholders in a speedy and efficient manner.

C.

A. standard project communication format for reports is used to provide feedback to stakeholders.

D.

the different communication needs of each stakeholder group are fully understood.

Question 91

What aspects of benefits realisation would be considered as most important to note in the business case?

Options:

A.

Who is going to be responsible for carrying out each of the projects activities.

B.

How the benefits will be realised, measured and the stakeholders involved

C.

What type of contract is going to be used to procure delivery of the project.

D.

Which benefits should be realised first and then the subsequent order

Question 92

A typical issue management process could follow the steps:

Options:

A.

identification, escalation. action, resolution.

B.

assessment, escalation, closure, resolution.

C.

assessment, planning, action, response.

D.

identification, planning, response, resolution.

Question 93

A project manager has a team member who is creative, unconventional and good at solving problems, but who doesn't always concentrate on details or communicate well. According to Belbin's model, which team role will best use this person's qualities?

Options:

A.

Completer-Finisher.

B.

Plant.

C.

Monitor-Evaluator.

D.

Specialist.

Question 94

One purpose of risk management is to:

Options:

A.

adapt the plan to resolve problems.

B.

minimise threats and maximise opportunities.

C.

continually improve the project teams' efficiency.

D.

manage variations in a controlled way

Question 95

Which of the following is not an output of a critical path analysis?

Options:

A.

Total and free float.

B.

Earliest start time and latest finish time of activities.

C.

Project completion time.

D.

Cost-benefit analysis.

Question 96

Which of the following statements explain the importance of clearly defined success criteria at handover?

1) Deliverables are more likely to satisfy the client

2) The project can be effectively evaluated

3) Work can be effectively planned

4) Change can generally be avoided

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 97

Configuration management would be used to:

Options:

A.

ensure the required materials are in stock when needed.

B.

help the impact Of a change request to be fully assessed.

C.

help configuration within IT projects.

D.

ensure that a work breakdown structure can be completed.

Question 98

A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Options:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

Question 99

The primary purpose of a milestone in a project is to show:

Options:

A.

significant events.

B.

resource constraints.

C.

task dependencies.

D.

critical path highlights.

Question 100

What action is essential after a change has been approved?

Options:

A.

The highlights of the change are communicated directly to the sponsor.

B.

The actual impact of the change is assessed.

C.

The next change requested should be reviewed as quickly as possible.

D.

The related plans must be updated to reflect the change.

Question 101

What could be considered a significant barrier to communication?

Options:

A.

Use of body language.

B.

Having formal meetings.

C.

Attitudes, emotions and prejudices.

D.

Use of informal communication channels

Question 102

Which one of these categories would best represent project issues?

Options:

A.

Uncertain events that may or may not occur.

B.

Opportunities that occur through change control.

C.

Problems that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

D.

Threats to the project which cannot be resolved by the project manager.

Question 103

What is the agreed reference point that is communicated to stakeholders prior to any work being started?

Options:

A.

Verified work breakdown structure.

B.

Deployment baseline.

C.

Configuration record.

D.

Business case.

Question 104

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

Question 105

Who is primarily responsible for ensuring the implementation of formal change control?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders.

B.

The Project Manager.

C.

The project sponsor.

D.

The project team.

Question 106

The implementation of risk management on A. project requires a cost allocation from the project budget. Which statement describes the most representative return from such an investment?

Options:

A.

A benefit to the project if potential opportunities are realised

B.

The cost of dealing with a risk should it occur is usually greater than the cost of managing that risk.

C.

Risk management in the project facilitates team building.

D.

It allows the organisation to assure stakeholders of project compliance with regard to risk management.

Question 107

What aspect of business case development will assist project management the most?

Options:

A.

That the sponsor who has developed the business case will also be the sponsor who oversees actual delivery of the project.

B.

That the option chosen has taken recognition of how the resultant project is actually going to be managed and delivered.

C.

That the project management plan for the project is captured as an appendix of the approved business case.

D.

That the business case has sufficient detail to allow the project manager to take over accountability for the financial success of the project

Question 108

Which one of the following statements BEST defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure(PBS)?

Options:

A.

To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project

B.

To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies

C.

To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover

D.

To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project

Question 109

Which of the following is a part of change control?

Options:

A.

Requests for change are realised.

B.

Requests for change are mitigated.

C.

Requests for change are evaluated.

D.

Requests for change are resolved.

Question 110

Which one of the following best defines a benefit?

Options:

A.

A. positive result of stakeholder management.

B.

The successful management of a project.

C.

An improvement resulting from project deliverables.

D.

The successful delivery of project reports and updates.

Question 111

Which one of the following best describes users?

Options:

A.

Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.

B.

Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.

C.

Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.

D.

Those providing full-time commitment to the project.

Question 112

Which one of the following is the best reason for splitting a project into phases?

Options:

A.

For team members to reflect on their performance during a phase.

B.

For the project manager to take a break between phases.

C.

It creates a decision point for continuing the project.

D.

In order for the plan to be updated regularly.

Question 113

Which stakeholders are likely to form the main part of a project governance board?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor, project manager and quality manager.

B.

Corporate management, project sponsor, quality manager and project office.

C.

Sponsor, supplier representative and user representative.

D Sponsor, project manager and senior project team members.

Question 114

Three general categories for interpretation of communication could be described as:

Options:

A.

email, paper, Voice.

B.

tactile/visual, auditory, written.

C.

telephone, computer. microphone.

D.

reception, transmission, interruption.

Question 115

When is an analysis of a project's environment most likely to be undertaken?

Options:

A.

In the Definition Phase

B.

In the Transition Phase

C.

In the Concept Phase

D.

In the Deployment Phase

Question 116

A project communication plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Options:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

Question 117

Establishing success criteria is important at the start of the project, as they:

Options:

A.

indicate how the stakeholder needs will be met.

B.

ensure adequate resource allocation.

C.

indicate what is important in supplier selection.

D.

ensure comprehensive risk analysis.

Question 118

A project manager might use a PESTLE analysis in order to:

Options:

A.

mitigate all possible risks to the project.

B.

identify and mitigate factors that may affect the project.

C.

control technological change during the project.

D.

consider team social roles in early stages of the project

Question 119

Quality control verifies that:

Options:

A.

the project follows appropriate processes.

B.

project outputs are delivered on time.

C.

the project follows appropriate governance.

D.

project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

Question 120

Which of these is a key aspect of Programme Management?

Options:

A.

Business as usual reporting

B.

Strategic direction

C.

Benefits management

D.

Managing the project schedules

Question 121

What is the most likely result of providing effective quality management in the project?

Options:

A.

The project outputs will have been delivered.

B.

Conformance of the outputs and processes to requirements will result in a product that is fit for purpose.

C.

The project management plan will have been followed

D.

Customer expectations will have been exceeded with both outputs and processes

Question 122

A procurement strategy is a:

Options:

A.

technical specification.

B.

day-to-day requirement.

C.

detailed timetable.

D.

high-level approach.

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Total 409 questions