Weekend Sale 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: save70

Free and Premium Cisco 350-701 Dumps Questions Answers

Page: 1 / 52
Total 688 questions

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Questions and Answers

Question 1

An organization has DHCP servers set up to allocate IP addresses to clients on the LAN. What must be done to ensure the LAN switches prevent malicious DHCP traffic while also distributing IP addresses to the correct endpoints?

Options:

A.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and add entries in the DHCP snooping database.

B.

Configure DHCP snooping and set trusted interfaces for all client connections.

C.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and antispoofing ACLs in the DHCP snooping database.

D.

Configure DHCP snooping and set a trusted interface for the DHCP server.

Buy Now
Question 2

Which CLI command is used to register a Cisco FirePower sensor to Firepower Management Center?

Options:

A.

configure system add

B.

configure manager add host

C.

configure manager delete

D.

configure manager add

Question 3

What is the purpose of the Cisco Endpoint IoC feature?

Options:

A.

It is an incident response tool.

B.

It provides stealth threat prevention.

C.

It is a signature-based engine.

D.

It provides precompromise detection.

Question 4

Which MDM configuration provides scalability?

Options:

A.

pushing WPA2-Enterprise settings automatically to devices

B.

enabling use of device features such as camera use

C.

BYOD support without extra appliance or licenses

D.

automatic device classification with level 7 fingerprinting

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP snooping database resides on router R1, and dynamic ARP inspection is configured only on switch SW2. Which ports must be configured as untrusted so that dynamic ARP inspection operates normally?

Options:

A.

P2 and P3 only

B.

P2, P3, and P6 only

C.

P5, P6, and P7 only

D.

P1, P2, P3, and P4 only

Question 6

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco CTA

D.

Cisco ASA

Question 7

An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content downloads and wants to use Cisco Umbrella to prevent this activity for suspicious domains while allowing normal web traffic. Which action will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Set content settings to High

B.

Configure the intelligent proxy.

C.

Use destination block lists.

D.

Configure application block lists.

Question 8

What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

Options:

A.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users.

B.

It alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.

C.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.

D.

It provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.

Question 9

Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat?

Options:

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

Question 10

An engineer is adding a Cisco router to an existing environment. NTP authentication is configured on all devices in the environment with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Clsc427128380. There are two routers on the network that are configured as NTP servers for redundancy, 192.168.1.110 and 192.168.1.111. 192.168.1.110 is configured as the authoritative time source. What command must be configured on the new router to use 192.168.1.110 as its primary time source without the new router attempting to offer time to existing devices?

Options:

A.

ntp server 192.168.1.110 primary key 1

B.

ntp peer 192.168.1.110 prefer key 1

C.

ntp server 192.168.1.110 key 1 prefer

D.

ntp peer 192.168.1.110 key 1 primary

Question 11

What is the role of Cisco Umbrella Roaming when it is installed on an endpoint?

Options:

A.

To protect the endpoint against malicious file transfers

B.

To ensure that assets are secure from malicious links on and off the corporate network

C.

To establish secure VPN connectivity to the corporate network

D.

To enforce posture compliance and mandatory software

Question 12

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites

but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

Options:

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

D.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy

Question 13

Which benefit is provided by ensuring that an endpoint is compliant with a posture policy configured in Cisco ISE?

Options:

A.

It allows the endpoint to authenticate with 802.1x or MAB.

B.

It verifies that the endpoint has the latest Microsoft security patches installed.

C.

It adds endpoints to identity groups dynamically.

D.

It allows CoA to be applied if the endpoint status is compliant.

Question 14

Which category includes DoS Attacks?

Options:

A.

Virus attacks

B.

Trojan attacks

C.

Flood attacks

D.

Phishing attacks

Question 15

What is a function of 3DES in reference to cryptography?

Options:

A.

It hashes files.

B.

It creates one-time use passwords.

C.

It encrypts traffic.

D.

It generates private keys.

Question 16

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

Options:

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy.

D.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

Question 17

What provides total management for mobile and PC including managing inventory and device tracking, remote view, and live troubleshooting using the included native remote desktop support?

Options:

A.

mobile device management

B.

mobile content management

C.

mobile application management

D.

mobile access management

Question 18

What is the difference between EPP and EDR?

Options:

A.

EPP focuses primarily on threats that have evaded front-line defenses that entered the environment.

B.

Having an EPP solution allows an engineer to detect, investigate, and remediate modern threats.

C.

EDR focuses solely on prevention at the perimeter.

D.

Having an EDR solution gives an engineer the capability to flag offending files at the first sign of malicious behavior.

Question 19

What is the process of performing automated static and dynamic analysis of files against preloaded

behavioral indicators for threat analysis?

Options:

A.

deep visibility scan

B.

point-in-time checks

C.

advanced sandboxing

D.

advanced scanning

Question 20

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

flow-export event-type

B.

policy-map

C.

access-list

D.

flow-export template timeout-rate 15

E.

access-group

Question 21

Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work?

Options:

A.

RSA SecureID

B.

Internal Database

C.

Active Directory

D.

LDAP

Question 22

Which two methods must be used to add switches into the fabric so that administrators can control how switches are added into DCNM for private cloud management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloud Director

B.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

C.

PowerOn Auto Provisioning

D.

Seed IP

E.

CDP AutoDiscovery

Question 23

Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

transparent mode

B.

routed mode

C.

inline mode

D.

active mode

E.

passive monitor-only mode

Question 24

Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?

Options:

A.

Public Cloud

B.

Hybrid Cloud

C.

Community Cloud

D.

Private Cloud

Question 25

Which action must be taken in the AMP for Endpoints console to detect specific MD5 signatures on endpoints and then quarantine the files?

Options:

A.

Configure an advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure an IP Block & Allow custom detection list

C.

Configure an application custom detection list

D.

Configure a simple custom detection list

Question 26

An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration.

The engineer also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to

use 802.1X, MAB, or WebAuth. Which product meets all of these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

B.

Cisco Identity Services Engine

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch

D.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

Question 27

What is the purpose of a NetFlow version 9 template record?

Options:

A.

It specifies the data format of NetFlow processes.

B.

It provides a standardized set of information about an IP flow.

C.

lt defines the format of data records.

D.

It serves as a unique identification number to distinguish individual data records

Question 28

A company identified a phishing vulnerability during a pentest What are two ways the company can protect employees from the attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

using Cisco Umbrella

B.

using Cisco ESA

C.

using Cisco FTD

D.

using an inline IPS/IDS in the network

E.

using Cisco ISE

Question 29

Which algorithm is an NGE hash function?

Options:

A.

HMAC

B.

SHA-1

C.

MD5

D.

SISHA-2

Question 30

Refer to the exhibit.

What will happen when this Python script is run?

Options:

A.

The compromised computers and malware trajectories will be received from Cisco AMP

B.

The list of computers and their current vulnerabilities will be received from Cisco AMP

C.

The compromised computers and what compromised them will be received from Cisco AMP

D.

The list of computers, policies, and connector statuses will be received from Cisco AMP

Question 31

Which two products are used to forecast capacity needs accurately in real time? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Workload

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Workload Optimization Manager

D.

Cisco AppDynamics

E.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 32

Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared and jointly accessed by several organizations from a specific group?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

Community

C.

Private

D.

Public

Question 33

A network engineer is configuring a Cisco Catalyst switch. The network engineer must prevent traffic on the network from being interrupted by broadcast packets flooding the network using a predefined threshold. What must be configured on the switch?

Options:

A.

DHCP Snooping

B.

Embedded Event Monitoring

C.

Storm Control

D.

Loop Guard

Question 34

An engineer recently completed the system setup on a Cisco WSA Which URL information does the system send to SensorBase Network servers?

Options:

A.

Summarized server-name information and MD5-hashed path information

B.

complete URL,without obfuscating the path segments

C.

URL information collected from clients that connect to the Cisco WSA using Cisco AnyConnect

D.

none because SensorBase Network Participation is disabled by default

Question 35

Why should organizations migrate to an MFA strategy for authentication?

Options:

A.

Single methods of authentication can be compromised more easily than MFA.

B.

Biometrics authentication leads to the need for MFA due to its ability to be hacked easily.

C.

MFA methods of authentication are never compromised.

D.

MFA does not require any piece of evidence for an authentication mechanism.

Question 36

The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the

ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?

Options:

A.

Certificate Trust List

B.

Endpoint Trust List

C.

Enterprise Proxy Service

D.

Secured Collaboration Proxy

Question 37

Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; theIPsec configuration is copied automatically

B.

The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but must be the sametype of device.

C.

The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device

D.

Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device;the IKE configuration is copied automatically.

E.

The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and must be thesame type of device

Question 38

Which type of attack is MFA an effective deterrent for?

Options:

A.

ping of death

B.

phishing

C.

teardrop

D.

syn flood

Question 39

When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security findings and

vulnerabilities, which name is used?

Options:

A.

Common Security Exploits

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

C.

Common Exploits and Vulnerabilities

D.

Common Vulnerabilities, Exploits and Threats

Question 40

What is the purpose of joining Cisco WSAs to an appliance group?

Options:

A.

All WSAs in the group can view file analysis results.

B.

The group supports improved redundancy

C.

It supports cluster operations to expedite the malware analysis process.

D.

It simplifies the task of patching multiple appliances.

Question 41

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures command authorization for the admin5 user. What is the admin5 user able to do on HQ_Router after this configuration?

Options:

A.

set the IP address of an interface

B.

complete no configurations

C.

complete all configurations

D.

add subinterfaces

Question 42

A network engineer must create an access control list on a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewall. The access control list must permit HTTP traffic to the internet from the organization's inside network 192.168.1.0/24. Which IOS command must oe used to create the access control list?

Options:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Question 43

Which Cisco ASA deployment model is used to filter traffic between hosts in the same IP subnet using higher-level protocols without readdressing the network?

Options:

A.

routed mode

B.

transparent mode

C.

single context mode

D.

multiple context mode

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the function of the Python script code snippet for the Cisco ASA REST API?

Options:

A.

adds a global rule into policies

B.

changes the hostname of the Cisco ASA

C.

deletes a global rule from policies

D.

obtains the saved configuration of the Cisco ASA firewall

Question 45

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the right.

Options:

Question 46

An engineer is configuring their router to send NetfFow data to Stealthwatch which has an IP address of 1 1 11 using the flow record Stea!thwatch406397954 command Which additional command is required to complete the flow record?

Options:

A.

transport udp 2055

B.

match ipv4 ttl

C.

cache timeout active 60

D.

destination 1.1.1.1

Question 47

While using Cisco Secure Firewall's Security Intelligence policies, which two criteria is blocking based upon? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

URLs

B.

MAC addresses

C.

Port numbers

D.

IP addresses

E.

Protocol IDs

Question 48

Which two functions does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution perform in trying to protect from phishing attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

blocks malicious websites and adds them to a block list

B.

does a real-time user web browsing behavior analysis

C.

provides a defense for on-premises email deployments

D.

uses a static algorithm to determine malicious

E.

determines if the email messages are malicious

Question 49

Which technology provides the benefit of Layer 3 through Layer 7 innovative deep packet inspection,

enabling the platform to identify and output various applications within the network traffic flows?

Options:

A.

Cisco NBAR2

B.

Cisco ASAV

C.

Account on Resolution

D.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

Question 50

What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

B.

The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

C.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

D.

The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

E.

When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA's own IP address as the HTTP request destination.

Question 51

Which Cisco DNA Center RESTful PNP API adds and claims a device into a workflow?

Options:

A.

api/v1/fie/config

B.

api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device/import

C.

api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device

D.

api/v1/onboarding/workflow

Question 52

How does Cisco Secure Endpoint provide next-generation protection?

Options:

A.

It integrates with Cisco FTD devices.

B.

It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware.

C.

It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response.

D.

It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Secure Endpoint to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers.

Question 53

Which policy does a Cisco Secure Web Appliance use to block or monitor URL requests based on the reputation score?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Enforcement Security

C.

Cisco Data Security

D.

Outbound Malware Scanning

Question 54

Which baseline form of telemetry is recommended for network infrastructure devices?

Options:

A.

SDNS

B.

NetFlow

C.

passive taps

D.

SNMP

Question 55

Which two fields are defined in the NetFlow flow? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

type of service byte

B.

class of service bits

C.

Layer 4 protocol type

D.

destination port

E.

output logical interface

Question 56

What do tools like Jenkins, Octopus Deploy, and Azure DevOps provide in terms of application and

infrastructure automation?

Options:

A.

continuous integration and continuous deployment

B.

cloud application security broker

C.

compile-time instrumentation

D.

container orchestration

Question 57

What is the target in a phishing attack?

Options:

A.

perimeter firewall

B.

IPS

C.

web server

D.

endpoint

Question 58

Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?

Options:

A.

TLSv1.2

B.

TLSv1.1

C.

BJTLSv1

D.

DTLSv1

Question 59

What is a benefit of using telemetry over SNMP to configure new routers for monitoring purposes?

Options:

A.

Telemetry uses a pull mehod, which makes it more reliable than SNMP

B.

Telemetry uses push and pull, which makes it more scalable than SNMP

C.

Telemetry uses push and pull which makes it more secure than SNMP

D.

Telemetry uses a push method which makes it faster than SNMP

Question 60

Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The attack is fragmented into groups of 16 octets before transmission.

B.

The attack is fragmented into groups of 8 octets before transmission.

C.

Short synchronized bursts of traffic are used to disrupt TCP connections.

D.

Malformed packets are used to crash systems.

E.

Publicly accessible DNS servers are typically used to execute the attack.

Question 61

When a next-generation endpoint security solution is selected for a company, what are two key

deliverables that help justify the implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

signature-based endpoint protection on company endpoints

B.

macro-based protection to keep connected endpoints safe

C.

continuous monitoring of all files that are located on connected endpoints

D.

email integration to protect endpoints from malicious content that is located in email

E.

real-time feeds from global threat intelligence centers

Question 62

Which function is the primary function of Cisco AMP threat Grid?

Options:

A.

automated email encryption

B.

applying a real-time URI blacklist

C.

automated malware analysis

D.

monitoring network traffic

Question 63

What is a benefit of using Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

DNS queries are resolved faster.

B.

Attacks can be mitigated before the application connection occurs.

C.

Files are scanned for viruses before they are allowed to run.

D.

It prevents malicious inbound traffic.

Question 64

An organization wants to use Cisco FTD or Cisco ASA devices. Specific URLs must be blocked from being

accessed via the firewall which requires that the administrator input the bad URL categories that the

organization wants blocked into the access policy. Which solution should be used to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Cisco ASA because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco FTDdoes not

B.

Cisco ASA because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not

C.

Cisco FTD because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco FTD because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco ASA does not

Question 65

What are two ways a network administrator transparently identifies users using Active Directory on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.) The eDirectory client must be installed on each client workstation.

Options:

A.

Create NTLM or Kerberos authentication realm and enable transparent user identification

B.

Deploy a separate Active Directory agent such as Cisco Context Directory Agent.

C.

Create an LDAP authentication realm and disable transparent user identification.

D.

Deploy a separate eDirectory server: the client IP address is recorded in this server

Question 66

Which type of encryption uses a public key and private key?

Options:

A.

Asymmetric

B.

Symmetric

C.

Linear

D.

Nonlinear

Question 67

What is a commonality between DMVPN and FlexVPN technologies?

Options:

A.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use IS-IS routing protocol to communicate with spokes

B.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the new key management protocol

C.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the same hashing algorithms

D.

IOS routers run the same NHRP code for DMVPN and FlexVPN

Question 68

Which two authentication protocols are supported by the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WCCP

B.

NTLM

C.

TLS

D.

SSL

E.

LDAP

Question 69

What is a benefit of performing device compliance?

Options:

A.

Verification of the latest OS patches

B.

Device classification and authorization

C.

Providing multi-factor authentication

D.

Providing attribute-driven policies

Question 70

An administrator is establishing a new site-to-site VPN connection on a Cisco IOS router. The organization

needs to ensure that the ISAKMP key on the hub is used only for terminating traffic from the IP address of

172.19.20.24. Which command on the hub will allow the administrator to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

crypto ca identity 172.19.20.24

B.

crypto isakmp key Cisco0123456789 172.19.20.24

C.

crypto enrollment peer address 172.19.20.24

D.

crypto isakmp identity address 172.19.20.24

Question 71

Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility across the network, data center, branch offices, and cloud?

Options:

A.

Cisco CTA

B.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Secure Network Analytics

Question 72

What does endpoint isolation in Cisco AMP for Endpoints security protect from?

Options:

A.

an infection spreading across the network E

B.

a malware spreading across the user device

C.

an infection spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

D.

a malware spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

Question 73

Which solution is made from a collection of secure development practices and guidelines that developers must follow to build secure applications?

Options:

A.

AFL

B.

Fuzzing Framework

C.

Radamsa

D.

OWASP

Question 74

A mall provides security services to customers with a shared appliance. The mall wants separation of

management on the shared appliance. Which ASA deployment mode meets these needs?

Options:

A.

routed mode

B.

transparent mode

C.

multiple context mode

D.

multiple zone mode

Question 75

A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto isakmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on hostA. The tunnel is not being established to hostB. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

Options:

A.

Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on hostA.

B.

Enter the command with a different password on hostB.

C.

Enter the same command on hostB.

D.

Change the password on hostA to the default password.

Question 76

Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?

Options:

A.

MDM

B.

ISE

C.

AMP

D.

OTP

Question 77

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is adding a new Cisco FTD device to their network and wants to manage it with Cisco FMC.

The Cisco FTD is not behind a NAT device. Which command is needed to enable this on the Cisco FTD?

Options:

A.

configure manager add DONTRESOLVE kregistration key>

B.

configure manager add 16

C.

configure manager add DONTRESOLVE FTD123

D.

configure manager add

Question 78

An engineer enabled SSL decryption for Cisco Umbrella intelligent proxy and needs to ensure that traffic is inspected without alerting end-users. Which action accomplishes this goal?

Options:

A.

Restrict access to only websites with trusted third-party signed certificates.

B.

Modify the user’s browser settings to suppress errors from Cisco Umbrella.

C.

Upload the organization root CA to Cisco Umbrella.

D.

Install the Cisco Umbrella root CA onto the user’s device.

Question 79

When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an engineer opt for an active/active FlexVPN

configuration as opposed to DMVPN?

Options:

A.

Multiple routers or VRFs are required.

B.

Traffic is distributed statically by default.

C.

Floating static routes are required.

D.

HSRP is used for faliover.

Question 80

Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

Options:

A.

dot1x system-auth-control

B.

dot1x pae authenticator

C.

authentication port-control aut

D.

aaa new-model

Question 81

Drag and drop the Cisco CWS redirection options from the left onto the capabilities on the right.

Options:

Question 82

What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?

Options:

A.

Traffic storm control drops all broadcast and multicast traffic if the combined traffic exceeds the level withinthe interval.

B.

Traffic storm control cannot determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.

C.

Traffic storm control monitors incoming traffic levels over a 10-second traffic storm control interval.

D.

Traffic storm control uses the Individual/Group bit in the packet source address to determine if the packet isunicast or broadcast.

Question 83

A Cisco ESA administrator has been tasked with configuring the Cisco ESA to ensure there are no viruses before quarantined emails are delivered. In addition, delivery of mail from known bad mail servers must be prevented. Which two actions must be taken in order to meet these requirements? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Use outbreak filters from SenderBase

B.

Enable a message tracking service

C.

Configure a recipient access table

D.

Deploy the Cisco ESA in the DMZ

E.

Scan quarantined emails using AntiVirus signatures

Question 84

What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?

Options:

A.

show authorization status

B.

show authen sess int gi0/1

C.

show connection status gi0/1

D.

show ver gi0/1

Question 85

An engineer is configuring cloud logging using a company-managed Amazon S3 bucket for Cisco Umbrella logs. What benefit does this configuration provide for accessing log data?

Options:

A.

It is included m the license cost for the multi-org console of Cisco Umbrella

B.

It can grant third-party SIEM integrations write access to the S3 bucket

C.

No other applications except Cisco Umbrella can write to the S3 bucket

D.

Data can be stored offline for 30 days.

Question 86

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of using this authentication protocol in the configuration?

Options:

A.

The authentication request contains only a username.

B.

The authentication request contains only a password.

C.

There are separate authentication and authorization request packets.

D.

The authentication and authorization requests are grouped in a single packet.

Question 87

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asset inventory management

B.

allowed application management

C.

Active Directory group policy management

D.

network device management

E.

critical device management

Question 88

An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to accept the server’s authentication key?

Options:

A.

ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1

B.

ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1

C.

ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1

D.

ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

Question 89

Which VPN technology supports a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

Options:

A.

FlexVPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GET VPN

Question 90

Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable NetFlow Version 9.

B.

Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.

C.

Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction.

D.

Create a class map to match interesting traffic.

E.

Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command

Question 91

When NetFlow is applied to an interface, which component creates the flow monitor cache that is used

to collect traffic based on the key and nonkey fields in the configured record?

Options:

A.

records

B.

flow exporter

C.

flow sampler

D.

flow monitor

Question 92

Which attack type attempts to shut down a machine or network so that users are not able to access it?

Options:

A.

smurf

B.

bluesnarfing

C.

MAC spoofing

D.

IP spoofing

Question 93

Which type of algorithm provides the highest level of protection against brute-force attacks?

Options:

A.

PFS

B.

HMAC

C.

MD5

D.

SHA

Question 94

A user has a device in the network that is receiving too many connection requests from multiple machines.

Which type of attack is the device undergoing?

Options:

A.

phishing

B.

slowloris

C.

pharming

D.

SYN flood

Question 95

What provides the ability to program and monitor networks from somewhere other than the DNAC GUI?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

desktop client

C.

ASDM

D.

API

Question 96

An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA. Which Cisco ASA

command must be used?

Options:

A.

flow-export destination inside 1.1.1.1 2055

B.

ip flow monitor input

C.

ip flow-export destination 1.1.1.1 2055

D.

flow exporter

Question 97

Drag and drop the posture assessment flow actions from the left into a sequence on the right.

Options:

Question 98

Which statement describes a serverless application?

Options:

A.

The application delivery controller in front of the server farm designates on which server the application runs each time.

B.

The application runs from an ephemeral, event-triggered, and stateless container that is fully managed by a cloud provider.

C.

The application is installed on network equipment and not on physical servers.

D.

The application runs from a containerized environment that is managed by Kubernetes or Docker Swarm.

Question 99

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

Options:

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

Question 100

Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to trace past activities, such as file and process

activity on an endpoint?

Options:

A.

endpoint isolation

B.

advanced search

C.

advanced investigation

D.

retrospective security

Question 101

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right.

Options:

Question 102

Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL categories?

Options:

A.

transparent user identification

B.

SOCKS proxy services

C.

web usage controls

D.

user session restrictions

Question 103

What is a difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints is a cloud-based service, and Cisco Umbrella is not.

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints prevents connections to malicious destinations, and C malware.

C.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints automatically researches indicators of compromise ..

D.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints prevents, detects, and responds to attacks before and against Internet threats.

Question 104

Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the right.

Options:

Question 105

What are two functions of IKEv1 but not IKEv2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NAT-T is supported in IKEv1 but rot in IKEv2.

B.

With IKEv1, when using aggressive mode, the initiator and responder identities are passed cleartext

C.

With IKEv1, mode negotiates faster than main mode

D.

IKEv1 uses EAP authentication

E.

IKEv1 conversations are initiated by the IKE_SA_INIT message

Question 106

A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom detection policy to add specific MD5 signatures The configuration is created in the simple detection policy section, but it does not work What is the reason for this failure?

Options:

A.

The administrator must upload the file instead of the hash for Cisco AMP to use.

B.

The MD5 hash uploaded to the simple detection policy is in the incorrect format

C.

The APK must be uploaded for the application that the detection is intended

D.

Detections for MD5 signatures must be configured in the advanced custom detection policies

Question 107

Which solution allows an administrator to provision, monitor, and secure mobile devices on Windows and Mac computers from a centralized dashboard?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C.

Cisco ISE

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

Question 108

Which type of attack is social engineering?

Options:

A.

trojan

B.

phishing

C.

malware

D.

MITM

Question 109

Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

Options:

A.

IP Blacklist Center

B.

File Reputation Center

C.

AMP Reputation Center

D.

IP and Domain Reputation Center

Question 110

An engineer needs to add protection for data in transit and have headers in the email message Which configuration is needed to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Provision the email appliance

B.

Deploy an encryption appliance.

C.

Map sender !P addresses to a host interface.

D.

Enable flagged message handling

Question 111

Which cloud service offering allows customers to access a web application that is being hosted, managed, and maintained by a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

IaC

B.

SaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

Question 112

Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature?

Options:

A.

24 State

B.

30 Calling-Station-ID

C.

42 Acct-Session-ID

D.

81 Message-Authenticator

Question 113

Which component of Cisco umbrella architecture increases reliability of the service?

Options:

A.

Anycast IP

B.

AMP Threat grid

C.

Cisco Talos

D.

BGP route reflector

Question 114

A Cisco ISE engineer configures Central Web Authentication (CWA) for wireless guest access and must have the guest endpoints redirect to the guest portal for authentication and authorization. While testing the policy, the engineer notices that the device is not redirected and instead gets full guest access. What must be done for the redirect to work?

Options:

A.

Tag the guest portal in the CWA part of the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

B.

Use the track movement option within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

C.

Create an advanced attribute setting of Cisco:cisco-gateway-id=guest within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

D.

Add the DACL name for the Airespace ACL configured on the WLC in the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

Question 115

What is a difference between GRE over IPsec and IPsec with crypto map?

Options:

A.

Multicast traffic is supported by IPsec with crypto map.

B.

GRE over IPsec supports non-IP protocols.

C.

GRE provides its own encryption mechanism.

D.

IPsec with crypto map oilers better scalability.

Question 116

Which option is the main function of Cisco Firepower impact flags?

Options:

A.

They alert administrators when critical events occur.

B.

They highlight known and suspected malicious IP addresses in reports.

C.

They correlate data about intrusions and vulnerability.

D.

They identify data that the ASA sends to the Firepower module.

Question 117

What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

Options:

A.

to register new laptops and mobile devices

B.

to request a newly provisioned mobile device

C.

to provision userless and agentless systems

D.

to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end user

Question 118

Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for

endpoints? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

exploits

B.

ARP spoofing

C.

denial-of-service attacks

D.

malware

E.

eavesdropping

Question 119

Which Cisco platform ensures that machines that connect to organizational networks have the recommended

antivirus definitions and patches to help prevent an organizational malware outbreak?

Options:

A.

Cisco WiSM

B.

Cisco ESA

C.

Cisco ISE

D.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

Question 120

Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System?

Options:

A.

Correlation

B.

Intrusion

C.

Access Control

D.

Network Discovery

Question 121

Which solution supports high availability in routed or transparent mode as well as in northbound and

southbound deployments?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD with Cisco ASDM

B.

Cisco FTD with Cisco FMC

C.

Cisco Firepower NGFW physical appliance with Cisco. FMC

D.

Cisco Firepower NGFW Virtual appliance with Cisco FMC

Question 122

A Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics administrator is setting up a private network monitor sensor to monitor an on-premises environment. Which two pieces of information from the sensor are used to link to the Secure Cloud Analytics portal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Unique service key

B.

NAT ID

C.

SSL certificate

D.

Public IP address

E.

Private IP address

Question 123

Which term describes when the Cisco Secure Firewall downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Tables?

Options:

A.

analysis

B.

sharing

C.

authoring

D.

consumption

Question 124

What is a language format designed to exchange threat intelligence that can be transported over the TAXII

protocol?

Options:

A.

STIX

B.

XMPP

C.

pxGrid

D.

SMTP

Question 125

Which two methods are available in Cisco Secure Web Appliance to process client requests when configured in Transparent mode? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WCCP

B.

Browser settings

C.

WPAD

D.

PAC files

E.

PBR

Question 126

Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?

Options:

A.

multiple context mode

B.

user deployment of Layer 3 networks

C.

IPv6

D.

clustering

Question 127

In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?

Options:

A.

Smurf

B.

distributed denial of service

C.

cross-site scripting

D.

rootkit exploit

Question 128

Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to

the VPN?

Options:

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Firepower

D.

NGIPS

Question 129

What is a description of microsegmentation?

Options:

A.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container

Question 130

What is a benefit of using a multifactor authentication strategy?

Options:

A.

It provides visibility into devices to establish device trust.

B.

It provides secure remote access for applications.

C.

It provides an easy, single sign-on experience against multiple applications

D.

lt protects data by enabling the use of a second validation of identity.

Question 131

What are two recommended approaches to stop DNS tunneling for data exfiltration and command and control call backs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Use intrusion prevention system.

B.

Block all TXT DNS records.

C.

Enforce security over port 53.

D.

Use next generation firewalls.

E.

Use Cisco Umbrella.

Question 132

Which technology enables integration between Cisco ISE and other platforms to gather and share

network and vulnerability data and SIEM and location information?

Options:

A.

pxGrid

B.

NetFlow

C.

SNMP

D.

Cisco Talos

Question 133

What must be configured on Cisco Secure Endpoint to create a custom detection tile list to detect and quarantine future files?

Options:

A.

Use the simple custom detection feature and add each detection to the list.

B.

Add a network IP block allowed list to the configuration and add the blocked files.

C.

Create an advanced custom detection and upload the hash of each file

D.

Configure an application control allowed applications list to block the files

Question 134

Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

application settings

B.

content categories

C.

security settings

D.

destination lists

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of authentication is in use?

Options:

A.

LDAP authentication for Microsoft Outlook

B.

POP3 authentication

C.

SMTP relay server authentication

D.

external user and relay mail authentication

Question 136

An engineer is implementing Cisco CES in an existing Microsoft Office 365 environment and must route inbound email to Cisco CE.. record must be modified to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

CNAME

B.

MX

C.

SPF

D.

DKIM

Question 137

An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the

corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the

latest build of Windows 10.

What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the

network?

Options:

A.

Cisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration

C.

Cisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured

D.

Cisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled

Question 138

Which two Cisco ISE components must be configured for BYOD? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

local WebAuth

B.

central WebAuth

C.

null WebAuth

D.

guest

E.

dual

Question 139

An engineer is configuring device-hardening on a router in order to prevent credentials from being seen

if the router configuration was compromised. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

service password-encryption

B.

username privilege 15 password

C.

service password-recovery

D.

username < username> password

Question 140

Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.

B.

Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.

C.

Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.

D.

Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.

E.

Same Site cookie attribute should not be used.

Question 141

Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?

Options:

A.

An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces

B.

Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.

C.

An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.

D.

An interface can be assigned only to one zone.

Question 142

A Cisco Secure Email Gateway network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Secure Email Gateway is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold.

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold.

C.

The policy was created to disable file analysis.

D.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop.

Question 143

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must enable secure SSH protocols and enters this configuration. What are two results of running this set of commands on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Labels the key pair to be used for SSH

B.

Uses the FQDN with the label command

C.

Generates AES key pairs on the router

D.

Generates RSA key pair on the router

E.

Enables SSHv1 on the router

Question 144

Which Cisco ISE service checks the compliance of endpoints before allowing the endpoints to connect to

the network?

Options:

A.

posture

B.

profiler

C.

Cisco TrustSec

D.

Threat Centric NAC

Question 145

With which components does a southbound API within a software-defined network architecture communicate?

Options:

A.

controllers within the network

B.

applications

C.

appliances

D.

devices such as routers and switches

Question 146

What limits communication between applications or containers on the same node?

Options:

A.

microsegmentation

B.

container orchestration

C.

microservicing

D.

Software-Defined Access

Question 147

What is the function of SDN southbound API protocols?

Options:

A.

to allow for the dynamic configuration of control plane applications

B.

to enable the controller to make changes

C.

to enable the controller to use REST

D.

to allow for the static configuration of control plane applications

Question 148

What are two reasons for implementing a multifactor authentication solution such as Duo Security provide to an

organization? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

flexibility of different methods of 2FA such as phone callbacks, SMS passcodes, and push notifications

B.

single sign-on access to on-premises and cloud applications

C.

integration with 802.1x security using native Microsoft Windows supplicant

D.

secure access to on-premises and cloud applications

E.

identification and correction of application vulnerabilities before allowing access to resources

Question 149

Which feature is used to restrict communication between interfaces on a Cisco ASA?

Options:

A.

VLAN subinterfaces

B.

Traffic zones

C.

Security levels

D.

VxLAN interfaces

Question 150

What is the benefit of integrating Cisco ISE with a MDM solution?

Options:

A.

It provides compliance checks for access to the network

B.

It provides the ability to update other applications on the mobile device

C.

It provides the ability to add applications to the mobile device through Cisco ISE

D.

It provides network device administration access

Question 151

Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System detectors from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 152

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco ISE administrator adds a new switch to an 802.1X deployment and has difficulty with some endpoints gaining access.

Most PCs and IP phones can connect and authenticate using their machine certificate credentials. However printer and video cameras cannot base d on the interface configuration provided, what must be to get these devices on to the network using Cisco ISE for authentication and authorization while maintaining security controls?

Options:

A.

Change the default policy in Cisco ISE to allow all devices not using machine authentication .

B.

Enable insecure protocols within Cisco ISE in the allowed protocols configuration.

C.

Configure authentication event fail retry 2 action authorize vlan 41 on the interface

D.

Add mab to the interface configuration.

Question 153

An engineer needs a cloud solution that will monitor traffic, create incidents based on events, and integrate with

other cloud solutions via an API. Which solution should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

CASB

C.

Adaptive MFA

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 154

Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?

Options:

A.

advanced persistent threat

B.

open command and control

C.

structured threat information expression

D.

trusted automated exchange of indicator information

Question 155

An administrator is configuring a DHCP server to better secure their environment. They need to be able to ratelimit the traffic and ensure that legitimate requests are not dropped. How would this be accomplished?

Options:

A.

Set a trusted interface for the DHCP server

B.

Set the DHCP snooping bit to 1

C.

Add entries in the DHCP snooping database

D.

Enable ARP inspection for the required VLAN

Question 156

Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing

environments?

Options:

A.

Cisco SDA

B.

Cisco Firepower

C.

Cisco HyperFlex

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 157

An administrator is adding a new switch onto the network and has configured AAA for network access control. When testing the configuration, the RADIUS authenticates to Cisco ISE but is being rejected. Why is the ip radius source-interface command needed for this configuration?

Options:

A.

Only requests that originate from a configured NAS IP are accepted by a RADIUS server

B.

The RADIUS authentication key is transmitted only from the defined RADIUS source interface

C.

RADIUS requests are generated only by a router if a RADIUS source interface is defined.

D.

Encrypted RADIUS authentication requires the RADIUS source interface be defined

Question 158

How does Cisco Workload Optimization Manager help mitigate application performance issues?

Options:

A.

It deploys an AWS Lambda system

B.

It automates resource resizing

C.

It optimizes a flow path

D.

It sets up a workload forensic score

Question 159

Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

phishing

B.

brute force

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

DDOS

E.

teardrop

Question 160

An engineer is configuring Cisco Secure Endpoint to enhance security by preventing the execution of certain files by users. The engineer needs to ensure that the specific executable file name Cisco_Software_0505446151.exe is blocked from running while never being quarantined. What must the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Create advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure application control blocked applications list.

C.

Implement simple custom detection list.

D.

Enable scheduled scans to detect and block the executable files.

Question 161

What is a benefit of using Cisco CWS compared to an on-premises Cisco WSA?

Options:

A.

Cisco CWS eliminates the need to backhaul traffic through headquarters for remote workers whereas Cisco WSA does not

B.

Cisco CWS minimizes the load on the internal network and security infrastructure as compared to Cisco WSA.

C.

URL categories are updated more frequently on Cisco CWS than they are on Cisco WSA

D.

Content scanning for SAAS cloud applications is available through Cisco CWS and not available through Cisco WSA

Question 162

An administrator configures a new destination list in Cisco Umbrella so that the organization can block specific domains for its devices. What should be done to ensure that all subdomains of domain.com are blocked?

Options:

A.

Configure the *.com address in the block list.

B.

Configure the *.domain.com address in the block list

C.

Configure the *.domain.com address in the block list

D.

Configure the domain.com address in the block list

Question 163

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

Options:

A.

HTTPS file upload site

B.

Microsoft Windows network shares

C.

SQL database injections

D.

encrypted SMTP

Question 164

What is the function of the crypto is a kmp key cisc406397954 address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command when establishing an IPsec VPN tunnel?

Options:

A.

It defines what data is going to be encrypted via the VPN

B.

lt configures the pre-shared authentication key

C.

It prevents all IP addresses from connecting to the VPN server.

D.

It configures the local address for the VPN server.

Question 165

An engineer needs behavioral analysis to detect malicious activity on the hosts, and is configuring the

organization’s public cloud to send telemetry using the cloud provider’s mechanisms to a security device. Which

mechanism should the engineer configure to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

mirror port

B.

Flow

C.

NetFlow

D.

VPC flow logs

Question 166

What is a difference between GETVPN and IPsec?

Options:

A.

GETVPN reduces latency and provides encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub

B.

GETVPN provides key management and security association management

C.

GETVPN is based on IKEv2 and does not support IKEv1

D.

GETVPN is used to build a VPN network with multiple sites without having to statically configure all devices

Question 167

An administrator is adding a new Cisco ISE node to an existing deployment. What must be done to ensure that the addition of the node will be successful when inputting the FQDN?

Options:

A.

Change the IP address of the new Cisco ISE node to the same network as the others.

B.

Make the new Cisco ISE node a secondary PAN before registering it with the primary.

C.

Open port 8905 on the firewall between the Cisco ISE nodes

D.

Add the DNS entry for the new Cisco ISE node into the DNS server

Question 168

For a given policy in Cisco Umbrella, how should a customer block websites based on a custom list?

Options:

A.

By adding the websites to a blocked type destination list

B.

By specifying blocked domains in the policy settings

C.

By adding the website IP addresses to the Cisco Umbrella blocklist

D.

By specifying the websites in a custom blocked category

Question 169

Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?

Options:

A.

AES-GCM

B.

SHA-96

C.

AES-256

D.

SHA-384

Question 170

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status. What is the problem according to this command output?

Options:

A.

hashing algorithm mismatch

B.

encryption algorithm mismatch

C.

authentication key mismatch

D.

interesting traffic was not applied

Question 171

Which type of API is being used when a controller within a software-defined network architecture dynamically

makes configuration changes on switches within the network?

Options:

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

Question 172

With Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which option shows a list of all files that have been executed in your

environment?

Options:

A.

Prevalence

B.

File analysis

C.

Detections

D.

Vulnerable software

E.

Threat root cause

Question 173

How is data sent out to the attacker during a DNS tunneling attack?

Options:

A.

as part of the UDP/53 packet payload

B.

as part of the domain name

C.

as part of the TCP/53 packet header

D.

as part of the DNS response packet

Question 174

Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.

B.

An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.

C.

A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.

D.

An endpoint is profiled for the first time.

E.

A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona

Question 175

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch

D.

Cisco Tetration

Question 176

Why should organizations migrate to a multifactor authentication strategy?

Options:

A.

Multifactor authentication methods of authentication are never compromised

B.

Biometrics authentication leads to the need for multifactor authentication due to its ability to be hacked easily

C.

Multifactor authentication does not require any piece of evidence for an authentication mechanism

D.

Single methods of authentication can be compromised more easily than multifactor authentication

Question 177

Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the

deployment?

Options:

A.

NGFW

B.

AMP

C.

WSA

D.

ESA

Question 178

Which parameter is required when configuring a Netflow exporter on a Cisco Router?

Options:

A.

DSCP value

B.

Source interface

C.

Exporter name

D.

Exporter description

Question 179

Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

Options:

A.

virus

B.

NTP amplification

C.

ping of death

D.

HTTP flood

Question 180

What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Can track ingress and egress information

B.

Include the flow record and the flow importer

C.

Copies all ingress flow information to an interface

D.

Does not required packet sampling on interfaces

E.

Can be used to track multicast, MPLS, or bridged traffic

Question 181

An organization is trying to improve their Defense in Depth by blocking malicious destinations prior to a

connection being established. The solution must be able to block certain applications from being used within the network. Which product should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Cisco Firepower

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

ISE

D.

AMP

Question 182

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure a Cisco router to send traps using SNMPv3. The engineer configures a remote user to receive traps and sets the security level to use authentication without privacy. Which command completes the configuration?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host 10.12.8.4 informs version 3 noauthno remoteuser config

B.

snmp-server host 10.12.8.4 informs version 3 noauthnoPriv remoteuser config

C.

snmp-server user TrapUser group2 remote 10.12.8.4 v3 auth md5 password1

D.

snmp-server user TrapUser group2 remote 10.12.8.4 v3 auth md5 password1 priv access des56

Question 183

What are two benefits of Flexible NetFlow records? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

They allow the user to configure flow information to perform customized traffic identification

B.

They provide attack prevention by dropping the traffic

C.

They provide accounting and billing enhancements

D.

They converge multiple accounting technologies into one accounting mechanism

E.

They provide monitoring of a wider range of IP packet information from Layer 2 to 4

Question 184

Which VPN provides scalability for organizations with many remote sites?

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

site-to-site iPsec

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GRE over IPsec

Question 185

Which action controls the amount of URI text that is stored in Cisco WSA logs files?

Options:

A.

Configure the datasecurityconfig command

B.

Configure the advancedproxyconfig command with the HTTPS subcommand

C.

Configure a small log-entry size.

D.

Configure a maximum packet size.

Question 186

An engineer needs to configure an access control policy rule to always send traffic for inspection without

using the default action. Which action should be configured for this rule?

Options:

A.

monitor

B.

allow

C.

block

D.

trust

Question 187

Which Cisco product is open, scalable, and built on IETF standards to allow multiple security products from

Cisco and other vendors to share data and interoperate with each other?

Options:

A.

Advanced Malware Protection

B.

Platform Exchange Grid

C.

Multifactor Platform Integration

D.

Firepower Threat Defense

Question 188

Client workstations are experiencing extremely poor response time. An engineer suspects that an attacker is eavesdropping and making independent connections while relaying messages between victims to make them think they are talking to each other over a private connection. Which feature must be enabled and configured to provide relief from this type of attack?

Options:

A.

Link Aggregation

B.

Reverse ARP

C.

private VLANs

D.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

Question 189

What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

data exfiltration

B.

command and control communication

C.

intelligent proxy

D.

snort

E.

URL categorization

Question 190

Drag and drop the concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right

Options:

Question 191

An engineer is deploying Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints and wants to create a policy that prevents users from executing file named abc424952615.exe without quarantining that file What type of Outbreak Control list must the SHA.-256 hash value for the file be added to in order to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Advanced Custom Detection

B.

Blocked Application

C.

Isolation

D.

Simple Custom Detection

Question 192

How does Cisco Workload Optimization portion of the network do EPP solutions solely performance issues?

Options:

A.

It deploys an AWS Lambda system

B.

It automates resource resizing

C.

It optimizes a flow path

D.

It sets up a workload forensic score

Question 193

Which direction do attackers encode data in DNS requests during exfiltration using DNS tunneling?

Options:

A.

inbound

B.

north-south

C.

east-west

D.

outbound

Question 194

What is the purpose of a denial-of-service attack?

Options:

A.

to disrupt the normal operation of a targeted system by overwhelming It

B.

to exploit a security vulnerability on a computer system to steal sensitive information

C.

to prevent or limit access to data on a computer system by encrypting It

D.

to spread throughout a computer system by self-replicating to additional hosts

Question 195

What is a benefit of using GET VPN over FlexVPN within a VPN deployment?

Options:

A.

GET VPN supports Remote Access VPNs

B.

GET VPN natively supports MPLS and private IP networks

C.

GET VPN uses multiple security associations for connections

D.

GET VPN interoperates with non-Cisco devices

Question 196

With regard to RFC 5176 compliance, how many IETF attributes are supported by the RADIUS CoA feature?

Options:

A.

3

B.

5

C.

10

D.

12

Question 197

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

Options:

A.

Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

B.

A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

C.

Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

D.

Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

Question 198

What are two workloaded security models? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

IaaS

C.

on-premises

D.

off-premises

E.

PaaS

Question 199

An engineer is configuring Cisco Umbrella and has an identity that references two different policies. Which action ensures that the policy that the identity must use takes precedence over the second one?

Options:

A.

Configure the default policy to redirect the requests to the correct policy

B.

Place the policy with the most-specific configuration last in the policy order

C.

Configure only the policy with the most recently changed timestamp

D.

Make the correct policy first in the policy order

Question 200

An organization received a large amount of SPAM messages over a short time period. In order to take action on the messages, it must be determined how harmful the messages are and this needs to happen dynamically.

What must be configured to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Configure the Cisco WSA to modify policies based on the traffic seen

B.

Configure the Cisco ESA to receive real-time updates from Talos

C.

Configure the Cisco WSA to receive real-time updates from Talos

D.

Configure the Cisco ESA to modify policies based on the traffic seen

Question 201

Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management

Center?

Options:

A.

quality of service

B.

time synchronization

C.

network address translations

D.

intrusion policy

Question 202

Which VMware platform does Cisco ACI integrate with to provide enhanced visibility, provide policy integration and deployment, and implement security policies with access lists?

Options:

A.

VMware APIC

B.

VMwarevRealize

C.

VMware fusion

D.

VMware horizons

Question 203

Which Cisco Firewall solution requires zone definition?

Options:

A.

CBAC

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

ZBFW

D.

Cisco ASA

Question 204

An engineer is configuring guest WLAN access using Cisco ISE and the Cisco WLC. Which action temporarily gives guest endpoints access dynamically while maintaining visibility into who or what is connecting?

Options:

A.

Modify the WLC configuration to require local WLC logins for the authentication prompts.

B.

Configure ISE and the WLC for guest redirection and services using a self-registered portal.

C.

Configure ISE and the WLC for guest redirection and services using a hotspot portal.

D.

Modify the WLC configuration to allow any endpoint to access an internet-only VLAN.

Question 205

Which two configurations must be made on Cisco ISE and on Cisco TrustSec devices to force a session to be adjusted after a policy change is made? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

posture assessment

B.

aaa authorization exec default local

C.

tacacs-server host 10.1.1.250 key password

D.

aaa server radius dynamic-author

E.

CoA

Question 206

What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

sequential

B.

protocol

C.

database

D.

volume-based

E.

screen-based

Exam Detail
Vendor: Cisco
Certification: CCNP Security
Exam Code: 350-701
Last Update: Jun 15, 2025
350-701 Question Answers
Page: 1 / 52
Total 688 questions