SecurityX CAS-005 Updated Exam

The best solution is to use Self-Encrypting Drives (SEDs). SEDs automatically encrypt all data stored on the disk and can be rapidly sanitized or obfuscated by deleting or altering the encryption keys. This provides immediate and secure protection if customs agents demand device access, as the sensitive data inside containers becomes unreadable without the decryption key.

Option B (eFuse) and C (UEFI) are hardware mechanisms unrelated to dynamic data protection. Option D (vTPM) provides virtualized key storage but does not obfuscate data quickly under inspection conditions. Option E (MicroSD HSM) is useful for key storage but does not protect all data at scale.

CAS-005 highlights hardware-based encryption solutions like SEDs for protecting sensitive data during travel, ensuring both regulatory compliance and rapid response capabilities under hostile conditions.

The correct answer is Playbooks (A). In incident response, playbooks are structured workflows that define step-by-step actions for specific incident types (e.g., ransomware, phishing, insider threats). They allow SOC analysts to standardize responses across multiple platforms and tools, ensuring consistency and faster mitigation. By leveraging playbooks, organizations integrate existing incident response tools into automated or semi-automated processes, improving efficiency and reducing human error.

Option B (event collectors) consolidate logs but do not directly improve response processes. Option C (centralized logging) enhances visibility but does not provide a framework for action. Option D (endpoint detection) expands detection capabilities but does not enhance the process effectiveness of incident response.

CAS-005 emphasizes structured response through automation and orchestration. Playbooks, often implemented via SOAR platforms, allow integration of detection, triage, and remediation steps, making them the most effective way to increase incident response maturity.

The log-in activity indicates a security threat, particularly involving the ADMIN account with a high-risk failure status. This suggests that the account may be targeted by malicious activities such as credential stuffing or brute force attacks.

Updating log configuration settings (A) may help in better logging future activities but does not address the immediate threat.

Changing the admin account password (B) is a good practice but may not fully mitigate the ongoing threat if the account has already been compromised.

Blocking employees (C) from logging into non-business applications might help in reducing attack surfaces but doesn't directly address the compromised account issue.

Implementing automation to disable accounts associated with high-risk activities ensures an immediate response to the detected threat, preventing further unauthorized access and allowing time for thorough investigation and remediation.

Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the securityanalyst should patch Host 1 first. Here’s why:

Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.

Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.

Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.