Spring Sale 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: save70

Free and Premium Cisco 200-201 Dumps Questions Answers

Page: 1 / 36
Total 476 questions

Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Questions and Answers

Question 1

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

Options:

A.

examination

B.

investigation

C.

collection

D.

reporting

Buy Now
Question 2

An employee received an email from a colleague’s address asking for the password for the domain controller. The employee noticed a missing letter within the sender’s address. What does this incident describe?

Options:

A.

brute-force attack

B.

insider attack

C.

shoulder surfing

D.

social engineering

Question 3

What are the two differences between vulnerability and exploit? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Known vulnerabilities are assigned special CVE numbers, and exploits are using process to take advantage of vulnerabilities.

B.

Vulnerabilities can be found in hardware and software, and exploits can be used only for software-based vulnerabilities.

C.

Zero-day exploit can be used to take advantage of a vulnerability until the vulnerable software or hardware is patched.

D.

Vulnerabilities are usually populated in the dark web, and exploit tools and methods can be found in the public web.

E.

Zero-day exploit can be used for taking advantage of a known vulnerability, and cyber-attack can be performed on company assets.

Question 4

Which security monitoring data type is associated with application server logs?

Options:

A.

transaction data

B.

session data

C.

alert data

D.

statistical data

Question 5

What is the difference between a vulnerability and an attack surface?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is the risk of exploiting a weakness in the application, and the target application itself is the attack surface

B.

The attack surface is the SQL injection targeted on the database, and the database is the vulnerability that might be exploited.

C.

The attack surface is a sum of measured risks for a particular asset, and the vulnerability is an unmeasured exploitable risk

D.

A vulnerability is unsanitized user input sent to exploit a web application and the browser is the attack surface for the web application

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker scanned the server using Nmap. What did the attacker obtain from this scan?

Options:

A.

Identified a firewall device preventing the pert state from being returned.

B.

Identified open SMB ports on the server

C.

Gathered information on processes running on the server

D.

Gathered a list of Active Directory users

Question 7

What are two differences of deep packet inspection compared to stateful firewall inspection? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

static lists for maintaining a strict access control level

B.

offers application-level monitoring

C.

inspection of only the first packet during a connection attempt

D.

different rule configurations based on payload pattern

E.

quality of service capabilities based on list definitions

Question 8

What is the difference between a threat and a risk?

Options:

A.

Threat represents a potential danger that could take advantage of a weakness in a system

B.

Risk represents the known and identified loss or danger in the system

C.

Risk represents the nonintentional interaction with uncertainty in the system

D.

Threat represents a state of being exposed to an attack or a compromise, either physically or logically.

Question 9

What is the impact of false negative alerts when compared to true negative alerts?

Options:

A.

A true negative is a legitimate attack that triggers a brute force alert, and a false negative is when no alert and no attack is occurring.

B.

A true negative is an alert for an exploit attempt when no attack was detected, and a false negative is when no attack happens and an alert is still raised.

C.

A false negative is an event that alerts for injection attack when no attack is happening, and a true negative is an attack that happens and an alert that is appropriately raised.

D.

A false negative is someone trying to hack into the system and no alert is raised, and a true negative is an event that never happened and an alert was not raised.

Question 10

Which two attacks are denial-of-service (DoS) attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UDP flooding

B.

Code Red

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

ping of death

E.

TCP connections

Question 11

What is a key difference between a tampered and an untampered disk image during a forensic investigation?

Options:

A.

An untampered image is encrypted, and a tampered one is not encrypted.

B.

A tampered image has a different hash value, and an untampered image has an unchanged hash value.

C.

A tampered image is accessible only by administrators, and an untampered one is accessible by all users.

D.

An untampered image is compressed, and a tampered one is left uncompressed.

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit.

In which Linux log file is this output found?

Options:

A.

/var/log/authorization.log

B.

/var/log/dmesg

C.

var/log/var.log

D.

/var/log/auth.log

Question 13

Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 14

A network engineer informed a security team of a large amount of traffic and suspicious activity from an unknown source to the company DMZ server The security team reviewed the data and identified a potential DDoS attempt According to NIST, at which phase of incident response is the security team?

Options:

A.

containment and eradication

B.

preparation

C.

recovery

D.

detection and analysis

Question 15

Which management concept best describes developing, operating, maintaining, upgrading, and disposing of all resources?

Options:

A.

configuration

B.

vulnerability

C.

asset

D.

patch

Question 16

A cyberattacker notices a security flaw in a software that a company is using They decide to tailor a specific worm to exploit this flaw and extract saved passwords from the software To which category of the Cyber Kill Cham model does this event belong?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

delivery

C.

weaponization

D.

exploitation

Question 17

A user received an email attachment named "Hr405-report2609-empl094.exe" but did not run it. Which category of the cyber kill chain should be assigned to this type of event?

Options:

A.

installation

B.

reconnaissance

C.

weaponization

D.

delivery

Question 18

Which list identifies the information that the client sends to the server in the negotiation phase of the TLS handshake?

Options:

A.

ClientStart, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

B.

ClientStart, TLS versions it supports, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

C.

ClientHello, TLS versions it supports, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

D.

ClientHello, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

Question 19

An engineer received a ticket to investigate a potentially malicious file detected by a malware scanner that was trying to execute multiple commands. During the initial review, the engineer discovered that the file was created two days prior. Further analyses show that the file was downloaded from a known malicious domain after a successful phishing attempt on an asset owner. At which phase of the Cyber Kill Chain was this attack mitigated?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

exploitation

C.

installation

D.

delivery

Question 20

Which attack method is being used when an attacker tries to compromise a network with an authentication system that uses only 4-digit numeric passwords and no username?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

dictionary

C.

replay

D.

cross-site scripting

Question 21

According to CVSS, which condition is required for attack complexity metrics?

Options:

A.

man-in-the-middle attack

B.

attackers altering any file

C.

complete loss of protection

D.

total loss of availability

Question 22

An engineer must analyze a security event from last month. The engineer has access to a .pcap file collected via traffic mirroring and NetFlow data. The engineer must perform checks quickly on a busy network segment without prior knowledge of the incident details. Which source of data should be used for analysis?

Options:

A.

pcap file because it is easy to track all activity for the last month

B.

NetFlow because it has all needed data

C.

both sources, first NetFlow because collection is easy, then pcap

D.

both sources, first .pcap based on a simple query, then NetFlow

Question 23

What is a difference between an inline and a tap mode traffic monitoring?

Options:

A.

Inline monitors traffic without examining other devices, while a tap mode tags traffic and examines the data from monitoring devices.

B.

Tap mode monitors traffic direction, while inline mode keeps packet data as it passes through the monitoring devices.

C.

Tap mode monitors packets and their content with the highest speed, while the inline mode draws a packet path for analysis.

D.

Inline mode monitors traffic path, examining any traffic at a wire speed, while a tap mode monitors traffic as it crosses the network.

Question 24

What is a Heartbleed vulnerability?

Options:

A.

information disclosure

B.

buffer overflow

C.

denial of service

D.

command injection

Question 25

What is the name of the technology that searches for and reports on known weaknesses and flaws present in an organization’s IT infrastructure?

Options:

A.

vulnerability scanner

B.

identity and access management

C.

configuration management

D.

mobile device management

Question 26

A company is using several network applications that require high availability and responsiveness, such that milliseconds of latency on network traffic is not acceptable. An engineer needs to analyze the network and identify ways to improve traffic movement to minimize delays. Which information must the engineer obtain for this analysis?

Options:

A.

total throughput on the interface of the router and NetFlow records

B.

output of routing protocol authentication failures and ports used

C.

running processes on the applications and their total network usage

D.

deep packet captures of each application flow and duration

Question 27

Which system monitors local system operation and local network access for violations of a security policy?

Options:

A.

host-based intrusion detection

B.

systems-based sandboxing

C.

host-based firewall

D.

antivirus

Question 28

A data privacy officer at a marketing firm has received a request from a former client to delete all personally sensitive information held by the company. The firm operates globally and follows international data protection standards. The only information retained about the client is a unique customer ID, "051473912", which is not directly tied to the name, address, or any other identifiable details. Which action should the data privacy officer take?

Options:

A.

Delete the data immediately to comply with all global privacy regulations.

B.

Retain the data, as a customer ID by itself does not qualify as PSI under international standards.

C.

Consult the legal team, as customer IDs are always considered PSI and cannot be retained.

D.

Delete the data if the customer ID is stored alongside additional information that can identify the client.

Question 29

A developer is working on a project using a Linux tool that enables writing processes to obtain these required results:

If the process is unsuccessful, a negative value is returned.

If the process is successful, 0 value is returned to the child process, and the process ID is sent to the parent process.

Which component results from this operation?

Options:

A.

parent directory name of a file pathname

B.

process spawn scheduled

C.

macros for managing CPU sets

D.

new process created by parent process

Question 30

What is the difference between an attack vector and attack surface?

Options:

A.

An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

B.

An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

C.

An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack; and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

D.

An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack; and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

Question 31

What should a security analyst consider when comparing inline traffic interrogation with traffic tapping to determine which approach to use in the network?

Options:

A.

Tapping interrogation replicates signals to a separate port for analyzing traffic

B.

Tapping interrogations detect and block malicious traffic

C.

Inline interrogation enables viewing a copy of traffic to ensure traffic is in compliance with security policies

D.

Inline interrogation detects malicious traffic but does not block the traffic

Question 32

An engineer is working on a ticket for an incident from the incident management team A week ago. an external web application was targeted by a DDoS attack Server resources were exhausted and after two hours it crashed. An engineer was able to identify the attacker and technique used Three hours after the attack, the server was restored and the engineer recommended implementing mitigation by Blackhole filtering and transferred the incident ticket back to the IR team According to NIST SP800-61, at which phase of the incident response did the engineer finish work?

Options:

A.

preparation

B.

post-incident activity

C.

containment eradication and recovery

D.

detection and analysis

Question 33

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of attack is represented?

Options:

A.

TCP/SYN flooding

B.

UDP flooding

C.

IP flooding

D.

MAC flooding

Question 34

A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs?

Options:

A.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name

B.

protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port

C.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and username

D.

protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name

Question 35

Which NIST IR category stakeholder is responsible for coordinating incident response among various business units, minimizing damage, and reporting to regulatory agencies?

Options:

A.

CSIRT

B.

PSIRT

C.

public affairs

D.

management

Question 36

What is an example of social engineering attacks?

Options:

A.

receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an attachment from someone in the same company

B.

receiving an email from human resources requesting a visit to their secure website to update contact information

C.

sending a verbal request to an administrator who knows how to change an account password

D.

receiving an invitation to the department’s weekly WebEx meeting

Question 37

When trying to evade IDS/IPS devices, which mechanism allows the user to make the data incomprehensible without a specific key, certificate, or password?

Options:

A.

fragmentation

B.

pivoting

C.

encryption

D.

stenography

Question 38

Which signature impacts network traffic by causing legitimate traffic to be blocked?

Options:

A.

false negative

B.

true positive

C.

true negative

D.

false positive

Question 39

Which filter allows an engineer to filter traffic in Wireshark to further analyze the PCAP file by only showing the traffic for LAN 10.11.x.x, between workstations and servers without the Internet?

Options:

A.

src=10.11.0.0/16 and dst=10.11.0.0/16

B.

ip.src==10.11.0.0/16 and ip.dst==10.11.0.0/16

C.

ip.src=10.11.0.0/16 and ip.dst=10.11.0.0/16

D.

src==10.11.0.0/16 and dst==10.11.0.0/16

Question 40

Which utility blocks a host portscan?

Options:

A.

HIDS

B.

sandboxing

C.

host-based firewall

D.

antimalware

Question 41

An organization recently experienced a major incident in which servers were attacked and data integrity was compromised. The attacker exploited a vulnerability in TLS 1.2 and performed a man-in-the-middle attack by downgrading the connection. Which action should a security specialist take to prevent similar attacks in the future?

Options:

A.

Upgrade to TLS 1.3 or a higher version

B.

Deploy a network monitoring solution

C.

Update IIS server versions

D.

Install a lower version of TLS such as 1.1

Question 42

What is the difference between an attack vector and an attack surface?

Options:

A.

Attack vectors are flaws in configuration, and the attack surface is the system or software that has such flaws.

B.

The attack vector targets security weaknesses, and the attack surface is where an adversary attempts to gain entry across those weaknesses.

C.

The attack surface is tactics, techniques, and procedures used by the threat actor, and the attack vector is the system hardware.

D.

The attack surface defines the number of existing vulnerabilities available, and the attack vector determines the difficulty of available exploits.

Question 43

How does TOR alter data content during transit?

Options:

A.

It spoofs the destination and source information protecting both sides.

B.

It encrypts content and destination information over multiple layers.

C.

It redirects destination traffic through multiple sources avoiding traceability.

D.

It traverses source traffic through multiple destinations before reaching the receiver

Question 44

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain model?

Options:

A.

Scan a host to find open ports and vulnerabilities

B.

Construct the appropriate malware and deliver it to the victim.

C.

Test and construct the appropriate malware to launch the attack

D.

Research data on a specific vulnerability

Question 45

Refer to the exhibit.

An analyst receives an IDS alert pertaining to a possible data exfiltration attempt. An additional set of logs is collected from different systems and analyzed. Which type of evidence do the logs provide in relation to the primary alert from the IDS?

Options:

A.

corroborative evidence

B.

primary evidence

C.

circumstantial evidence

D.

secondary evidence

Question 46

A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs.

Which technology should be used to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

application whitelisting/blacklisting

B.

network NGFW

C.

host-based IDS

D.

antivirus/antispyware software

Question 47

Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?

Options:

A.

threat intelligence

B.

risk scores

C.

vendor suggestions

D.

vulnerability exposure

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is reviewing a Cuckoo report of a file. What must the engineer interpret from the report?

Options:

A.

The file will appear legitimate by evading signature-based detection.

B.

The file will not execute its behavior in a sandbox environment to avoid detection.

C.

The file will insert itself into an application and execute when the application is run.

D.

The file will monitor user activity and send the information to an outside source.

Question 49

An automotive company provides new types of engines and special brakes for rally sports cars. The company has a database of inventions and patents for their engines and technical information Customers can access the database through the company's website after they register and identify themselves. Which type of protected data is accessed by customers?

Options:

A.

IP data

B.

PII data

C.

PSI data

D.

PHI data

Question 50

An engineer must investigate suspicious connections. Data has been gathered using a tcpdump command on a Linux device and saved as sandboxmatware2022-12-22.pcaps file.The engineer is trying to open the tcpdump in the Wireshark tool. What is the expected result?

Options:

A.

The tool does not support Linux.

B.

The file is opened.

C.

The file has an incorrect extension.

D.

The file does not support the"-" character.

Question 51

What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

any potential danger to an asset

B.

the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment

C.

an exploitable weakness in a system or its design

D.

the individuals who perform an attack

Question 52

Which technique is a low-bandwidth attack?

Options:

A.

social engineering

B.

session hijacking

C.

evasion

D.

phishing

Question 53

Which data format is the most efficient to build a baseline of traffic seen over an extended period of time?

Options:

A.

syslog messages

B.

full packet capture

C.

NetFlow

D.

firewall event logs

Question 54

What is an advantage of symmetric over asymmetric encryption?

Options:

A.

A key is generated on demand according to data type.

B.

A one-time encryption key is generated for data transmission

C.

It is suited for transmitting large amounts of data.

D.

It is a faster encryption mechanism for sessions

Question 55

The Cisco Zero Trust Architecture simplifies the zero trust journey into three critical areas. Drag and drop the definitions onto the graphic to describe zero trust from the Cisco perspective.

Options:

Question 56

Which security technology allows only a set of pre-approved applications to run on a system?

Options:

A.

application-level blacklisting

B.

host-based IPS

C.

application-level whitelisting

D.

antivirus

Question 57

What should an engineer use to aid the trusted exchange of public keys between user tom0411976943 and dan1968754032?

Options:

A.

central key management server

B.

web of trust

C.

trusted certificate authorities

D.

registration authority data

Question 58

How does statistical detection differ from rule-based detection?

Options:

A.

Statistical detection involves the evaluation of events, and rule-based detection requires an evaluated set of events to function.

B.

Statistical detection defines legitimate data over time, and rule-based detection works on a predefined set of rules

C.

Rule-based detection involves the evaluation of events, and statistical detection requires an evaluated set of events to function Rule-based detection defines

D.

legitimate data over a period of time, and statistical detection works on a predefined set of rules

Question 59

Refer to the exhibit.

Which technology generates this log?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

IDS

C.

web proxy

D.

firewall

Question 60

What is a disadvantage of the asymmetric encryption system?

Options:

A.

It is slow compared to the symmetric encryption system.

B.

Asymmetric encryption is used to transfer the data, and symmetric is used to encrypt small chunks of data.

C.

Asymmetric encryption is an old technique, and symmetric encryption is the newer one.

D.

It is less secure because it uses a single key for encryption.

Question 61

What is a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

It is a component of a malware attack used to establish a remote covert channel.

B.

It is malicious software that steals confidential data.

C.

It encrypts a victim’s data and prevents access to it.

D.

The volume of data exceeds storage capacity.

Question 62

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

corroborating evidence

B.

circumstantial evidence

C.

best evidence

D.

direct evidence

Question 63

A system administrator is ensuring that specific registry information is accurate.

Which type of configuration information does the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE hive contain?

Options:

A.

file extension associations

B.

hardware, software, and security settings for the system

C.

currently logged in users, including folders and control panel settings

D.

all users on the system, including visual settings

Question 64

Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives and false negatives are compared?

Options:

A.

Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system.

B.

Design criteria for reviewing alerts.

C.

Redefine signature rules.

D.

Adjust the alerts schedule.

Question 65

Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS amplification attack

B.

Brute force attack

C.

ARP poisoning

D.

Denial of service

Question 66

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

confidentiality

C.

availability

D.

scope

Question 67

Refer to the exhibit.

Which technology produced the log?

Options:

A.

antivirus

B.

IPS/IDS

C.

proxy

D.

firewall

Question 68

Which scenario describes a social engineering attack?

Options:

A.

Malicious insider trying to gather information on company security

B.

Text message pretending to be from a legitimate company with a malicious URL inside

C.

Suspicious file detected on a workstation

D.

Company with a recent data breach where confidential information was stolen

Question 69

Refer to the exhibit Which TLS version does this client support?

Options:

A.

13

B.

1.0 and 1.2

C.

12

D.

1.1 and 13

Question 70

What describes a buffer overflow attack?

Options:

A.

injecting new commands into existing buffers

B.

fetching data from memory buffer registers

C.

overloading a predefined amount of memory

D.

suppressing the buffers in a process

Question 71

What is a benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?

Options:

A.

It lowers maintenance costs

B.

It provides a centralized platform

C.

It collects and detects all traffic locally

D.

It manages numerous devices simultaneously

Question 72

Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the description of that evidence on the right.

Options:

Question 73

An organization is cooperating with several third-party companies. Data exchange is on an unsecured channel using port 80 Internal employees use the FTP service to upload and download sensitive data An engineer must ensure confidentiality while preserving the integrity of the communication. Which technology must the engineer implement in this scenario'?

Options:

A.

X.509 certificates

B.

RADIUS server

C.

CA server

D.

web application firewall

Question 74

A company had a recent breach and lost confidential data to a competitor. An internal investigation found out that a new junior accounting specialist logged in to the accounting server with their user ID and stole confidential data. The junior accounting specialist denies the action and claims that the attempt was done by someone else. During court proceedings, the company presents logs and CCTV camera recordings that show the malicious insider in action. Which type of evidence has the company presented?

Options:

A.

indirect and corroborative

B.

direct and corroborative

C.

circumstantial and direct

D.

corroborative and substantive

Question 75

What is the difference between authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authorization is used by a server when the server needs to know exactly who is accessing resources, and authentication is a process by which a server determines the permissions.

B.

Authorization allows an engineer to control the user access level privileges to the router, and authentication is the process of giving the user-specific permissions.

C.

Authentication is coupled with authorization so that the server knows who the requestor is, and authorization is used by a requestor that knows the server.

D.

Authentication allows an engineer to identify who can connect to a router, and authorization is the function of specifying access rights and privileges to resources.

Question 76

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

Options:

A.

MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

B.

MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

C.

DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

D.

DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

Question 77

What is a difference between a threat and a risk?

Options:

A.

A threat is a sum of risks and a risk itself represents a specific danger toward the asset

B.

A threat can be people property, or information, and risk is a probability by which these threats may bring harm to the business

C.

A risk is a flaw or hole in security, and a threat is what is being used against that flaw

D.

A risk is an intersection between threat and vulnerabilities, and a threat is what a security engineer is trying to protect against

Question 78

Refer to the exhibit. What occurred on this system based on this output?

Options:

A.

A user connected to the system using remote access VPN.

B.

A user created a new HTTP session using the SHA256 hashing algorithm.

C.

A user connected to the system after 450 attempts.

D.

A user connected to the system using SSH using source port 55796.

Question 79

What is the difference between discretionary access control (DAC) and role-based access control (RBAC)?

Options:

A.

DAC requires explicit authorization for a given user on a given object, and RBAC requires specific conditions.

B.

RBAC access is granted when a user meets specific conditions, and in DAC, permissions are applied on user and group levels.

C.

RBAC is an extended version of DAC where you can add an extra level of authorization based on time.

D.

DAC administrators pass privileges to users and groups, and in RBAC, permissions are applied to specific groups

Question 80

Refer to the exhibit. A communication issue exists between hosts 192.168.0.11 and 34.253.101.190. What is a description of the initial TCP connection?

Options:

A.

Handshake has been established

B.

Fin flag is not set

C.

Reset flag is not set

D.

Acknowledge is not set

Question 81

What is the virtual address space for a Windows process?

Options:

A.

physical location of an object in memory

B.

set of pages that reside in the physical memory

C.

system-level memory protection feature built into the operating system

D.

set of virtual memory addresses that can be used

Question 82

Which items is an end-point application greylist used?

Options:

A.

Items that have been established as malicious

B.

Items that have been established as authorized

C.

Items that have been installed with a baseline

D.

Items before being established as harmful or malicious

Question 83

An engineer is sharing folders and files with different departments and got this error: "No such file or directory". What must the engineer verify next?

Options:

A.

memory allocation

B.

symlinks

C.

permission

D.

disk space

Question 84

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two elements in the table are parts of the 5-tuple? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

First Packet

B.

Initiator User

C.

Ingress Security Zone

D.

Source Port

E.

Initiator IP

Question 85

What is the purpose of a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

to make files inaccessible by encrypting the data

B.

to decrypt encrypted data and disks

C.

to send keystrokes to a threat actor

D.

to escalate privileges

Question 86

Refer to the exhibit.

Which component is identifiable in this exhibit?

Options:

A.

Trusted Root Certificate store on the local machine

B.

Windows PowerShell verb

C.

Windows Registry hive

D.

local service in the Windows Services Manager

Question 87

Which type of evasion technique is accomplished by separating the traffic into smaller segments before transmitting across the network?

Options:

A.

tunneling

B.

fragmentation

C.

encryption

D.

proxies

Question 88

Syslog collecting software is installed on the server For the log containment, a disk with FAT type partition is used An engineer determined that log files are being corrupted when the 4 GB tile size is exceeded. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Add space to the existing partition and lower the retention period.

B.

Use FAT32 to exceed the limit of 4 GB.

C.

Use the Ext4 partition because it can hold files up to 16 TB.

D.

Use NTFS partition for log file containment

Question 89

An engineer is analyzing a recent breach where confidential documents were altered and stolen by the receptionist. Further analysis shows that the threat actor connected an externa USB device to bypass security restrictions and steal data. The engineer could not find an external USB device Which piece of information must an engineer use for attribution in an investigation?

Options:

A.

list of security restrictions and privileges boundaries bypassed

B.

external USB device

C.

receptionist and the actions performed

D.

stolen data and its criticality assessment

Question 90

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the output indicate about the server with the IP address 172.18.104.139?

Options:

A.

open ports of a web server

B.

open port of an FTP server

C.

open ports of an email server

D.

running processes of the server

Question 91

How does agentless monitoring differ from agent-based monitoring?

Options:

A.

Agentless can access the data via API. While agent-base uses a less efficient method and accesses log data through WMI.

B.

Agent-based monitoring is less intrusive in gathering log data, while agentless requires open ports to fetch the logs

C.

Agent-based monitoring has a lower initial cost for deployment, while agentless monitoring requires resource-intensive deployment.

D.

Agent-based has a possibility to locally filter and transmit only valuable data, while agentless has much higher network utilization

Question 92

Refer to the exhibit.

A company's user HTTP connection to a malicious site was blocked according to configured policy What is the source technology used for this measure'?

Options:

A.

network application control

B.

firewall

C.

IPS

D.

web proxy

Question 93

An analyst see that this security alert "Default-Botnet-Communication-Detection-By-Endpoint" has been raised from the IPS. The analyst checks and finds that an endpoint communicates to the C&C. How must an impact from this event be categorized?

Options:

A.

true positive

B.

true negative

C.

false positive

D.

false negative

Question 94

Which event is a vishing attack?

Options:

A.

obtaining disposed documents from an organization

B.

using a vulnerability scanner on a corporate network

C.

setting up a rogue access point near a public hotspot

D.

impersonating a tech support agent during a phone call

Question 95

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

Options:

A.

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them.

B.

True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless.

C.

False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately.

D.

False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged.

Question 96

Refer to the exhibit A penetration tester runs the Nmap scan against the company server to uncover possible vulnerabilities and exploit them Which two elements can the penetration tester identity from the scan results? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UIDs and group identifiers

B.

number of concurrent connections the server can handle

C.

running services and applications

D.

server uptime and internal clock

E.

server purpose and functionality

Question 97

What is personally identifiable information that must be safeguarded from unauthorized access?

Options:

A.

date of birth

B.

driver's license number

C.

gender

D.

zip code

Question 98

Which are two denial-of-service attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

TCP connections

B.

ping of death

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

code-red

E.

UDP flooding

Question 99

What is a difference between SIEM and SOAR?

Options:

A.

SOAR predicts and prevents security alerts, while SIEM checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

B.

SlEM's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SOAR is more focused on security operations automation and response.

C.

SIEM predicts and prevents security alerts, while SOAR checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

D.

SOAR's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SIEM is more focused on security operations automation and response.

Question 100

Why should an engineer use a full packet capture to investigate a security breach?

Options:

A.

It captures the TCP flags set within each packet for the engineer to focus on suspicious packets to identify malicious activity

B.

It collects metadata for the engineer to analyze, including IP traffic packet data that is sorted, parsed, and indexed.

C.

It provides the full TCP streams for the engineer to follow the metadata to identify the incoming threat.

D.

It reconstructs the event allowing the engineer to identify the root cause by seeing what took place during the breach

Question 101

An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage7

Options:

A.

Run "ps -ef to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources

B.

Run "ps -u" to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server

C.

Run "ps -m" to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap

D.

Run "ps -d" to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion

Question 102

Which technology assures that the information transferred from point A to point B is unaltered and authentic?

Options:

A.

Subject Alternative Name

B.

Trust anchor

C.

Digital certificates

D.

EMV signatures

Question 103

According to CVSS, what is attack complexity?

Options:

A.

existing exploits available in the wild exploiting the vulnerability

B.

existing circumstances beyond the attacker's control to exploit the vulnerability

C.

number of actions an attacker should perform to exploit the vulnerability

D.

number of patches available for certain attack mitigation and how complex the workarounds are

Question 104

What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?

Options:

A.

principle of least privilege

B.

organizational separation

C.

separation of duties

D.

need to know principle

Question 105

Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the phases on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.

Options:

Question 106

Which technology prevents end-device to end-device IP traceability?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

load balancing

C.

NAT/PAT

D.

tunneling

Question 107

What is the impact of encapsulation on the network?

Options:

A.

Something significant is concealed from virtually separate networks.

B.

Logically separate functions in the network are abstracted from their underlying structures.

C.

Numerous local private addresses are mapped to a public one before the data is moved.

D.

Web requests are taken on behalf of users and the response is collected from the web.

Question 108

Refer to the exhibit.

Which packet contains a file that is extractable within Wireshark?

Options:

A.

2317

B.

1986

C.

2318

D.

2542

Question 109

What does cyber attribution identify in an investigation?

Options:

A.

cause of an attack

B.

exploit of an attack

C.

vulnerabilities exploited

D.

threat actors of an attack

Question 110

Drag and drop the technology on the left onto the data type the technology provides on the right.

Options:

Question 111

Which type of data must an engineer capture to analyze payload and header information?

Options:

A.

frame check sequence

B.

alert data

C.

full packet

D.

session logs

Question 112

Which event is user interaction?

Options:

A.

gaining root access

B.

executing remote code

C.

reading and writing file permission

D.

opening a malicious file

Question 113

What is a comparison between rule-based and statistical detection?

Options:

A.

Statistical is based on measured data while rule-based uses the evaluated probability approach.

B.

Rule-based Is based on assumptions and statistical uses data Known beforehand.

C.

Rule-based uses data known beforehand and statistical is based on assumptions.

D.

Statistical uses the probability approach while rule-based Is based on measured data.

Question 114

An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

management and reporting

B.

traffic filtering

C.

adaptive AVC

D.

metrics collection and exporting

E.

application recognition

Question 115

What is the benefit of processing statistical data for security systems?

Options:

A.

detects suspicious behavior based on traffic baselining trends

B.

uses less CPU and RAM resources than metadata-based monitoring

C.

provides fewer false negative events than full packet capture

D.

provides full visibility based on capture of packet traffic data

Question 116

An engineer runs a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see the outcome. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.

Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

signatures

B.

host IP addresses

C.

file size

D.

dropped files

E.

domain names

Question 117

Refer to exhibit.

An engineer is Investigating an Intrusion and Is analyzing the pcap file. Which two key elements must an engineer consider? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Variable "info" field and unchanging sequence number

B.

High volume oi SYN packets with very little variance in lime

C.

identical length of 120 and window size (64)

D.

SYN packets acknowledged from several source IP addresses

E.

same source IP address with a destination port 80

Question 118

What is a scareware attack?

Options:

A.

using the spoofed email addresses to trick people into providing login credentials

B.

overwhelming a targeted website with fake traffic

C.

gaming access to your computer and encrypting data stored on it

D.

inserting malicious code that causes popup windows with flashing colors

Question 119

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag?

Options:

A.

The ACK flag validates the receipt of the previous packet in the stream, and the same session is being closed by the RST flag.

B.

The ACK flag validates the next packets to be sent to a destination, and the RST flag is what the RST returns to indicate that the destination is reachable.

C.

The RST flag identifies the connection as reliable and trustworthy within the handshake process, and the ACK flag prepares a response by opening a session between the source and destination.

D.

The RST flag establishes the communication, and the ACK flag cancels spontaneous connections that were not specifically sent to the expecting host.

Question 120

Refer to the exhibit.

An attacker Infiltrated an organization's network and ran a scan to advance with the lateral movement technique. Which two elements from the scan assist the attacker? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

function and service the server is providing

B.

CPU and vendor version of the asset

C.

running services and parts

D.

security identifiers of logged-in accounts

E.

latency and MS information to calculate delays for a command injection

Question 121

A company receptionist received a threatening call referencing stealing assets and did not take any action assuming it was a social engineering attempt. Within 48 hours, multiple assets were breached, affecting the confidentiality of sensitive information. What is the threat actor in this incident?

Options:

A.

companyassets that are threatened

B.

customer assets that are threatened

C.

perpetrators of the attack

D.

victims of the attack

Question 122

Refer to the exhibit.

A SOC analyst received a message from SIEM about abnormal activity on the Windows server The analyst checked the Windows event log and saw numerous Audit Failures logs. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Windows failed to audit the logs

B.

regular Windows log

C.

brute-force attack

D.

DoS attack

Question 123

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is investigating suspicious network activity by analyzing captured traffic. An engineer notices abnormal behavior and discovers that the default user agent is present in the headers of requests and data being transmitted What is occurring?

Options:

A.

indicators of denial-of-service attack due to the frequency of requests

B.

garbage flood attack attacker is sending garbage binary data to open ports

C.

indicators of data exfiltration HTTP requests must be plain text

D.

cache bypassing attack: attacker is sending requests for noncacheable content

Question 124

What is vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points.

B.

A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats.

C.

A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses.

D.

A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications

Question 125

Which piece of information is needed for attribution in an investigation?

Options:

A.

proxy logs showing the source RFC 1918 IP addresses

B.

RDP allowed from the Internet

C.

known threat actor behavior

D.

802.1x RADIUS authentication pass arid fail logs

Question 126

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of log is displayed?

Options:

A.

proxy

B.

NetFlow

C.

IDS

D.

sys

Question 127

What is a difference between SI EM and SOAR security systems?

Options:

A.

SOAR ingests numerous types of logs and event data infrastructure components and SIEM can fetch data from endpoint security software and external threat intelligence feeds

B.

SOAR collects and stores security data at a central point and then converts it into actionable intelligence, and SIEM enables SOC teams to automate and orchestrate manual tasks

C.

SIEM raises alerts in the event of detecting any suspicious activity, and SOAR automates investigation path workflows and reduces time spent on alerts

D.

SIEM combines data collecting, standardization, case management, and analytics for a defense-in-depth concept, and SOAR collects security data antivirus logs, firewall logs, and hashes of downloaded files

Question 128

Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer receives several alerts from the SNORT IPS/IDS reporting malicious traffic. What should the engineer understand by examining the SNORT logs?

Options:

A.

A remote threat performs an EternalBlue attack on a Windows system on several ports.

B.

An inside threat performs an EternalBlue attack on hosts 192.168.2.101 and 192.168.200.10 on port 445.

C.

A remote threat performs an EternalBlue attack on several hosts and different ports.

D.

An inside threat performs an EternalBlue attack on a Windows system on port 445.

Question 129

A security engineer must protect the company from known issues that trigger adware. Recently new incident has been raised that could harm the system. Which security concepts are present in this scenario?

Options:

A.

exploit and patching

B.

risk and evidence

C.

analysis and remediation

D.

vulnerability and threat

Question 130

What describes the defense-m-depth principle?

Options:

A.

defining precise guidelines for new workstation installations

B.

categorizing critical assets within the organization

C.

isolating guest Wi-Fi from the focal network

D.

implementing alerts for unexpected asset malfunctions

Question 131

What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework?

Options:

A.

identifies, removes, and mitigates system vulnerabilities

B.

detects and removes vulnerabilities in source code

C.

conducts vulnerability scans on the network

D.

manages a list of reported vulnerabilities

Question 132

A malicious file has been identified in a sandbox analysis tool.

Which piece of information is needed to search for additional downloads of this file by other hosts?

Options:

A.

file header type

B.

file size

C.

file name

D.

file hash value

Question 133

A network engineer noticed in the NetFlow report that internal hosts are sending many DNS requests to external DNS servers A SOC analyst checked the endpoints and discovered that they are infected and became part of the botnet Endpoints are sending multiple DNS requests but with spoofed IP addresses of valid external sources What kind of attack are infected endpoints involved in1?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

DNS flooding

D.

DNS amplification

Question 134

Refer to exhibit.

An analyst performs the analysis of the pcap file to detect the suspicious activity. What challenges did the analyst face in terms of data visibility?

Options:

A.

data encapsulation

B.

IP fragmentation

C.

code obfuscation

D.

data encryption

Question 135

What is a description of a social engineering attack?

Options:

A.

fake offer for free music download to trick the user into providing sensitive data

B.

package deliberately sent to the wrong receiver to advertise a new product

C.

mistakenly received valuable order destined for another person and hidden on purpose

D.

email offering last-minute deals on various vacations around the world with a due date and a counter

Question 136

What is the role of indicator of compromise in an investigation?

Options:

A.

It helps answer the question of why the attack took place.

B.

It identifies potentially malicious activity on a system or network.

C.

It is nonforensic data, which is easy to detect.

D.

It describes what and why something happened.

Question 137

Which two measures are used by the defense-m-depth strategy? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Bridge the single connection into multiple.

B.

Divide the network into parts

C.

Split packets into pieces.

D.

Reduce the load on network devices.

E.

Implement the patch management process

Question 138

Which classification of cross-site scripting attack executes the payload without storing it for repeated use?

Options:

A.

stored

B.

reflective

C.

DOM

D.

CSRF

Question 139

Refer to the exhibit. The figure shows an X 509 certificate. Which field represents the digital cryptographic algorithm used by the issuer to sign the certificate?

Options:

A.

Signature Algorithm

B.

Timestamp

C.

Fingerprints

D.

Log Operator

Question 140

An employee reports that someone has logged into their system and made unapproved changes, files are out of order, and several documents have been placed in the recycle bin. The security specialist reviewed the system logs, found nothing suspicious, and was not able to determine what occurred. The software is up to date; there are no alerts from antivirus and no failed login attempts. What is causing the lack of data visibility needed to detect the attack?

Options:

A.

The threat actor used a dictionary-based password attack to obtain credentials.

B.

The threat actor gained access to the system by known credentials.

C.

The threat actor used the teardrop technique to confuse and crash login services.

D.

The threat actor used an unknown vulnerability of the operating system that went undetected.

Question 141

What is an evasion technique?

Options:

A.

injecting insecure malicious code into an application or a system

B.

blocking digital data using one or more mathematical methods

C.

building a payload that constructs a nonexistent signature in the antivirus database

D.

deleting update sources from an intrusion prevention system database

Question 142

What is data tunneling?

Options:

A.

Encrypted information is returned to its original format.

B.

Data is split into packets and transported to the destination.

C.

Packets are transformed into bytes and assembled by a receiver.

D.

Malicious data is hidden within legitimate system processes.

Page: 1 / 36
Total 476 questions