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Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Questions and Answers

Question 1

An engineer adds a custom detection policy to a Cisco AMP deployment and encounters issues with the

configuration. The simple detection mechanism is configured, but the dashboard indicates that the hash is not 64 characters and is non-zero. What is the issue?

Options:

A.

The engineer is attempting to upload a hash created using MD5 instead of SHA-256

B.

The file being uploaded is incompatible with simple detections and must use advanced detections

C.

The hash being uploaded is part of a set in an incorrect format

D.

The engineer is attempting to upload a file instead of a hash

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Question 2

An organization has two systems in their DMZ that have an unencrypted link between them for communication.

The organization does not have a defined password policy and uses several default accounts on the systems.

The application used on those systems also have not gone through stringent code reviews. Which vulnerability

would help an attacker brute force their way into the systems?

Options:

A.

weak passwords

B.

lack of input validation

C.

missing encryption

D.

lack of file permission

Question 3

For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Windows service

B.

computer identity

C.

user identity

D.

Windows firewall

E.

default browser

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco ISE administrator adds a new switch to an 802.1X deployment and has difficulty with some endpoints gaining access.

Most PCs and IP phones can connect and authenticate using their machine certificate credentials. However printer and video cameras cannot base d on the interface configuration provided, what must be to get these devices on to the network using Cisco ISE for authentication and authorization while maintaining security controls?

Options:

A.

Change the default policy in Cisco ISE to allow all devices not using machine authentication .

B.

Enable insecure protocols within Cisco ISE in the allowed protocols configuration.

C.

Configure authentication event fail retry 2 action authorize vlan 41 on the interface

D.

Add mab to the interface configuration.

Question 5

Which feature must be configured before implementing NetFlow on a router?

Options:

A.

SNMPv3

B.

syslog

C.

VRF

D.

IP routing

Question 6

Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.

Options:

Question 7

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco Secure Email Gateway?

Options:

A.

outbreakconfig

B.

websecurityconfig

C.

webadvancedconfig

D.

websecurityadvancedconfig

Question 8

Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?

Options:

A.

username and password

B.

encryption method

C.

device serial number

D.

registration key

Question 9

Which ASA deployment mode can provide separation of management on a shared appliance?

Options:

A.

DMZ multiple zone mode

B.

transparent firewall mode

C.

multiple context mode

D.

routed mode

Question 10

Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view

of activity?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

SMTP

C.

syslog

D.

model-driven telemetry

Question 11

A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto isakmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on hostA. The tunnel is not being established to hostB. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

Options:

A.

Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on hostA.

B.

Enter the command with a different password on hostB.

C.

Enter the same command on hostB.

D.

Change the password on hostA to the default password.

Question 12

What is a difference between GRE over IPsec and IPsec with crypto map?

Options:

A.

Multicast traffic is supported by IPsec with crypto map.

B.

GRE over IPsec supports non-IP protocols.

C.

GRE provides its own encryption mechanism.

D.

IPsec with crypto map oilers better scalability.

Question 13

When configuring ISAKMP for IKEv1 Phase1 on a Cisco IOS router, an administrator needs to input the

command crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0. The administrator is not sure what the IP addressing in this command issued for. What would be the effect of changing the IP address from 0.0.0.0 to 1.2.3.4?

Options:

A.

The key server that is managing the keys for the connection will be at 1.2.3.4

B.

The remote connection will only be allowed from 1.2.3.4

C.

The address that will be used as the crypto validation authority

D.

All IP addresses other than 1.2.3.4 will be allowed

Question 14

Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

AES is less secure than 3DES.

B.

AES is more secure than 3DES.

C.

AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.

D.

AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.

E.

AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.

Question 15

An organization is trying to improve their Defense in Depth by blocking malicious destinations prior to a

connection being established. The solution must be able to block certain applications from being used within the network. Which product should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Cisco Firepower

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

ISE

D.

AMP

Question 16

Which encryption algorithm provides highly secure VPN communications?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

AES 256

C.

AES 128

D.

DES

Question 17

With which components does a southbound API within a software-defined network architecture communicate?

Options:

A.

controllers within the network

B.

applications

C.

appliances

D.

devices such as routers and switches

Question 18

An organization has a Cisco ESA set up with policies and would like to customize the action assigned for

violations. The organization wants a copy of the message to be delivered with a message added to flag it as a

DLP violation. Which actions must be performed in order to provide this capability?

Options:

A.

deliver and send copies to other recipients

B.

quarantine and send a DLP violation notification

C.

quarantine and alter the subject header with a DLP violation

D.

deliver and add disclaimer text

Question 19

Which form of attack is launched using botnets?

Options:

A.

EIDDOS

B.

virus

C.

DDOS

D.

TCP flood

Question 20

When NetFlow is applied to an interface, which component creates the flow monitor cache that is used

to collect traffic based on the key and nonkey fields in the configured record?

Options:

A.

records

B.

flow exporter

C.

flow sampler

D.

flow monitor

Question 21

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco ESA?

Options:

A.

webadvancedconfig

B.

websecurity advancedconfig

C.

outbreakconfig

D.

websecurity config

Question 22

Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility across the network, data center, branch

offices, and cloud?

Options:

A.

Cisco CTA

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question 23

Which type of dashboard does Cisco Catalyst Center provide for complete control of the network?

Options:

A.

Distributed management

B.

Centralized management

C.

Application management

D.

Service management

Question 24

With regard to RFC 5176 compliance, how many IETF attributes are supported by the RADIUS CoA feature?

Options:

A.

3

B.

5

C.

10

D.

12

Question 25

Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?

Options:

A.

To view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the QoS feature must be enabled.

B.

A sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface.

C.

NSEL can be used without a collector configured.

D.

A flow-export event type must be defined under a policy

Question 26

Refer to the exhibit. What does this Python script accomplish?

Options:

A.

It allows authentication with TLSv1 SSL protocol

B.

It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection.

C.

lt authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username of ersad

D.

It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE

Question 27

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the function of the Python script code snippet for the Cisco ASA REST API?

Options:

A.

adds a global rule into policies

B.

changes the hostname of the Cisco ASA

C.

deletes a global rule from policies

D.

obtains the saved configuration of the Cisco ASA firewall

Question 28

Which algorithm is an NGE hash function?

Options:

A.

HMAC

B.

SHA-1

C.

MD5

D.

SISHA-2

Question 29

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status. What is the problem according to this command output?

Options:

A.

hashing algorithm mismatch

B.

encryption algorithm mismatch

C.

authentication key mismatch

D.

interesting traffic was not applied

Question 30

Which attack is preventable by Cisco ESA but not by the Cisco WSA?

Options:

A.

buffer overflow

B.

DoS

C.

SQL injection

D.

phishing

Question 31

Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?

Options:

A.

An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces

B.

Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.

C.

An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.

D.

An interface can be assigned only to one zone.

Question 32

An organization is using Cisco Firepower and Cisco Meraki MX for network security and needs to centrally

manage cloud policies across these platforms. Which software should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Cisco Defense Orchestrator

B.

Cisco Secureworks

C.

Cisco DNA Center

D.

Cisco Configuration Professional

Question 33

Which Cisco Umbrella package supports selective proxy for Inspection of traffic from risky domains?

Options:

A.

SIG Advantage

B.

DNS Security Essentials

C.

SIG Essentials

D.

DNS Security Advantage

Question 34

Cisco SensorBase gaihers threat information from a variety of Cisco products and services and performs analytics to find patterns on threats Which term describes this process?

Options:

A.

deployment

B.

consumption

C.

authoring

D.

sharing

Question 35

An administrator is trying to determine which applications are being used in the network but does not want the

network devices to send metadata to Cisco Firepower. Which feature should be used to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

Packet Tracer

C.

Network Discovery

D.

Access Control

Question 36

In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?

Options:

A.

IaaS

B.

UCaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

SaaS

Question 37

A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

B.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

C.

It forwards the packet without validation.

D.

It drops the packet without validation.

Question 38

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a result of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Traffic from the DMZ network is redirected

B.

Traffic from the inside network is redirected

C.

All TCP traffic is redirected

D.

Traffic from the inside and DMZ networks is redirected

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration item makes it possible to have the AAA session on the network?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication login console ise

B.

aaa authentication enable default enable

C.

aaa authorization network default group ise

D.

aaa authorization exec default ise

Question 40

What is a benefit of using Cisco Tetration?

Options:

A.

It collects telemetry data from servers and then uses software sensors to analyze flowinformation.

B.

It collects policy compliance data and process details.

C.

It collects enforcement data from servers and collects interpacket variation.

D.

It collects near-real time data from servers and inventories the software packages that exist onservers.

Question 41

How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?

Options:

A.

It delivers visibility and threat detection.

B.

It prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.

C.

It assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers.

D.

It facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.

Question 42

A Cisco ESA network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Cisco ESA is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold

C.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold

D.

The policy was created to disable file analysis

Question 43

Which policy does a Cisco Secure Web Appliance use to block or monitor URL requests based on the reputation score?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Enforcement Security

C.

Cisco Data Security

D.

Outbound Malware Scanning

Question 44

Which VPN provides scalability for organizations with many remote sites?

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

site-to-site iPsec

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GRE over IPsec

Question 45

Which two Cisco ISE components must be configured for BYOD? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

local WebAuth

B.

central WebAuth

C.

null WebAuth

D.

guest

E.

dual

Question 46

Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination?

Options:

A.

AAA attributes

B.

CoA request

C.

AV pair

D.

carrier-grade NAT

Question 47

While using Cisco Secure Firewall's Security Intelligence policies, which two criteria is blocking based upon? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

URLs

B.

MAC addresses

C.

Port numbers

D.

IP addresses

E.

Protocol IDs

Question 48

For which type of attack is multifactor authentication an effective deterrent?

Options:

A.

Ping of death

B.

Teardrop

C.

SYN flood

D.

Phishing

Question 49

Refer to the exhibit.

What will occur when this device tries to connect to the port?

Options:

A.

802.1X will not work, but MAB will start and allow the device on the network.

B.

802.1X will not work and the device will not be allowed network access

C.

802 1X will work and the device will be allowed on the network

D.

802 1X and MAB will both be used and ISE can use policy to determine the access level

Question 50

An engineer has been tasked with implementing a solution that can be leveraged for securing the cloud users,

data, and applications. There is a requirement to use the Cisco cloud native CASB and cloud cybersecurity

platform. What should be used to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco Cloud Email Security

C.

Cisco NGFW

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 51

Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

put

B.

options

C.

get

D.

push

E.

connect

Question 52

What is a benefit of performing device compliance?

Options:

A.

Verification of the latest OS patches

B.

Device classification and authorization

C.

Providing multi-factor authentication

D.

Providing attribute-driven policies

Question 53

Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

Options:

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

water holing

C.

DDoS

D.

buffer overflow

Question 54

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

Options:

A.

Deceptive phishing is an attack aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

B.

A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

C.

Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

D.

Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

Question 55

Why is it important to have a patching strategy for endpoints?

Options:

A.

to take advantage of new features released with patches

B.

so that functionality is increased on a faster scale when it is used

C.

so that known vulnerabilities are targeted and having a regular patch cycle reduces risks

D.

so that patching strategies can assist with disabling nonsecure protocols in applications

Question 56

A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer connections that were authorized using MAB on

four different switch ports at the same time. What two catalyst switch security features will prevent further

violations? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DHCP Snooping

B.

802.1AE MacSec

C.

Port security

D.

IP Device track

E.

Dynamic ARP inspection

F.

Private VLANs

Question 57

Which type of dashboard does Cisco DNA Center provide for complete control of the network?

Options:

A.

service management

B.

centralized management

C.

application management

D.

distributed management

Question 58

How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?

Options:

A.

An attacker registers a domain that a client connects to based on DNS records and sends malware throughthat connection.

B.

An attacker opens a reverse DNS shell to get into the client’s system and install malware on it.

C.

An attacker uses a non-standard DNS port to gain access to the organization’s DNS servers in order topoison the resolutions.

D.

An attacker sends an email to the target with hidden DNS resolvers in it to redirect them to a maliciousdomain.

Question 59

Drag and drop the cryptographic algorithms for IPsec from the left onto the cryptographic processes on the right.

Options:

Question 60

Which term describes when the Cisco Firepower downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Talos?

Options:

A.

consumption

B.

sharing

C.

analysis

D.

authoring

Question 61

A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256

cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1. Which command achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 myv3

C.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 andy

D.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 myv3

Question 62

Which two products are used to forecast capacity needs accurately in real time? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Workload

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Workload Optimization Manager

D.

Cisco AppDynamics

E.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 63

What is the concept of Cl/CD pipelining?

Options:

A.

The project is split into several phases where one phase cannot start before the previous phase finishes successfully.

B.

The project code is centrally maintained and each code change should trigger an automated build and test sequence

C.

The project is split into time-limited cycles and focuses on pair programming for continuous code review

D.

Each project phase is independent from other phases to maintain adaptiveness and continual improvement

Question 64

Which technology must De used to Implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

Options:

A.

GET VPN

B.

IPsec DVTI

C.

DMVPN

D.

FlexVPN

Question 65

Which cryptographic process provides origin confidentiality, integrity, and origin authentication for packets?

Options:

A.

IKEv1

B.

AH

C.

ESP

D.

IKEv2

Question 66

An organization wants to improve its cybersecurity processes and to add intelligence to its data The organization wants to utilize the most current intelligence data for URL filtering, reputations, and vulnerability information that can be integrated with the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA What must be done to accomplish these objectives?

Options:

A.

Create a Cisco pxGrid connection to NIST to import this information into the security products for policy use

B.

Create an automated download of the Internet Storm Center intelligence feed into the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA databases to tie to the dynamic access control policies.

C.

Download the threat intelligence feed from the IETF and import it into the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA databases

D.

Configure the integrations with Talos Intelligence to take advantage of the threat intelligence that it provides.

Question 67

What is a functional difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client?

Options:

A.

The Umbrella Roaming client stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and AMP for Endpoints tracks only URL-based threats.

B.

The Umbrella Roaming Client authenticates users and provides segmentation, and AMP for Endpoints allows only for VPN connectivity

C.

AMP for Endpoints authenticates users and provides segmentation, and the Umbrella Roaming Client allows only for VPN connectivity.

D.

AMP for Endpoints stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and the Umbrella Roaming Client tracks only URL-based threats.

Question 68

What are two benefits of using an MDM solution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device

B.

provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users

C.

native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or on-premises environments

D.

encrypts data that is stored on endpoints

E.

allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations

Question 69

An administrator has been tasked with configuring the Cisco Secure Email Gateway to ensure there are no viruses before quarantined emails are delivered. In addition, delivery of mail from known bad mail servers must be prevented. Which two actions must be taken in order to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Deploy the Secure Email Gateway in the DMZ.

B.

Use outbreak filters from Cisco Talos.

C.

Configure a recipient access table.

D.

Enable a message tracking service.

E.

Scan quarantined emails using AntiVirus signatures.

Question 70

Which service allows a user export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility

and control?

Options:

A.

SNORT

B.

NetFlow

C.

SNMP

D.

802.1X

Question 71

What is the most commonly used protocol for network telemetry?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TFTP

D.

NctFlow

Question 72

Which function is included when Cisco AMP is added to web security?

Options:

A.

multifactor, authentication-based user identity

B.

detailed analytics of the unknown file's behavior

C.

phishing detection on emails

D.

threat prevention on an infected endpoint

Question 73

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to display this output?

Options:

A.

show dot1x all

B.

show dot1x

C.

show dot1x all summary

D.

show dot1x interface gi1/0/12

Question 74

An engineer must enable Outbreak Filters globally on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway to protect the network from large-scale malware attacks. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to complete the configuration.

Options:

Question 75

A web hosting company must upgrade its older, unsupported on-premises servers. The company wants a cloud solution in which the cloud provider is responsible for:

    Server patching

    Application maintenance

    Data center security

    Disaster recovery

Which type of cloud meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

IaaS

C.

SaaS

D.

PaaS

Question 76

Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.

B.

Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.

C.

Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.

D.

Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.

E.

Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.

Question 77

A network engineer is configuring NetFlow top talkers on a Cisco router Drag and drop the steps in the process from the left into the sequence on the right

Options:

Question 78

In an IaaS cloud services model, which security function is the provider responsible for managing?

Options:

A.

Internet proxy

B.

firewalling virtual machines

C.

CASB

D.

hypervisor OS hardening

Question 79

For a given policy in Cisco Umbrella, how should a customer block website based on a custom list?

Options:

A.

by specifying blocked domains in me policy settings

B.

by specifying the websites in a custom blocked category

C.

by adding the websites to a blocked type destination list

D.

by adding the website IP addresses to the Cisco Umbrella blocklist

Question 80

Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.

B.

Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.

C.

Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.

D.

Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.

E.

Same Site cookie attribute should not be used.

Question 81

What does Cisco ISE use to collect endpoint attributes that are used in profiling?

Options:

A.

probes

B.

posture assessment

C.

Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client

D.

Cisco pxGrid

Question 82

An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast

packets have been flooding the network. What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to

address this issue?

Options:

A.

Bridge Protocol Data Unit guard

B.

embedded event monitoring

C.

storm control

D.

access control lists

Question 83

Which Cisco security solution secures public, private, hybrid, and community clouds?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco ASAv

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco pxGrid

Question 84

Which technology provides a combination of endpoint protection endpoint detection, and response?

Options:

A.

Cisco AMP

B.

Cisco Talos

C.

Cisco Threat Grid

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question 85

Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid?

Options:

A.

pristine

B.

malware

C.

dirty

D.

non malicious

Question 86

Drag and drop the threats from the left onto examples of that threat on the right

Options:

Question 87

Which attribute has the ability to change during the RADIUS CoA?

Options:

A.

NTP

B.

Authorization

C.

Accessibility

D.

Membership

Question 88

Which two methods are available in Cisco Secure Web Appliance to process client requests when configured in Transparent mode? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WCCP

B.

Browser settings

C.

WPAD

D.

PAC files

E.

PBR

Question 89

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

Options:

A.

Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

B.

A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

C.

Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

D.

Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

Question 90

How is DNS tunneling used to exfiltrate data out of a corporate network?

Options:

A.

It corrupts DNS servers by replacing the actual IP address with a rogue address to collect information or start other attacks.

B.

It encodes the payload with random characters that are broken into short strings and the DNS serverrebuilds the exfiltrated data.

C.

It redirects DNS requests to a malicious server used to steal user credentials, which allows further damageand theft on the network.

D.

It leverages the DNS server by permitting recursive lookups to spread the attack to other DNS servers.

Question 91

Which statement describes a serverless application?

Options:

A.

The application delivery controller in front of the server farm designates on which server the application runs each time.

B.

The application runs from an ephemeral, event-triggered, and stateless container that is fully managed by a cloud provider.

C.

The application is installed on network equipment and not on physical servers.

D.

The application runs from a containerized environment that is managed by Kubernetes or Docker Swarm.

Question 92

A small organization needs to reduce the VPN bandwidth load on their headend Cisco ASA in order to

ensure that bandwidth is available for VPN users needing access to corporate resources on the10.0.0.0/24 local HQ network. How is this accomplished without adding additional devices to the

network?

Options:

A.

Use split tunneling to tunnel traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network only.

B.

Configure VPN load balancing to distribute traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network,

C.

Configure VPN load balancing to send non-corporate traffic straight to the internet.

D.

Use split tunneling to tunnel all traffic except for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.

Question 93

What are two Trojan malware attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Frontdoor

B.

Rootkit

C.

Smurf

D.

Backdoor

E.

Sync

Question 94

A company has 5000 Windows users on its campus. Which two precautions should IT take to prevent WannaCry ransomware from spreading to all clients? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Segment different departments to different IP blocks and enable Dynamic ARp inspection on all VLANs

B.

Ensure that noncompliant endpoints are segmented off to contain any potential damage.

C.

Ensure that a user cannot enter the network of another department.

D.

Perform a posture check to allow only network access to (hose Windows devices that are already patched.

E.

Put all company users in the trusted segment of NGFW and put all servers to the DMZ segment of the Cisco NGFW. ni

Question 95

Which risk is created when using an Internet browser to access cloud-based service?

Options:

A.

misconfiguration of infrastructure, which allows unauthorized access

B.

intermittent connection to the cloud connectors

C.

vulnerabilities within protocol

D.

insecure implementation of API

Question 96

Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

Options:

A.

SSL VPN

B.

GET VPN

C.

FlexVPN

D.

DMVPN

Question 97

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

Options:

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

Question 98

Which direction do attackers encode data in DNS requests during exfiltration using DNS tunneling?

Options:

A.

inbound

B.

north-south

C.

east-west

D.

outbound

Question 99

An administrator is establishing a new site-to-site VPN connection on a Cisco IOS router. The organization

needs to ensure that the ISAKMP key on the hub is used only for terminating traffic from the IP address of

172.19.20.24. Which command on the hub will allow the administrator to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

crypto ca identity 172.19.20.24

B.

crypto isakmp key Cisco0123456789 172.19.20.24

C.

crypto enrollment peer address 172.19.20.24

D.

crypto isakmp identity address 172.19.20.24

Question 100

Based on the NIST 800-145 guide, which cloud architecture is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific group of consumers from different organizations and may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of those organizations?

Options:

A.

hybrid cloud

B.

private cloud

C.

community cloud

D.

public cloud

Question 101

Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?

Options:

A.

Public Cloud

B.

Hybrid Cloud

C.

Community Cloud

D.

Private Cloud

Question 102

Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable NetFlow Version 9.

B.

Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.

C.

Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction.

D.

Create a class map to match interesting traffic.

E.

Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command

Question 103

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices The default management port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed What must be done to ensure that all devices can communicate together?

Options:

A.

Set the sftunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

B.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTD devices

C.

Set the sftunnel port to 8305.

D.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

Question 104

Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to trace past activities, such as file and process

activity on an endpoint?

Options:

A.

endpoint isolation

B.

advanced search

C.

advanced investigation

D.

retrospective security

Question 105

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices. The default management

port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed. What must be done to ensure

that all devices can communicate together?

Options:

A.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

B.

Set the tunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

C.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTDdevices

D.

Set the tunnel port to 8305

Question 106

What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?

Options:

A.

Cisco FMC uses Java while Cisco ASDM uses HTML5.

B.

Cisco FMC provides centralized management while Cisco ASDM does not.

C.

Cisco FMC supports pushing configurations to devices while Cisco ASDM does not.

D.

Cisco FMC supports all firewall products whereas Cisco ASDM only supports Cisco ASA devices

Question 107

Which feature requires that network telemetry be enabled?

Options:

A.

per-interface stats

B.

SNMP trap notification

C.

Layer 2 device discovery

D.

central syslog system

Question 108

What must be enabled to secure SaaS-based applications?

Options:

A.

modular policy framework

B.

two-factor authentication

C.

application security gateway

D.

end-to-end encryption

Question 109

What are two advantages of using Cisco Any connect over DMVPN? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It provides spoke-to-spoke communications without traversing the hub

B.

It allows different routing protocols to work over the tunnel

C.

It allows customization of access policies based on user identity

D.

It allows multiple sites to connect to the data center

E.

It enables VPN access for individual users from their machines

Question 110

Which two types of connectors are used to generate telemetry data from IPFIX records in a Cisco Secure Workload implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ADC

B.

ERSPAN

C.

Cisco ASA

D.

NetFlow

E.

Cisco Secure Workload

Question 111

Which command is used to log all events to a destination colector 209.165.201.107?

Options:

A.

CiscoASA(config-pmap-c)#flow-export event-type flow-update destination 209.165.201.10

B.

CiscoASA(config-cmap)# flow-export event-type all destination 209.165.201.

C.

CiscoASA(config-pmap-c)#flow-export event-type all destination 209.165.201.10

D.

CiscoASA(config-cmap)#flow-export event-type flow-update destination 209.165.201.10

Question 112

Which action controls the amount of URI text that is stored in Cisco WSA logs files?

Options:

A.

Configure the datasecurityconfig command

B.

Configure the advancedproxyconfig command with the HTTPS subcommand

C.

Configure a small log-entry size.

D.

Configure a maximum packet size.

Question 113

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a Cisco ISE server to implement external authentication against Active Directory. What must be considered about the authentication requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RADIUS communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

B.

The ISE account must be a domain administrator in Active Directory to perform JOIN operations.

C.

Active Directory only supports user authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

D.

LDAP communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

E.

Active Directory supports user and machine authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

Question 114

A network administrator is configuring a rule in an access control policy to block certain URLs and selects the “Chat and Instant Messaging” category. Which reputation score should be selected to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

1

B.

3

C.

5

D.

10

Question 115

What is a functional difference between a Cisco ASA and a Cisco IOS router with Zone-based policy firewall?

Options:

A.

The Cisco ASA denies all traffic by default whereas the Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall starts out by allowing all traffic, even on untrusted interfaces

B.

The Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall can be configured for high availability, whereas the Cisco ASA cannot

C.

The Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall denies all traffic by default, whereas the Cisco ASA starts out by allowing all traffic until rules are added

D.

The Cisco ASA can be configured for high availability whereas the Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall cannot

Question 116

What are two workload security models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

off-premises

D.

on-premises

E.

IaaS

Question 117

Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?

Options:

A.

Sensitive data must remain onsite.

B.

Demand is unpredictable.

C.

The server team wants to outsource this service.

D.

ESA is deployed inline.

Question 118

Which attack type attempts to shut down a machine or network so that users are not able to access it?

Options:

A.

smurf

B.

bluesnarfing

C.

MAC spoofing

D.

IP spoofing

Question 119

What is the purpose of the Trusted Automated exchange cyber threat intelligence industry standard?

Options:

A.

public collection of threat intelligence feeds

B.

threat intelligence sharing organization

C.

language used to represent security information

D.

service used to exchange security information

Question 120

A network administrator is configuring a switch to use Cisco ISE for 802.1X. An endpoint is failing

authentication and is unable to access the network. Where should the administrator begin troubleshooting to verify the authentication details?

Options:

A.

Adaptive Network Control Policy List

B.

Context Visibility

C.

Accounting Reports

D.

RADIUS Live Logs

Question 121

Which VPN technology supports a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

Options:

A.

FlexVPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GET VPN

Question 122

Which Dos attack uses fragmented packets to crash a target machine?

Options:

A.

smurf

B.

MITM

C.

teardrop

D.

LAND

Question 123

What are two functions of secret key cryptography? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

key selection without integer factorization

B.

utilization of different keys for encryption and decryption

C.

utilization of large prime number iterations

D.

provides the capability to only know the key on one side

E.

utilization of less memory

Question 124

Which security solution is used for posture assessment of the endpoints in a BYOD solution?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD

B.

Cisco ASA

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco ISE

Question 125

An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA. Which Cisco ASA

command must be used?

Options:

A.

flow-export destination inside 1.1.1.1 2055

B.

ip flow monitor input

C.

ip flow-export destination 1.1.1.1 2055

D.

flow exporter

Question 126

Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Port

B.

Rule

C.

Source

D.

Application

E.

Protocol

Question 127

Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the right.

Options:

Question 128

An engineer needs to configure an access control policy rule to always send traffic for inspection without

using the default action. Which action should be configured for this rule?

Options:

A.

monitor

B.

allow

C.

block

D.

trust

Question 129

Which Cisco ASA Platform mode disables the threat detection features except for Advanced Threat Statistics?

Options:

A.

cluster

B.

transparent

C.

routed

D.

multiple context

Question 130

A network engineer entered the snmp-server user asmith myv7 auth sha cisco priv aes 256

cisc0xxxxxxxxx command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.255.1. Which

command achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.255.1 version 3 myv7

B.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.255.1 snmpv3 myv7

C.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.255.1 version 3 asmith

D.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.255.1 snmpv3 asmith

Question 131

Drag and drop the suspicious patterns for the Cisco Tetration platform from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 132

What are two things to consider when using PAC files with the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

If the WSA host port is changed, the default port redirects web traffic to the correct port automatically.

B.

PAC files use if-else statements to determine whether to use a proxy or a direct connection for traffic between the PC and the host.

C.

The WSA hosts PAC files on port 9001 by default.

D.

The WSA hosts PAC files on port 6001 by default.

E.

By default, they direct traffic through a proxy when the PC and the host are on the same subnet.

Question 133

Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

AES-BAC

B.

AES-ABC

C.

HMAC-SHA1/SHA2

D.

Triple AMC-CBC

E.

AES-CBC

Question 134

Which action configures the IEEE 802.1X Flexible Authentication feature to support Layer 3 authentication mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Add MAB into the switch to allow redirection to a Layer 3 device for authentication.

B.

Identify the devices using this feature and create a policy that allows them to pass Layer 2 authentication.

C.

Modify the Dot1x configuration on the VPN server to send Layer 3 authentications to an external authentication database.

D.

Configure WebAuth so the hosts are redirected to a web page for authentication.

Question 135

In which two ways does a system administrator send web traffic transparently to the Web Security Appliance?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

configure Active Directory Group Policies to push proxy settings

B.

configure policy-based routing on the network infrastructure

C.

reference a Proxy Auto Config file

D.

configure the proxy IP address in the web-browser settings

E.

use Web Cache Communication Protocol

Question 136

An engineer enabled SSL decryption for Cisco Umbrella intelligent proxy and needs to ensure that traffic is inspected without alerting end-users.

Options:

A.

Upload the organization root CA to the Umbrella admin portal

B.

Modify the user's browser settings to suppress errors from Umbrella.

C.

Restrict access to only websites with trusted third-party signed certificates.

D.

Import the Umbrella root CA into the trusted root store on the user's device.

Question 137

An administrator configures a Cisco WSA to receive redirected traffic over ports 80 and 443. The organization requires that a network device with specific WSA integration capabilities be configured to send the traffic to the WSA to proxy the requests and increase visibility, while making this invisible to the users. What must be done on the Cisco WSA to support these requirements?

Options:

A.

Configure transparent traffic redirection using WCCP in the Cisco WSA and on the network device

B.

Configure active traffic redirection using WPAD in the Cisco WSA and on the network device

C.

Use the Layer 4 setting in the Cisco WSA to receive explicit forward requests from the network device

D.

Use PAC keys to allow only the required network devices to send the traffic to the Cisco WSA

Question 138

Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2 instance in Amazon Web Services.

Options:

Question 139

When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an engineer opt for an active/active FlexVPN

configuration as opposed to DMVPN?

Options:

A.

Multiple routers or VRFs are required.

B.

Traffic is distributed statically by default.

C.

Floating static routes are required.

D.

HSRP is used for faliover.

Question 140

What is the purpose of a denial-of-service attack?

Options:

A.

to disrupt the normal operation of a targeted system by overwhelming It

B.

to exploit a security vulnerability on a computer system to steal sensitive information

C.

to prevent or limit access to data on a computer system by encrypting It

D.

to spread throughout a computer system by self-replicating to additional hosts

Question 141

Which function is performed by certificate authorities but is a limitation of registration authorities?

Options:

A.

accepts enrollment requests

B.

certificate re-enrollment

C.

verifying user identity

D.

CRL publishing

Question 142

Drag and drop the common security threats from the left onto the definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 143

An engineer must deploy Cisco Secure Email with Cloud URL Analysis and must meet these requirements:

    To protect the network from large-scale virus outbreaks

    To protect the network from non-viral attacks such as phishing scams and malware distribution

    To provide active analysis of the structure of the URL and information about the domain and page contents

Which two prerequisites must the engineer ensure are configured? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Scanning enabled for each Verdict, Prepend Subject and Deliver.

B.

Outbreak Filters must be enabled globally.

C.

Enable TLS by setting to Preferred to the Default Domain.

D.

Service Logs must be enabled.

E.

Enable Rejected Connection Logging.

Question 144

Which key feature of Cisco ZFW is unique among other Cisco IOS firewall solutions?

Options:

A.

Security levels

B.

Stateless inspection

C.

Security zones

D.

SSL inspection

Question 145

Which Cisco security solution gives the most complete view of the relationships and evolution of Internet domains IPs, and flies, and helps to pinpoint attackers' infrastructures and predict future threat?

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Network Analytics

B.

Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics

C.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

D.

Cisco pxGrid

Question 146

Which security solution protects users leveraging DNS-layer security?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco FTD

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco ASA

Question 147

A security administrator is designing an email protection solution for an onsite email server and must meet these requirements:

Remove malware from email before it reaches corporate premises

Drop emails with risky links automatically

Block access to newly infected sites with real-time URL analysis

Which solution must be used?

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Email Cloud

B.

Cisco Security for Office 365

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

D.

Cisco Secure Email and Web Manager Cloud

Question 148

Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?

Options:

A.

compliant

B.

unknown

C.

authorized

D.

noncompliant

Question 149

Which Cisco security solution integrates with cloud applications like Dropbox and Office 365 while protecting data from being exfiltrated?

Options:

A.

Cisco Tajos

B.

Cisco Steaithwatch Cloud

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

Question 150

A security test performed on one of the applications shows that user input is not validated. Which security vulnerability is the application more susceptible to because of this lack of validation?

Options:

A.

denial -of-service

B.

cross-site request forgery

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

SQL injection

Question 151

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and must ensure it reaches the Cisco update servers to retrieve new rules. The engineer must now manually configure the Outbreak Filter rules on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Only outdated rules must be replaced. Up-to-date rules must be retained. Which action must the engineer take next to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Select Outbreak Filters

B.

Perform a backup/restore of the database

C.

Use the outbreakconfig command in CLI

D.

Click Update Rules Now

Question 152

On Cisco Firepower Management Center, which policy is used to collect health modules alerts from managed

devices?

Options:

A.

health policy

B.

system policy

C.

correlation policy

D.

access control policy

E.

health awareness policy

Question 153

Which solution is more secure than the traditional use of a username and password and encompasses at least two of the methods of authentication?

Options:

A.

single-sign on

B.

RADIUS/LDAP authentication

C.

Kerberos security solution

D.

multifactor authentication

Question 154

What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

Options:

A.

to register new laptops and mobile devices

B.

to request a newly provisioned mobile device

C.

to provision userless and agentless systems

D.

to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end user

Question 155

Why is it important to have logical security controls on endpoints even though the users are trained to spot security threats and the network devices already help prevent them?

Options:

A.

to prevent theft of the endpoints

B.

because defense-in-depth stops at the network

C.

to expose the endpoint to more threats

D.

because human error or insider threats will still exist

Question 156

Which type of algorithm provides the highest level of protection against brute-force attacks?

Options:

A.

PFS

B.

HMAC

C.

MD5

D.

SHA

Question 157

Which Cisco Firewall solution requires zone definition?

Options:

A.

CBAC

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

ZBFW

D.

Cisco ASA

Question 158

What are two reasons for implementing a multifactor authentication solution such as Duo Security provide to an

organization? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

flexibility of different methods of 2FA such as phone callbacks, SMS passcodes, and push notifications

B.

single sign-on access to on-premises and cloud applications

C.

integration with 802.1x security using native Microsoft Windows supplicant

D.

secure access to on-premises and cloud applications

E.

identification and correction of application vulnerabilities before allowing access to resources

Question 159

Which type of protection encrypts RSA keys when they are exported and imported?

Options:

A.

file

B.

passphrase

C.

NGE

D.

nonexportable

Question 160

How does the Cisco WSA enforce bandwidth restrictions for web applications?

Options:

A.

It implements a policy route to redirect application traffic to a lower-bandwidth link.

B.

It dynamically creates a scavenger class QoS policy and applies it to each client that connects through the WSA.

C.

It sends commands to the uplink router to apply traffic policing to the application traffic.

D.

It simulates a slower link by introducing latency into application traffic.

Question 161

What is a difference between an XSS attack and an SQL injection attack?

Options:

A.

SQL injection is a hacking method used to attack SQL databases, whereas XSS attacks can exist in many different types of applications

B.

XSS is a hacking method used to attack SQL databases, whereas SQL injection attacks can exist in many different types of applications

C.

SQL injection attacks are used to steal information from databases whereas XSS attacks are used toredirect users to websites where attackers can steal data from them

D.

XSS attacks are used to steal information from databases whereas SQL injection attacks are used toredirect users to websites where attackers can steal data from them

Question 162

Drag and drop the NetFlow export formats from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 163

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must retrieve the interface configuration on a Cisco router by using the NETCONF API. The engineer uses a python script to automate the activity.

Which code snippet completes the script?

Options:

A.

Content-Type: application/vnd.yang.data+json

B.

Content-Type: application/vnd.yang.data

C.

Content-Type: application/vnd.yang.data+api

D.

Content-Type: applications/json/vnd.yang.data

Question 164

Which solution supports high availability in routed or transparent mode as well as in northbound and

southbound deployments?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD with Cisco ASDM

B.

Cisco FTD with Cisco FMC

C.

Cisco Firepower NGFW physical appliance with Cisco. FMC

D.

Cisco Firepower NGFW Virtual appliance with Cisco FMC

Question 165

Which Cisco ISE feature helps to detect missing patches and helps with remediation?

Options:

A.

posture assessment

B.

profiling policy

C.

authentication policy

D.

enabling probes

Question 166

Which action must be taken in the AMP for Endpoints console to detect specific MD5 signatures on endpoints and then quarantine the files?

Options:

A.

Configure an advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure an IP Block & Allow custom detection list

C.

Configure an application custom detection list

D.

Configure a simple custom detection list

Question 167

What is the term for when an endpoint is associated to a provisioning WLAN that is shared with guest

access, and the same guest portal is used as the BYOD portal?

Options:

A.

single-SSID BYOD

B.

multichannel GUI

C.

dual-SSID BYOD

D.

streamlined access

Question 168

An organization recently installed a Cisco Secure Web Appliance and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application-specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

Options:

A.

Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.

B.

Use security services to configure the traffic monitor.

C.

Use URL categorization to prevent the application traffic.

D.

Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality.

Question 169

A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface. What is causing this problem?

Options:

A.

DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.

B.

The ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.

C.

Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs

D.

The no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces

Question 170

What are the components of endpoint protection against social engineering attacks?

Options:

A.

IPsec

B.

IDS

C.

Firewall

D.

Cisco Secure Email Gateway

Question 171

An engineer integrates Cisco FMC and Cisco ISE using pxGrid Which role is assigned for Cisco FMC?

Options:

A.

client

B.

server

C.

controller

D.

publisher

Question 172

Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

64-bit block size, 112-bit key length

B.

64-bit block size, 168-bit key length

C.

128-bit block size, 192-bit key length

D.

128-bit block size, 256-bit key length

E.

192-bit block size, 256-bit key length

Question 173

Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

Options:

A.

IP Blacklist Center

B.

File Reputation Center

C.

AMP Reputation Center

D.

IP and Domain Reputation Center

Question 174

An engineer is configuring guest WLAN access using Cisco ISE and the Cisco WLC. Which action temporarily gives guest endpoints access dynamically while maintaining visibility into who or what is connecting?

Options:

A.

Modify the WLC configuration to require local WLC logins for the authentication prompts.

B.

Configure ISE and the WLC for guest redirection and services using a self-registered portal.

C.

Configure ISE and the WLC for guest redirection and services using a hotspot portal.

D.

Modify the WLC configuration to allow any endpoint to access an internet-only VLAN.

Question 175

What is the difference between a vulnerability and an exploit?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a hypothetical event for an attacker to exploit

B.

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited by an attacker

C.

An exploit is a weakness that can cause a vulnerability in the network

D.

An exploit is a hypothetical event that causes a vulnerability in the network

Question 176

A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Third-party systems need to be able to feed host data into Cisco Firepower. What must be configured to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

a Network Discovery policy to receive data from the host

B.

a Threat Intelligence policy to download the data from the host

C.

a File Analysis policy to send file data into Cisco Firepower

D.

a Network Analysis policy to receive NetFlow data from the host

Question 177

Which Cisco Advanced Malware protection for Endpoints deployment architecture is designed to keep data

within a network perimeter?

Options:

A.

cloud web services

B.

network AMP

C.

private cloud

D.

public cloud

Question 178

Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to

the VPN?

Options:

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Firepower

D.

NGIPS

Question 179

What are two functions of TAXII in threat intelligence sharing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

determines the "what" of threat intelligence

B.

Supports STIX information

C.

allows users to describe threat motivations and abilities

D.

exchanges trusted anomaly intelligence information

E.

determines how threat intelligence information is relayed

Question 180

When a next-generation endpoint security solution is selected for a company, what are two key

deliverables that help justify the implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

signature-based endpoint protection on company endpoints

B.

macro-based protection to keep connected endpoints safe

C.

continuous monitoring of all files that are located on connected endpoints

D.

email integration to protect endpoints from malicious content that is located in email

E.

real-time feeds from global threat intelligence centers

Question 181

What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?

Options:

A.

You can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment

B.

It provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances

C.

It provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages

D.

It provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud

Question 182

What is an advantage of using a next-generation firewall compared to a traditional firewall?

Options:

A.

Next-generation firewalls have stateless inspection capabilities, and traditional firewalls use stateful inspection.

B.

Next-generation firewalls use dynamic packet filtering, and traditional firewalls use static packet filtering.

C.

Next-generation firewalls have threat intelligence feeds, and traditional firewalls use signature detection.

D.

Next-generation firewalls use intrusion prevention policies, and traditional firewalls use intrusion detection policies.

Question 183

What are two differences between a Cisco Secure Web Appliance that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

B.

When the Cisco Secure Web Appliance is running in transparent mode, it uses the Secure Web Appliance's own IP address as the HTTP request destination.

C.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

D.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

E.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

Question 184

An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and needs an authentication protocol that is reliable and supports ACK

and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal?

Options:

A.

AES-192

B.

IKEv1

C.

AES-256

D.

ESP

Question 185

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance.

B.

The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.

C.

Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.

D.

Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.

Question 186

Which type of data does the Cisco Stealthwatch system collect and analyze from routers, switches, and firewalls?

Options:

A.

NTP

B.

syslog

C.

SNMP

D.

NetFlow

Question 187

What does the Cloudlock Apps Firewall do to mitigate security concerns from an application perspective?

Options:

A.

It allows the administrator to quarantine malicious files so that the application can function, just notmaliciously.

B.

It discovers and controls cloud apps that are connected to a company’s corporate environment.

C.

It deletes any application that does not belong in the network.

D.

It sends the application information to an administrator to act on.

Question 188

What is an advantage of network telemetry over SNMP pulls?

Options:

A.

accuracy

B.

encapsulation

C.

security

D.

scalability

Question 189

Which type of encryption uses a public key and private key?

Options:

A.

Asymmetric

B.

Symmetric

C.

Linear

D.

Nonlinear

Question 190

Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared and jointly accessed by several organizations from a specific group?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

Community

C.

Private

D.

Public

Question 191

Which open standard creates a framework for sharing threat intelligence in a machine-digestible format?

Options:

A.

OpenC2

B.

OpenlOC

C.

CybOX

D.

STIX

Question 192

An engineer is configuring Dropbox integration with Cisco Cloudlock. Which action must be taken before granting API access in the Dropbox admin console?

Options:

A.

Authorize Dropbox within the Platform settings in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

B.

Add Dropbox to the Cisco Cloudlock Authentication and API section in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

C.

Send an API request to Cisco Cloudlock from Dropbox admin portal.

D.

Add Cisco Cloudlock to the Dropbox admin portal.

Question 193

Which two Cisco Umbrella security categories are used to prevent command-and-control callbacks on port 53 and protect users from being tricked into providing confidential information? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DNS Tunneling VPN

B.

Dynamic DNS

C.

Newly Seen Domains

D.

Potentially Harmful Domains

E.

Phishing Attacks

Question 194

An engineer is configuring Cisco Umbrella and has an identity that references two different policies. Which action ensures that the policy that the identity must use takes precedence over the second one?

Options:

A.

Configure the default policy to redirect the requests to the correct policy

B.

Place the policy with the most-specific configuration last in the policy order

C.

Configure only the policy with the most recently changed timestamp

D.

Make the correct policy first in the policy order

Question 195

What is the function of SDN southbound API protocols?

Options:

A.

to allow for the dynamic configuration of control plane applications

B.

to enable the controller to make changes

C.

to enable the controller to use REST

D.

to allow for the static configuration of control plane applications

Question 196

Which Cisco ISE service checks the compliance of endpoints before allowing the endpoints to connect to

the network?

Options:

A.

posture

B.

profiler

C.

Cisco TrustSec

D.

Threat Centric NAC

Question 197

Which feature is used to restrict communication between interfaces on a Cisco ASA?

Options:

A.

VLAN subinterfaces

B.

Traffic zones

C.

Security levels

D.

VxLAN interfaces

Question 198

Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

application settings

B.

content categories

C.

security settings

D.

destination lists

Question 199

A network engineer must create an access control list on a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewall. The access control list must permit HTTP traffic to the internet from the organization's inside network 192.168.1.0/24. Which IOS command must oe used to create the access control list?

Options:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Question 200

Which Cisco security solution provides patch management in the cloud?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco ISE

C.

Cisco CloudLock

D.

Cisco Tetration

Question 201

An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

Options:

A.

Use security services to configure the traffic monitor, .

B.

Use URL categorization to prevent the application traffic.

C.

Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.

D.

Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality

Question 202

Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Identity Services

Engine? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

DHCP

D.

sFlow

E.

SMTP

Question 203

What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

B.

The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

C.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

D.

The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

E.

When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA's own IP address as the HTTP request destination.

Question 204

What does endpoint isolation in Cisco AMP for Endpoints security protect from?

Options:

A.

an infection spreading across the network E

B.

a malware spreading across the user device

C.

an infection spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

D.

a malware spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

Question 205

What limits communication between applications or containers on the same node?

Options:

A.

microsegmentation

B.

container orchestration

C.

microservicing

D.

Software-Defined Access

Question 206

An engineer must configure AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Web Appliance to push log files to a syslog server using the SCP retrieval method. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to complete the configuration.

Options:

Question 207

On which part of the IT environment does DevSecOps focus?

Options:

A.

application development

B.

wireless network

C.

data center

D.

perimeter network

Question 208

During a recent security audit a Cisco IOS router with a working IPSEC configuration using IKEv1 was flagged for using a wildcard mask with the crypto isakmp key command The VPN peer is a SOHO router with a dynamically assigned IP address Dynamic DNS has been configured on the SOHO router to map the dynamic IP address to the host name of vpn sohoroutercompany.com In addition to the command crypto isakmp key Cisc425007536 hostname vpn.sohoroutercompany.com what other two commands are now required on the Cisco IOS router for the VPN to continue to function after the wildcard command is removed? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ip host vpn.sohoroutercompany.eom

B.

crypto isakmp identity hostname

C.

Add the dynamic keyword to the existing crypto map command

D.

fqdn vpn.sohoroutercompany.com

E.

ip name-server

Question 209

An engineer is configuring 802.1X authentication on Cisco switches in the network and is using CoA as a mechanism. Which port on the firewall must be opened to allow the CoA traffic to traverse the network?

Options:

A.

TCP 6514

B.

UDP 1700

C.

TCP 49

D.

UDP 1812

Question 210

After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach their destinations.

Which task can you perform to determine where each message was lost?

Options:

A.

Configure the trackingconfig command to enable message tracking.

B.

Generate a system report.

C.

Review the log files.

D.

Perform a trace.

Question 211

Which factor must be considered when choosing the on-premise solution over the cloud-based one?

Options:

A.

With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation and maintenance of the product, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the customer is responsible for it

B.

With a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.

C.

With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.

D.

With an on-premise solution, the customer is responsible for the installation and maintenance of theproduct, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for it.

Question 212

Which type of attack is MFA an effective deterrent for?

Options:

A.

ping of death

B.

phishing

C.

teardrop

D.

syn flood

Question 213

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

Options:

A.

HTTPS file upload site

B.

Microsoft Windows network shares

C.

SQL database injections

D.

encrypted SMTP

Question 214

How does Cisco Umbrella protect clients when they operate outside of the corporate network?

Options:

A.

by modifying the registry for DNS lookups

B.

by using Active Directory group policies to enforce Cisco Umbrella DNS servers

C.

by using the Cisco Umbrella roaming client

D.

by forcing DNS queries to the corporate name servers

Question 215

Why should organizations migrate to an MFA strategy for authentication?

Options:

A.

Single methods of authentication can be compromised more easily than MFA.

B.

Biometrics authentication leads to the need for MFA due to its ability to be hacked easily.

C.

MFA methods of authentication are never compromised.

D.

MFA does not require any piece of evidence for an authentication mechanism.

Question 216

Email security has become a high priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10 00 to -6 00) on the Cisco ESA Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

Options:

A.

Defang

B.

Quarantine

C.

FilterAction

D.

ScreenAction

Question 217

A network engineer is deciding whether to use stateful or stateless failover when configuring two ASAs for high availability. What is the connection status in both cases?

Options:

A.

need to be reestablished with stateful failover and preserved with stateless failover

B.

preserved with stateful failover and need to be reestablished with stateless failover

C.

preserved with both stateful and stateless failover

D.

need to be reestablished with both stateful and stateless failover

Exam Detail
Vendor: Cisco
Certification: CCNP Security
Exam Code: 350-701
Last Update: Sep 17, 2025
350-701 Question Answers
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Total 726 questions