Free and Premium CompTIA N10-009 Dumps Questions Answers

On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Exhibit 2 as follows

Access Point Name AP2

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A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Exhibit 3 as follows

Access Point Name AP3

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A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

802.1X is a port-based Network Access Control (NAC) method that enforces authentication before allowing access to the network. It uses a RADIUS server for identity verification and policy enforcement, ensuring only authorized users/devices gain access.

A. Standard ACL filters traffic by IP, not identity.

B. MAC filtering controls devices by hardware address but can be spoofed.

D. SSO (Single Sign-On) provides user convenience across services, not network-level access control.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — NAC, 802.1X authentication, identity-based access.

VLAN hopping is an attack where an attacker crafts packets with multiple VLAN tags, allowing them to traverse VLAN boundaries improperly. This can result in gaining unauthorized access to network segments that are supposed to be isolated. The other options do not involve the use of multiple network tags. MAC flooding aims to overwhelm a switch’s MAC address table, DNS spoofing involves forging DNS responses, and ARP poisoning involves sending fake ARP messages.

A signal power of -97dB indicates a very weak signal, which can cause connectivity issues and slow speeds. Splitters on a coaxial line can degrade the signal quality further, so removing them can help improve the signal strength and overall connection quality.

Signal Quality: Splitters can reduce the signal strength by dividing the signal among multiple lines, which can be detrimental when the signal is already weak.

Direct Connection: Ensuring a direct connection from the modem to the incoming line can maximize signal quality and reduce potential points of failure.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses troubleshooting connectivity issues and the impact of signal strength on network performance.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides insights on maintaining optimal signal quality in network setups.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers common network issues, including those related to signal degradation and ways to mitigate them.

Introduction to Security Zones:

Security zones are logical segments within a network designed to enforce security policies and control access. They help in segregating and securing different parts of the network.

Types of Security Zones:

Trusted Zone: This is the most secure zone, typically used for internal corporate networks where only trusted users have access.

Extranet: This zone allows controlled access to external partners, vendors, or customers.

VPN (Virtual Private Network): While VPNs are used to create secure connections over the internet, they are not a security zone themselves.

Public Zone: This zone is the least secure and is typically used for public-facing services accessible by anyone.

Trusted Zone Implementation:

The trusted zone is configured to include internal corporate users and resources. Access controls, firewalls, and other security measures ensure that only authorized personnel can access this zone.

Internal network segments, such as the finance department, HR, and other critical functions, are usually placed in the trusted zone.

Example Configuration:

Firewall Rules: Set up rules to allow traffic only from internal IP addresses.

Access Control Lists (ACLs): Implement ACLs on routers and switches to restrict access based on IP addresses and other criteria.

Segmentation: Use VLANs and subnetting to segment and isolate the trusted zone from other zones.

Explanation of the Options:

A. Extranet: Suitable for external partners, not for internal-only access.

B. Trusted: The correct answer, as it provides controlled access to internal corporate users.

C. VPN: A method for secure remote access, not a security zone itself.

D. Public: Suitable for public access, not for internal corporate users.

Conclusion:

Implementing a trusted zone is the best solution for controlling access within a corporate network. It ensures that only trusted internal users can access sensitive resources, enhancing network security.

Understanding the 169.254.x.x Address:

An IPv4 address in the range of 169.254.x.x is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address, assigned when a DHCP server is unavailable.

DHCP Server Offline:

APIPA Assignment: When a device cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, it assigns itself an APIPA address to enable local network communication. This allows communication with other devices on the same local subnet but not with external networks.

Resolution: Ensure the DHCP server is operational. Check for connectivity issues between the virtual machine and the DHCP server, and verify the DHCP server settings.

Comparison with Other Options:

The subnet mask is incorrect: The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is appropriate for the 169.254.x.x range and does not prevent external access by itself.

The IP address is an RFC1918 private address: RFC1918 addresses are private IP ranges (10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x-172.31.x.x, 192.168.x.x) but 169.254.x.x is not one of them.

The DNS server is unreachable: While this could affect name resolution, it would not prevent the assignment of a non-APIPA address or local network communication.

Troubleshooting Steps:

Verify the DHCP server’s status and connectivity.

Restart the DHCP service if necessary.

Renew the IP lease on the virtual machine using commands such as ipconfig /renew (Windows) or dhclient (Linux).

The correct answer is Question the user because the first step in the CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) troubleshooting methodology is to identify the problem. Identifying the problem involves gathering information, asking clarifying questions, determining if anything has changed, and establishing the scope of the issue.

Even though the user states they have “checked everything,” the administrator should not assume that all relevant troubleshooting steps were properly performed. The technician must ask specific questions such as: Are other users affected? Is the issue limited to certain websites? Are there any error messages? When did the issue start? Were there recent updates or configuration changes?

Only after gathering sufficient information should the administrator move to the next steps, such as establishing a theory of probable cause (Option B) or using divide-and-conquer methods (Option A). Documentation (Option D) occurs after resolving and verifying the issue.

Therefore, questioning the user to clearly define and scope the problem is the correct first action according to the structured troubleshooting process.

PAT (Port Address Translation) allows multiple devices on a local network to share a single public IP address when accessing the internet. It translates the private IP addresses to a single public IP with different port numbers for each session. The document states:

“PAT (Port Address Translation) allows multiple devices on a LAN to share a single public IP address by assigning unique port numbers to each session, enabling internet connectivity for all devices.”

A misaligned parabolic antenna can cause a significant increase in input errors because the signal is not properly focused or directed towards the receiving antenna, resulting in poor reception and data corruption. The document confirms:

“Misalignment of parabolic microwave antennas can lead to weak or incorrect signal reception, causing an increase in input errors and connectivity issues on the link.”

The correct metric is RTO (Recovery Time Objective). RTO defines the maximum acceptable time to restore services after a disruption, ensuring business continuity. For example, if the RTO is 4 hours, systems must be back online within that timeframe after an outage.

B. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) measures reliability by calculating the average time between hardware failures.

C. RPO (Recovery Point Objective) defines how much data loss (in terms of time, such as last backup point) is acceptable.

D. MTTR (Mean Time to Repair) measures the average time taken to fix a failure but is not a predefined business requirement like RTO.

Organizations define RTOs during disaster recovery planning to align IT recovery capabilities with business needs.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Business continuity metrics (RTO, RPO, MTBF, MTTR).

The failure of a ping to 127.0.0.1 (the loopback address) indicates a problem with the workstation’s TCP/IP stack or network interface card (NIC). Since 127.0.0.1 is a local address, the issue is not related to the network, router, or DNS. The first step in diagnosing this issue is to verify the NIC interface status to ensure the network adapter is functioning and properly configured.

Why not Verify the network is not congested? Network congestion affects external connectivity, not the loopback address.

Why not Verify the router is not dropping packets? Router issues are irrelevant since the loopback ping fails locally.

Why not Verify that DNS is resolving correctly? DNS resolution is not involved in pinging 127.0.0.1, which uses a direct IP address.

The correct answer is D: Increase the scope to 10.8.100.50 – 10.8.100.175. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, proper DHCP scope configuration is essential to ensure all hosts can obtain valid IP addresses and communicate beyond their local segment.

In this scenario, the DHCP scope is configured for 10.8.100.50 through 10.8.100.150, while a reservation range exists from 10.8.100.151 through 10.8.100.175. The network scan shows that IP addresses up to 10.8.100.175 are already in use. This indicates that some devices are either statically assigned addresses outside the active scope or are failing to receive valid DHCP leases, causing the new laptops to communicate only with each other—often a sign of APIPA or improper addressing.

To ensure full connectivity, the DHCP scope must be expanded to include the entire range of addresses that are actively in use, including the reserved addresses. Option D correctly extends the scope to 10.8.100.175 without overlapping lower addresses that may be statically assigned or intentionally excluded.

The Network+ objectives emphasize avoiding address conflicts and ensuring DHCP scopes align with real-world network usage. Expanding the scope to include all valid addresses ensures that all laptops can obtain proper IP configuration, default gateway information, and full network connectivity.

Understanding End-of-Support:

End-of-Support Status: When a vendor declares a device as end-of-support, it means the device will no longer receive updates, patches, or technical support. This poses a security risk as new vulnerabilities will not be addressed.

Risks of Keeping an End-of-Support Device:

Security Vulnerabilities: Without updates, the switch becomes susceptible to new security threats.

Compliance Issues: Many regulatory frameworks require that critical infrastructure be maintained with supported and secure hardware.

Best Next Step - Replacement:

Decommission and Replace: The most secure approach is to replace the end-of-support switch with a new, supported model. This ensures the infrastructure remains secure and compliant with current standards.

Planning and Execution: Plan for the replacement by evaluating the network's needs, selecting a suitable replacement switch, and scheduling downtime for the hardware swap.

Comparison with Other Options:

Apply the Latest Patches: While helpful, this does not address future vulnerabilities since no further patches will be provided.

Ensure the Current Firmware Has No Issues: This is only a temporary measure and does not mitigate future risks.

Isolate the Switch from the Network: Isolating the switch may disrupt network operations and is not a viable long-term solution.

The correct answer is VLAN hopping, which is a Layer 2 attack specifically associated with bypassing network segmentation controls. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, VLANs are commonly used to isolate traffic between different network segments, such as separating a guest network from internal production systems. When an attack originates from an isolated guest network and successfully reaches an internal server, it strongly indicates a failure or exploitation of VLAN boundaries.

VLAN hopping occurs when an attacker gains access to traffic on another VLAN by exploiting misconfigured switch ports or trunking protocols. Common techniques include switch spoofing, where the attacker pretends to be a switch to negotiate a trunk link, and double-tagging, where two VLAN tags are inserted to trick switches into forwarding traffic across VLANs.

The other options do not best fit this scenario. An on-path (man-in-the-middle) attack requires interception between two communicating hosts but does not inherently bypass VLAN isolation. DNS poisoning manipulates name resolution, not network segmentation. ARP spoofing affects local Layer 2 address resolution within the same broadcast domain and typically cannot cross VLAN boundaries.

The Network+ objectives emphasize proper VLAN configuration, disabling unused trunk ports, and implementing port security to prevent VLAN hopping attacks. In this case, VLAN hopping most accurately explains how a guest network could access internal servers.

The correct answer is Power redundancy because the devices in the rack are equipped with dual power supplies, which are specifically designed to support redundant power sources. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under high availability and physical infrastructure concepts, redundancy is a key strategy to eliminate single points of failure.

If only one PDU (Power Distribution Unit) is installed, both power supplies from each device may ultimately rely on the same power source. This creates a single point of failure—if the PDU fails or loses upstream power, all connected equipment will shut down despite having dual power supplies.

By installing a second PDU connected to a separate power circuit (and ideally a separate UPS or power feed), each power supply in the servers and switches can connect to different PDUs. If one PDU fails, the other continues delivering power, ensuring uninterrupted operation.

Option B (Failed PSU monitoring) is not the primary reason for adding another PDU. Option C (Surge protection) can be provided by a single PDU. Option D (Electricity conservation) is unrelated to redundancy design.

Therefore, adding a second PDU provides true power redundancy.

NAT (Network Address Translation) helps hide internal IP addresses from external networks, adding a layer of security by preventing direct access to internal systems from the outside.

When high-bandwidth services like videoconferencing are introduced, two primary factors may degrade performance:

Incorrect QoS Settings (E):QoS (Quality of Service) is used to prioritize traffic. If not configured correctly, critical services like video may not get the necessary bandwidth and prioritization.

Network Congestion (F):Video services consume large amounts of data. If the network doesn’t have sufficient bandwidth or is not segmented properly, congestion will slow down all services.

DNS misconfiguration (A) would affect name resolution, not bandwidth.

Malware (C) could degrade performance, but is not tied to the described scenario.

Outdated software (D) may affect performance in some cases, but not directly linked to network congestion in this case.

Inadequate network security (B) isn't likely to cause general slowness related to video traffic.

✅ So, the most likely culprits are E. Incorrect QoS settings and F. Network congestion.

The correct solution is NTP (Network Time Protocol). Accurate timestamps across servers, firewalls, and network devices are critical for correlating logs during incident response. NTP synchronizes device clocks to a trusted time source, ensuring consistency across the network.

A. Syslog centralizes logs but does not synchronize time.

B. SMTP is email transfer, unrelated to time.

D. SNMP monitors devices but does not correct time discrepancies.

By implementing NTP, analysts can ensure that logs from different devices are time-aligned, which is essential for reconstructing attack timelines and detecting anomalies.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — Time synchronization, NTP, log correlation.

A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used in DNS to alias one domain name to another. This means that newapplication.comptia.org can be made to resolve to the same IP address as by creating a CNAME record pointing newapplication.comptia.org to SOA (Start of Authority) is used for DNS zone information, MX (Mail Exchange) is for mail server records, and NS (Name Server) is for specifying authoritative DNS servers.

Definition of Fiber Connector Types:

LC (Lucent Connector): A small form-factor fiber optic connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, commonly used for high-density applications.

SC (Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector): A larger form-factor connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, often used in datacom and telecom applications.

ST (Straight Tip): A bayonet-style connector, typically used in multimode fiber optic networks.

MPO (Multi-fiber Push On): A connector designed to support multiple fibers (typically 12 or 24 fibers), used in high-density cabling environments.

Common Usage:

LC Connectors: Due to their small size, LC connectors are widely used in network interface cards (NICs) and high-density environments such as data centers. They allow for more connections in a smaller space compared to SC and ST connectors.

SC and ST Connectors: These are larger and more commonly used in patch panels and older fiber installations but are less suitable for high-density applications.

MPO Connectors: Primarily used for trunk cables in data centers and high-density applications but not typically on individual network interface cards.

Selection Criteria:

The small form-factor and high-density capabilities of LC connectors make them the preferred choice for network interface cards, where space and connection density are critical considerations.

When installing multiple Power over Ethernet (PoE) devices like security cameras, it is crucial to ensure that the total power requirement does not exceed the power budget of the PoE switch. Each PoE switch has a maximum power capacity, and exceeding this capacity can cause some devices to fail to receive power.

PoE Standards: PoE switches conform to standards such as IEEE 802.3af (PoE) and 802.3at (PoE+), each with specific power limits per port and total power capacity.

Power Calculation: Adding up the power requirements of all connected PoE devices can help determine if the total power budget of the switch is exceeded.

Symptoms: When the power budget is exceeded, some devices, typically those farthest from the switch or connected last, may not power up or function correctly.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers PoE standards and troubleshooting power issues.

Cisco Networking Academy: Discusses PoE technologies, power budgeting, and managing PoE devices.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Provides information on PoE setup, including power budget considerations.

A split-tunnel VPN allows some traffic to be routed through the VPN while other traffic goes directly to the internet. This setup offers several advantages, with a primary one being cost-effectiveness due to cloud-based traffic not consuming company bandwidth.

Bandwidth Utilization: Split-tunnel VPNs reduce the amount of traffic passing through the company's network, freeing up bandwidth for other uses.

Performance: By allowing internet-bound traffic to bypass the VPN, it can reduce latency and improve the performance for users accessing cloud services directly.

Cost Savings: Reduced load on the company's VPN infrastructure can lead to lower costs in terms of both hardware and bandwidth.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers VPN types, including split-tunnel configurations and their advantages.

Cisco Networking Academy: Discusses VPN technologies and the benefits of split-tunneling.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Provides detailed information on VPN setups, including the cost-effectiveness of split-tunnel VPNs.

By allowing cloud-based traffic to flow outside the company’s network, a split-tunnel VPN optimizes resource usage and enhances the overall network performance without incurring extra costs for bandwidth.

The netstat output shows that multiple ports are open, including Telnet (23), FTP (20), and TFTP (69), which are potential security risks. Disabling unused ports minimizes the attack surface, reducing security vulnerabilities.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Disable the unused ports – Correct answer. Unused ports should be closed to prevent unauthorized access.

B. Enforce access control lists – ACLs help control access but do not disable unnecessary services.

C. Perform content filtering – Content filtering controls web traffic, not port security.

D. Set up a screened subnet – A DMZ (screened subnet) improves security but does not address open ports.

An on-path attack (formerly known as a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack) involves intercepting and potentially altering communications between two parties without their knowledge. This can be done via techniques like ARP poisoning, rogue access points, or SSL stripping.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Self-signed certificate – These are untrusted SSL certificates but do not intercept traffic.

B. VLAN hopping – VLAN hopping exploits VLAN misconfigurations but does not necessarily intercept communications.

C. On-path attack – Correct answer. This intercepts and modifies traffic between two endpoints.

D. Phishing – Phishing tricks users into revealing credentials rather than intercepting network traffic.

The most likely reason an insurance brokerage would enforce VPN usage is to encrypt sensitive data in transit. VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) create a secure tunnel between the user's device and the corporate network, ensuring that data is encrypted and protected from interception.

Encryption: VPNs encrypt data, preventing unauthorized access and ensuring data privacy during transmission over public or unsecured networks.

Data Protection: Essential for industries handling sensitive information, such as insurance brokerages, to protect customer data and comply with regulatory requirements.

Security: Enhances overall network security by providing secure remote access for employees.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses the role of VPNs in securing data in transit.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on VPN technologies and their importance in data security.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains VPN usage and its benefits in protecting sensitive information.

A warm site typically has a full infrastructure ready, but it lacks the most up-to-date data or is not immediately operational. It requires some configuration or data restoration to become fully functional.

=================

Importance of Proper Termination:

Cat 8 cabling requires precise termination practices to ensure signal integrity and reduce interference. One common requirement is to wrap the end connections in copper tape to maintain shielding and reduce electromagnetic interference (EMI).

Interference Troubleshooting:

Interference in high-frequency cables like Cat 8 can be caused by improper shielding or grounding. Checking the end connections for proper wrapping in copper tape is a crucial step.

Why Other Options are Less Likely:

Passthrough modular crimping plugs: Not specifically related to interference issues and are typically used for ease of cable assembly.

Connecting RX/TX wires to different pins: Would likely result in no connection or incorrect data transmission rather than interference.

Running a speed test on a device that can only achieve 100Mbps speeds: This would not diagnose interference and would not provide relevant information for Cat 8 cabling rated for higher speeds.

Corrective Actions:

Verify that all end connections are properly wrapped with copper tape before termination.

Ensure that the shielding is continuous and properly grounded throughout the installation.

Retest the cabling for interference after making corrections.

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) uses port 389 for standard connections and port 636 for LDAP over SSL (LDAPS), which secures directory service communication.

Breakdown of Options:

A. 22 – SSH port, not used for directory services.

B. 389 – Used for LDAP, but not encrypted.

C. 445 – Used for SMB file sharing, not LDAP.

D. 636 – Correct answer. LDAPS (LDAP over SSL/TLS) secures directory authentication.

Understanding the Vulnerability:

Vulnerabilities in the router CPU can be exploited to cause performance degradation, unauthorized access, or other security issues.

Firmware Update:

Firmware Role: The firmware is low-level software that controls the hardware of a device. Updating the firmware can address vulnerabilities by providing patches and enhancements from the manufacturer.

Procedure: Download the latest firmware from the vendor’s website, follow the manufacturer's instructions to apply the update, and verify that the update resolves the vulnerability.

Comparison with Other Options:

Replace the System Board: This is a costly and often unnecessary step if the issue can be resolved with a firmware update.

Patch the OS: Patching the OS is relevant for devices with a full operating system but not directly applicable to addressing a CPU vulnerability on a router.

Isolate the System: Temporarily isolating the system can mitigate immediate risk but does not resolve the underlying vulnerability.

Best Practice:

Regularly check for and apply firmware updates to ensure that network devices are protected against known vulnerabilities.

NTP (Network Time Protocol) synchronizes clocks across network devices, ensuring accurate timestamps in logs. This is critical for correlating events across different systems during investigations.

A. Syslog collects logs but relies on accurate timestamps already present.

B. SMTP is an email protocol, unrelated to time synchronization.

C. SNMP is for monitoring and management, not time.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — Time synchronization (NTP), log correlation, security operations.

Disabling unused ports prevents unauthorized access and reduces the attack surface by ensuring that no inactive or unmonitored entry points are available for exploitation. Changing default passwords is critical for security because default credentials are widely known and can easily be exploited by attackers. These techniques are fundamental steps in hardening devices against unauthorized access and ensuring network security. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

The errors described — dropped packets and CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) errors — often indicate electromagnetic interference (EMI) on unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling. The correct replacement is STP (Shielded Twisted Pair), which has shielding that protects signals from external interference, ensuring better reliability in noisy environments such as data centers or near heavy electrical equipment.

A. Coaxial is not used for modern Ethernet server-switch links.

B. Shorter UTP cable does not solve EMI issues.

C. Plenum cable refers to cable jacket type for fire safety, not electrical shielding.

STP cabling reduces interference and ensures reliable gigabit+ Ethernet connections between servers and switches.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Troubleshooting — Cabling issues, UTP vs. STP, EMI.

TCP port 443 is reserved for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which uses TLS encryption to secure web traffic. It is the standard port for encrypted web communications.

A. Telnet uses TCP port 23.

B. SMTP commonly uses TCP ports 25, 465, or 587.

D. SNMP typically uses UDP ports 161 (queries) and 162 (traps).

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Standards, Protocols, and Implementations — Common ports and services.

A proxy server can filter internet access by controlling which websites or services users can reach. It enforces content policies and can provide caching and monitoring.

A. A router directs traffic but doesn’t filter internet sites by itself.

B. A cloud gateway could also filter, but the most direct answer is proxy.

D. An IDS detects suspicious activity but doesn’t filter browsing access.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Proxy servers, filtering, access control.

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates an encrypted connection between a remote user and an internal network, ensuring secure access to internal applications.

VPNs use encryption protocols like IPSec and SSL/TLS to protect data during transmission.

They are widely used for secure remote work, accessing company resources, and bypassing geographic restrictions.

Option B (CDN - Content Delivery Network): Used for speeding up website content delivery, not for remote access security.

Option C (SAN - Storage Area Network): Used for high-speed storage, unrelated to remote access.

Option D (IDS - Intrusion Detection System): Monitors for malicious activities but does not provide secure access to applications.

? Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide – Section: Secure Remote Access Technologies

Servers shut down due to overheating, not loss of electrical power. Although UPS units had battery life, without cooling systems (HVAC/air conditioning) running on backup power, server rooms overheated. Backup power for air-conditioning is essential in data center design.

B. Door locks are unrelated to server shutdown.

C. Increasing UPS capacity won’t help cooling.

D. IoT thermostats may monitor temperature but won’t prevent overheating.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Infrastructure — Environmental controls, power redundancy, HVAC systems.

When signal strength is poor, mobile devices constantly boost their transmission power in an attempt to maintain a stable connection. This results in dropped calls/data and rapid battery drain. Since a repeater was installed, misalignment or misconfiguration could be degrading the signal strength.

A. WPS applies to Wi-Fi, not cellular repeaters.

C. Channel frequency might matter for interference, but signal strength is the most direct cause of the described symptoms.

D. Power budget applies to PoE and wired devices, not mobile phones.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Troubleshooting — Wireless/cellular troubleshooting, signal strength impact, user symptoms (battery drain, poor connectivity).

Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage traffic and improves overall network performance.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is the best choice for secure communication over the internet, as it provides encryption, authentication, and data integrity. It is widely used in VPNs and site-to-site secure tunnels.

Breakdown of Options:

A. DCI (Data Center Interconnect) – A general term for linking data centers, but it doesn’t specify a secure tunneling protocol.

B. GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) – Encapsulates traffic but lacks encryption, making it less secure than IPSec.

C. VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN) – Used for Layer 2 network overlays, not for securing communication over the internet.

D. IPSec – ✅ Correct answer. Provides encryption, authentication, and integrity for data over the internet.

VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) segment network traffic by department, allowing ACLs (Access Control Lists) to be applied based on VLAN membership, improving security and resource isolation.

Breakdown of Options:

A. VLAN – Correct answer. VLANs enable logical network segmentation, allowing ACLs per department.

B. DHCP – Assigns IP addresses but does not control access.

C. VPN – Provides remote access, not segmentation within a network.

D. STP – Prevents switching loops, not related to ACL implementation.

EIGRP(Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) supports bothIPv4 and IPv6. While OSPFv3 is specific to IPv6 and RIPv2 only supports IPv4, EIGRP was extended to handle dual-stack environments efficiently.

The most common protocol for secure VPNs is IPsec (Internet Protocol Security). IPsec provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for VPN traffic, typically using ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload). It is used in both site-to-site and remote access VPNs.

B. GRE encapsulates traffic but does not provide encryption.

C. BGP is a routing protocol, not a VPN technology.

D. SSH can be used for secure tunneling but is not the standard for VPN deployment.

IPsec is the industry standard because it operates at Layer 3, securing IP traffic regardless of the application, making it highly versatile.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — VPN protocols, IPsec, ESP.

Port mirroring, also known as SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer), is used to send a copy of network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to another port where the IDS is connected. This allows the IDS to passively inspect network traffic without interfering with the actual traffic flow. Port mirroring is an essential feature for implementing IDS in a network for traffic analysis and security monitoring.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

The requirement is to support over 300 hosts. The subnet mask 255.255.254.0 (or /23) provides 512 addresses, 510 of which are usable — ideal for around 300 devices.

255.255.0.0 (/16) provides too many addresses.

255.255.192.0 (/18) gives 16384 addresses — overkill.

255.255.255.254 is invalid for host assignments (only 2 addresses, 0 usable).

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“To support 300 hosts, a /23 subnet (255.255.254.0) offers 510 usable addresses — the most efficient choice without excessive overhead.”

Malware refers to any malicious software that can exfiltrate confidential data, including spyware, trojans, and rootkits. This fits the scenario where unauthorized data transfer is occurring.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Adware – Displays ads, does not typically steal data.

B. Ransomware – Encrypts files but does not exfiltrate data.

C. Darkware – Not a real cybersecurity term.

D. Malware – Correct answer. Malicious software is responsible for unauthorized data exfiltration.

When traffic moves laterally between VMs within the same network or subnet, it is known as east-west traffic. This contrasts with north-south traffic, which refers to communication between internal and external networks.

Breakdown of Options:

A. East-west – Correct answer. This refers to traffic between internal servers or VMs, which is a common security concern.

B. Point-to-point – Point-to-point describes a direct connection between two devices, but does not specifically define lateral movement.

C. Horizontal-scaling – This refers to adding more instances or nodes in cloud computing, unrelated to traffic flow.

D. Hub-and-spoke – This network topology describes a centralized design, not lateral traffic.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):

An ad hoc wireless network allows devices to connect directly to each other without an access point. This is suitable for small, temporary setups like two laptops and a printer.

A. Mesh requires multiple nodes forming a larger distributed network.

B. Infrastructure requires an AP, which is not available here.

D. Point-to-point is typically for long-distance wireless links between two fixed endpoints.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Wireless network types: infrastructure, ad hoc, mesh.

The correct answer is IP address blocks because geofencing policies typically rely on public IP address ranges associated with specific geographic regions or countries. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) security objectives, geofencing is a security control used to restrict or allow traffic based on geographic location. This is commonly implemented on firewalls, VPN concentrators, or security gateways by referencing databases that map IP address blocks to countries or regions.

When configuring geofencing, administrators create access control rules that permit or deny traffic from specific country-based IP ranges. This method is effective for limiting remote access to approved geographic locations and reducing exposure to international threat sources.

MAC filtering (Option A) is used within local networks and does not function over the internet for geographic control. Administrative distance (Option B) is a routing concept that determines route preference and has no relation to access control policies. Bluetooth beacon signals (Option C) are used for proximity-based services and indoor positioning, not for country-level remote access restrictions.

Therefore, leveraging IP address blocks is the correct approach for implementing geofencing controls.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):

A broadcast message is delivered to all nodes in a broadcast domain (e.g., ARP requests).

A. Unicast is one-to-one.

C. Multicast is one-to-many but only to subscribed members.

D. Anycast is one-to-one-of-many, sending to the nearest node.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Traffic types: unicast, multicast, broadcast, anycast.

Elasticity is the ability of a system (often in cloud environments) to automatically scale resources up or down in real time based on demand.

A. Scalability means the ability to grow over time but not necessarily dynamically.

B. SaaS is a service model, not a resource-allocation concept.

C. Hybrid cloud is a deployment model, not a performance behavior.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Cloud computing, elasticity vs. scalability.

SSH (Secure Shell) is a cryptographic network protocol that enables secure remote management and operation of network devices, including routers and switches. SSH encrypts traffic, making it more secure than alternatives like Telnet, which sends data in plaintext. The document states:

“SSH (Secure Shell) is the recommended protocol for secure, interactive remote management of network devices. It provides a secure channel over an unsecured network by encrypting the traffic between the administrator’s workstation and the managed device.”

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a networking protocol that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users who connect and use a network service. RADIUS is often used to manage access to wireless networks, enabling users to authenticate with their company credentials, ensuring secure access to the network.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials. ​

Port security is a Layer 2 security feature that restricts the number of devices connecting to a network switch port. It helps prevent unauthorized devices, such as an unmanaged switch, from being connected to the network.

How Port Security Works:

Limits the number of MAC addresses that can connect to a port.

Can shut down or restrict the port if an unauthorized device is detected.

Prevents users from plugging in unauthorized networking equipment (e.g., unmanaged switches, hubs).

Incorrect Options:

A. Screened Subnet: A screened subnet (DMZ) is used for isolating external-facing servers, not for controlling unauthorized network connections.

B. 802.1X: Provides authentication for devices but requires a RADIUS server, which is a more complex solution than port security.

C. MAC Filtering: Controls which MAC addresses can connect but is difficult to manage and can be spoofed.

An evil twin attack is when an attacker sets up a rogue access point (AP) with the same SSID as a legitimate one to trick users into connecting. Once users connect, attackers often present fake login pages or capture unencrypted session data to steal login credentials.

A. DNS poisoning manipulates DNS resolution but is not inherent to evil twin.

C. ARP spoofing is a Layer 2 attack involving MAC/IP mapping manipulation.

D. Denial of service can be a side effect but is not the primary objective of evil twin attacks.

The main purpose of an evil twin is credential theft, enabling further unauthorized access to networks or systems.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Wireless attacks, rogue APs, evil twins.

A Client-to-Site VPN allows a remote user to securely connect to a company's internal network, providing access as if they were physically on-site.

When traceroute shows asterisks (timeouts) instead of IP addresses or hostnames, it may indicate that intermediate routers are dropping ICMP packets. However, performing an nslookup will reveal the IP address associated with the domain name, confirming that DNS resolution is correct and helping identify the path to the target server. The document states:

“nslookup is used to query DNS servers to retrieve IP address information associated with a domain name, which helps confirm DNS resolution is working correctly even when traceroute results show timeouts.”

Band steering is a feature in wireless networks that encourages dual-band capable devices to connect to the 5GHz band instead of the 2.4GHz band.

Why Band Steering?

The 5GHz band supports higher speeds and less interference compared to 2.4GHz.

If a device supports both bands, the access point (AP) can "steer" it to connect to 5GHz instead of 2.4GHz.

This helps ensure users always connect to the fastest available network.

Incorrect Options:

B. Disabling the 5GHz SSID: Would force devices onto 2.4GHz, which is slower and more congested.

C. Adding a Captive Portal: Used for guest authentication, not for speed optimization.

D. Configuring MAC Filtering: Used for security, not for optimizing network speed.

In a mesh topology, every node is directly connected to every other node. This provides high redundancy and reliability, as there are multiple paths for data to travel between nodes. This topology is often used in networks where high availability is crucial.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

When a host fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, it assigns itself an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address in the 169.254.x.x range, commonly described as a “self-assigned IP.” This prevents communication outside the local link, including reaching the default gateway.

B. RFC1918 addresses are private ranges (10.x.x.x, 172.16–31.x.x, 192.168.x.x), but these are not self-assigned.

C. If the TCP/IP stack were disabled, the host wouldn’t have any IP at all.

D. If a static IP were assigned, it would show a configured value, not self-assigned.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Troubleshooting — IP addressing issues, DHCP failures, APIPA behavior.

A TXT record can be used to store SPF (Sender Policy Framework) and DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) information, which help verify that an email has been sent from a trusted source.

=================

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a link-state routing protocol that uses the Dijkstra algorithm, also known as the shortest path first (SPF) algorithm, to determine the most efficient routes.

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“OSPF is a link-state routing protocol that provides fast, efficient path selection using the shortest path first (SPF) algorithm.”

Understanding Subnetting:

The subnet mask 255.255.255.240 (or /28) indicates that each subnet has 16 IP addresses (14 usable addresses, 1 network address, and 1 broadcast address).

Calculating the Subnet Range:

Subnet Calculation: For the IP address 10.0.0.95 with a /28 subnet mask:

Network address: 10.0.0.80

Usable IP range: 10.0.0.81 to 10.0.0.94

Broadcast address: 10.0.0.95

Router Interface Configuration:

Broadcast Address Issue: The IP address 10.0.0.95 is the broadcast address for the subnet 10.0.0.80/28. Configuring a router interface with the broadcast address will cause routing issues as it is not a valid host address.

Comparison with Other Options:

The web server is in a different subnet: The web server (10.0.0.81) is within the same subnet range (10.0.0.80/28).

The IP address space is a class A network: While 10.0.0.0 is a Class A network, this does not explain the routing issue caused by the broadcast address.

The subnet is in a private address space: The private address space designation (RFC 1918) does not impact the routing issue related to the broadcast address configuration.

Resolution:

Reconfigure the router interface with a valid host IP address within the usable range, such as 10.0.0.94.

DHCP snooping is a security feature on network switches that helps to prevent unauthorized (rogue) DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to clients. By implementing DHCP snooping, the network administrator can restrict DHCP responses to authorized servers only, preventing unauthorized DHCP configurations, such as incorrect DNS IPs, from being assigned to clients. This helps prevent man-in-the-middle attacks where malicious actors misconfigure DNS to redirect users to fraudulent sites. (Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Chapter on Network Security)

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses an Autonomous System (AS) number for its operations. An AS is a collection of IP networks and routers under the control of a single organization that presents a common routing policy to the Internet. BGP is used to exchange routing information between different ASes on the Internet, making it the only protocol among the listed options that uses an AS number.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and RFC 4271.

The correct solution is a Data Center Interconnect (DCI). DCIs extend Layer 2 networks across geographically dispersed data centers, enabling seamless replication of services such as SAN storage, backup synchronization, or VM migrations. This ensures workloads and data can move between sites while maintaining the same VLANs and addressing.

A. Security Service Edge (SSE) provides cloud-delivered security functions like secure web gateways and CASB, not Layer 2 extension.

C. Infrastructure as code (IaC) automates deployment and management of network infrastructure but is unrelated to extending Layer 2 domains.

D. Zero Trust architecture is a security framework ensuring strict access control but doesn’t address network connectivity between sites.

In scenarios where backups need replication between sites, Layer 2 extension is often required so systems can communicate as if they are in the same broadcast domain. DCI is specifically designed to provide this functionality reliably and securely.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Infrastructure — WAN technologies, data center interconnect, backup replication.

When the hosts file is altered, local name resolution is compromised, and domain queries are redirected to malicious IP addresses. This is a form of DNS spoofing/poisoning, where false mappings trick users into visiting fraudulent websites.

B. Phishing typically uses emails or messages to trick users, not local file modification.

C. VLAN hopping is a Layer 2 attack to gain unauthorized network access, unrelated to DNS.

D. ARP poisoning manipulates ARP tables on a LAN to reroute traffic, not name resolution.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — DNS poisoning/spoofing, host file manipulation, endpoint attacks.

MTTR (Mean Time to Repair) is the average time it takes to repair a system or service after a failure. It helps in measuring the downtime and planning recovery processes.

=================

Network Health:

WAN 2 appears to have a lower average latency and loss percentage, which would make it the preferred WAN station for VoIP traffic. VoIP traffic requires low latency and packet loss to ensure good voice quality and reliability. WAN 1 seems to have higher RAM and processor usage, which could also affect the performance of VoIP traffic.

Here's the summary of the key metrics for WAN 1 and WAN 2 from the image provided:

WAN 1:

Uplink Speed: 10G

Total Usage: 26.969GB Up / 1.748GB Down

Average Throughput: 353MBps Up / 23.42MBps Down

Loss: 2.51%

Average Latency: 24ms

Jitter: 9.5ms

WAN 2:

Uplink Speed: 1G

Total Usage: 930GB Up / 138GB Down

Average Throughput: 12.21MBps Up / 1.82MBps Down

Loss: 0.01%

Average Latency: 11ms

Jitter: 3.9ms

For VoIP traffic, low latency and jitter are particularly important to ensure voice quality. While WAN 1 has higher bandwidth and throughput, it also has higher latency and jitter compared to WAN 2. However, WAN 2 has much lower loss, lower latency, and lower jitter, which are more favorable for VoIP traffic that is sensitive to delays and variation in packet arrival times.

Given this information, WAN 2 would generally be preferred for VoIP traffic due to its lower latency, lower jitter, and significantly lower loss percentage, despite its lower bandwidth compared to WAN 1. The high bandwidth of WAN 1 may be more suitable for other types of traffic that are less sensitive to latency and jitter, such as bulk data transfers.

Device Monitoring:

the device that is experiencing connectivity issues is the APP Server or Router 1, which has a status of Down. This means that the server is not responding to network requests or sending any data. You may want to check the physical connection, power supply, and configuration of the APP Server to troubleshoot the problem.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

•Since this issue occurred after a configuration change on a Layer 3 switch, the most likely cause is misconfigured ACLs (Access Control Lists).

•ACLs control which traffic is allowed or denied, so an incorrect ACL may be blocking access to the file server.

•Why not the other options?

•Switching loop (B): A switching loop occurs at Layer 2 (not Layer 3) and causes network-wide broadcast storms, not just loss of access to a file server.

•Duplicate IP addresses (C): This would cause connectivity issues for the devices with the conflict, but not necessarily prevent all users from accessing the file server.

•Wrong default route (D): The default route is used for traffic leaving the local network. If users are unable to access an internal file server, this is unlikely to be the issue.

Traffic analysis involves monitoring and inspecting network traffic flows to detect unusual patterns, such as a workstation sending large volumes of outbound SMTP (spam). This process enables identification of malware as the root cause.

B. Availability monitoring checks uptime but doesn’t diagnose spam traffic.

C. Baseline metrics show normal usage but don’t pinpoint infected hosts.

D. Network discovery identifies devices, not malicious traffic flows.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Traffic analysis, malware detection, identifying compromised hosts.

The correct answer is Platform as a Service (PaaS). PaaS provides developers with a ready-to-use platform that includes runtime environments, developer tools, middleware, and database services. Developers can focus on writing code while the provider handles security patches, updates, and infrastructure management.

A. CaaS (Containers as a Service) focuses on deploying and managing containerized applications, not providing full developer platforms.

B. IaaS delivers virtual machines, storage, and networking, but administrators must install and maintain the OS, middleware, and updates.

D. SaaS provides end-user applications (e.g., email, CRM), not platforms for development.

By using PaaS, the developers can build applications quickly and cost-effectively without worrying about underlying infrastructure or system maintenance.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Cloud service models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS, CaaS).

A mesh network is the best solution for providing reliable wireless service to public safety vehicles. In a mesh network, each node (vehicle) can connect to multiple other nodes, providing multiple paths for data to travel. This enhances reliability and redundancy, ensuring continuous connectivity even if one or more nodes fail. Mesh networks are highly resilient and are well-suited for dynamic and mobile environments such as public safety operations.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

The option that most directly secures sensitive information on the network is data-in-transit encryption. This ensures that data packets are unreadable to attackers who intercept them while moving across the network. Protocols such as TLS, HTTPS, IPsec, and SSH protect confidentiality and integrity of sensitive information.

B. Principle of least privilege (PoLP) secures access control but does not directly protect data in motion.

C. Role-based access control (RBAC) enforces permissions but again does not secure the data while transmitted.

D. Multifactor authentication (MFA) strengthens identity verification but does not directly protect the data itself once transmitted.

Thus, while all options contribute to overall security, encryption of data-in-transit most directly addresses protection of sensitive information on the network.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Encryption methods, confidentiality, data-in-transit protection.

SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol used to securely connect to a remote server/system over a network. It operates on port 22 and provides encrypted communication, unlike Telnet which operates on port 23 and is not secure. TLS is used for securing HTTP connections (HTTPS) and operates on ports like 443, while RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is used for remote desktop connections and operates on port 3389.

When configuring a firewall, the first step is identifying which ports, protocols, and services are required for normal business operations. This ensures only legitimate traffic is allowed. After establishing the required rules, a default deny rule is added for security.

B. Deny all rule is important, but it should come after defining required rules.

C. VPN access is a service to configure, but only after determining baseline needs.

D. Outbound traffic policies are part of refinement, not the first consideration.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Firewall configuration, rule order, least privilege.

Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a network protocol used for discovering devices and their capabilities on a local area network, primarily at the data link layer (Layer 2). It helps in identifying the connected switch and the specific port to which a device is connected. When troubleshooting a VoIP handset connection, the technician can use LLDP to determine the exact switch and port where the handset is connected. This protocol is widely used in network management to facilitate the discovery of network topology and simplify troubleshooting.

Other options such as IKE (Internet Key Exchange), VLAN (Virtual LAN), and netstat (network statistics) are not suitable for identifying the switch and port information. IKE is used in setting up secure IPsec connections, VLAN is used for segmenting networks, and netstat provides information about active connections and listening ports on a host but not for discovering switch port details.

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that does not provide built-in mechanisms for error detection, retransmission, or acknowledgments. If a UDP packet is lost in transit, the protocol itself does not handle retransmission. However, some applications using UDP (e.g., TFTP or custom streaming protocols) may implement their own mechanisms to detect packet loss and request retransmission if needed.

Why not A? The data link layer (Layer 2) handles frame-level errors within a single network segment, not end-to-end packet loss across networks.

Why not B? The IP TTL (Time to Live) field prevents routing loops by decrementing with each hop, but IP does not handle retransmission.

Why not C? UDP does not use acknowledgments, so the sender does not expect or receive them.

DHCP Options: DHCP options allow additional configuration parameters, such as the address of a TFTP server, to be provided to clients during the DHCP lease process. This is essential for VoIP phones to locate the server for configuration files.

Exclusions (A): Prevents certain IP addresses from being assigned by DHCP but does not direct devices to servers.

Lease time (B): Determines how long an IP address is assigned but does not impact TFTP settings.

Scope (D): Defines a range of IP addresses but does not include additional server information.

Ascreened subnet, also known as aDMZ (Demilitarized Zone), is aboundary networkthat separates an organization's internal network from external-facing systems. It is used to host public services like web or email servers while protecting internal systems from exposure.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):

For a log collector server, the primary needed service is Syslog, which typically uses UDP port 514. Other ports may be open for management (e.g., 22 for SSH) or SNMP traps (162) if integrated. However, port 80 (HTTP) should not be open unless required, as it increases attack surface and does not directly serve the log collection purpose. Disabling it hardens the server.

A. 22 (SSH) is needed for secure management.

C. 162 (SNMP trap) may be required for monitoring/log correlation.

D. 514 (Syslog) is essential for log collection.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Hardening servers, disabling unnecessary services and ports.

After implementing a solution and putting preventive measures in place, the next step is to verify that the system is functioning correctly. This ensures that the issue has been fully resolved.

=================

VLAN hopping allows an attacker to send traffic into another VLAN without authorization, often by impersonating a switch and negotiating a trunk link. This lets the attacker traverse into normally inaccessible VLANs.

A. MAC flooding disrupts switch operations but does not cross VLANs.

B. DNS poisoning corrupts name resolution.

D. ARP spoofing reroutes local traffic but doesn’t grant VLAN traversal.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — VLAN attacks, unauthorized lateral movement.

Introduction to OSI Model:

The OSI model is a conceptual framework used to understand network interactions in seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application.

Application Layer:

The application layer (Layer 7) is the topmost layer in the OSI model. It provides network services directly to end-user applications. This layer facilitates communication between software applications and lower layers of the network protocol stack.

Reliance on Other Layers:

The application layer relies on the transport layer (Layer 4) for data transfer across the network. The transport layer ensures reliable data delivery through protocols like TCP and UDP.

The network layer (Layer 3) is responsible for routing packets to their destination.

The data link layer (Layer 2) handles node-to-node data transfer and error detection.

The physical layer (Layer 1) deals with the physical connection between devices.

Explanation of the Options:

A. It relies upon other layers for packet delivery: This is correct. The application layer depends on the lower layers (transport, network, data link, and physical) for the actual delivery of data packets.

B. It checks independently for packet loss: This is incorrect. Packet loss detection is typically handled by the transport layer (e.g., TCP).

C. It encrypts data in transit: This is incorrect. Encryption is typically handled by the presentation layer or at the transport layer (e.g., TLS/SSL).

D. It performs address translation: This is incorrect. Address translation is performed by the network layer (e.g., NAT).

Conclusion:

The application layer’s primary role is to interface with the end-user applications and ensure that data is correctly presented to the user. It relies on the underlying layers to manage the actual data transport and delivery processes.

The laptop is most likely using the 2.4GHz frequency band. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, the 2.4GHz band is particularly susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI) from common household and office devices, including microwave ovens, cordless phones, Bluetooth devices, and baby monitors. Microwave ovens operate at approximately 2.45GHz, which overlaps directly with the 2.4GHz Wi-Fi spectrum. When the microwave is powered on, it emits interference that can significantly degrade or completely disrupt nearby wireless communications operating in this band.

The 5GHz and 6GHz bands operate at much higher frequencies and do not overlap with microwave emissions, making them far less prone to this type of interference. While higher-frequency bands have shorter range and lower wall penetration, they provide cleaner channels and improved performance in dense environments. The 900MHz band is not used by standard Wi-Fi networks defined in the Network+ objectives and is more commonly associated with legacy cordless phones and certain IoT or proprietary wireless technologies.

Network+ troubleshooting guidance emphasizes identifying environmental interference sources when diagnosing intermittent wireless connectivity. A common mitigation strategy is to migrate affected devices to the 5GHz or 6GHz bands or reposition access points away from interference sources like break room appliances.

The correct answer is SLA (Service Level Agreement) because it is a formal, documented contract between a service provider and a customer that defines expected service standards. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under network operations and service management concepts, an SLA outlines measurable performance metrics such as uptime percentage, response time, throughput, support availability, escalation procedures, and responsibilities of both parties.

An SLA ensures accountability and establishes clear expectations for service delivery. For example, a vendor may guarantee 99.99% uptime, define maximum resolution times for incidents, and specify penalties or credits if performance targets are not met. SLAs are critical in cloud services, ISP agreements, managed services, and enterprise vendor contracts.

An MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a non-binding agreement outlining general terms between parties but does not define enforceable service metrics. EOL (End of Life) refers to when a product is no longer sold or supported. EOS (End of Support) indicates when a vendor stops providing updates or assistance for a product.

Therefore, an SLA is the correct document that defines vendor-delivered service requirements.

Top of Form

If APs are changing channels frequently, it indicates automatic channel selection due to interference. This can cause temporary disconnections as the APs switch frequencies.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Channel interference – ✅ Correct answer. APs change channels automatically to avoid interference, causing disconnections.

B. Roaming misconfiguration – Roaming only affects moving users, but users report issues while stationary.

C. Network congestion – Causes slow speeds, not frequent disconnects.

D. Insufficient wireless coverage – Would cause weak signals, but not channel switching issues.

The correct answer is Load balancer because it is specifically designed to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple backend servers that provide the same application or service. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under network infrastructure, load balancing improves performance, scalability, and high availability by preventing any single server from becoming overwhelmed.

A load balancer can operate at Layer 4 (transport layer, based on IP address and port) or Layer 7 (application layer, based on content such as HTTP headers or URLs). It uses various algorithms such as round-robin, least connections, or weighted distribution to efficiently allocate client requests among servers. If one server fails, the load balancer can redirect traffic to healthy servers, ensuring service continuity.

A router (Option A) forwards packets between different networks but does not distribute traffic among servers running the same application. A switch (Option B) forwards frames within a local network based on MAC addresses. A firewall (Option C) filters traffic based on security rules but does not perform traffic distribution for load-sharing purposes.

Therefore, a load balancer is the correct solution for redistributing traffic among multiple servers.

To monitor server availability, SNMP traps are the best choice. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) allows devices to send alerts (traps) when certain conditions are met, such as server downtime or high resource usage.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Packet capture – Capturing packets provides insights into network traffic but does not actively monitor server availability.

B. Data usage reports – These analyze network traffic consumption but do not indicate whether a server is available or not.

C. SNMP traps – Correct answer. SNMP traps notify administrators of server issues in real time.

D. Configuration monitoring – This tracks configuration changes rather than availability.

A cold site is a backup facility that provides infrastructure (such as power, cooling, and space) but does not have active IT resources installed. When a disaster occurs, IT teams must bring in and configure all necessary hardware and software before services can resume. This process can take weeks or longer—which matches the scenario described.

•Why not the other options?

•Hot site (A) – A hot site is a fully operational backup facility with up-to-date data and pre-configured hardware, allowing almost instant failover (minutes to hours).

•Warm site (B) – A warm site has pre-installed hardware and some software/configurations, but it requires some setup before becoming fully operational (hours to a few days).

•Active-active approach (D) – This means that multiple sites run simultaneously with load balancing, ensuring no downtime in case of a failure.

Port 587 is used for secure email submission. This port is designated for message submission by mail clients to mail servers using the SMTP protocol, typically with STARTTLS for encryption.

Port 25: Traditionally used for SMTP relay, but not secure and often blocked by ISPs for outgoing mail due to spam concerns.

Port 110: Used for POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3), not typically secured.

Port 143: Used for IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol), which can be secured with STARTTLS or SSL/TLS.

Port 587: Specifically used for authenticated email submission (SMTP) with encryption, ensuring secure transmission of email from clients to servers.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses email protocols and ports, including secure email transmission.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on securing email communications and the use of appropriate ports.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains email protocols, ports, and security considerations for email transmission.

The correct answer is SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language). SAML is an XML-based standard used for single sign-on (SSO) and identity federation. It allows identity providers (IdPs) to share authentication and authorization data with service providers (SPs), passing secure tokens containing user attributes and credentials.

A. IAM (Identity and Access Management) is the broader framework, not specifically XML-based.

B. MFA enforces multiple factors for authentication but does not involve XML assertions.

C. RADIUS is an AAA protocol, but it uses UDP, not XML assertions.

SAML is widely used in federated identity systems, enabling secure authentication across different domains and applications without requiring multiple credentials.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Authentication methods, SAML, SSO.

After implementing the solution, the immediate next step is to verify full system functionality. This confirms that the problem has been resolved and helps ensure no new issues have been introduced.

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“After the solution is implemented, test the system to ensure that it is fully operational, and the original problem has been resolved. Also, put in place any measures that could prevent the issue from recurring.”

Least privilege network access is a principle that restricts users' access rights to only what is necessary for them to perform their job functions. In this case, the accountant's access is limited to only the financial department's shared folders, ensuring that they cannot access other parts of the network unnecessarily. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access and potential data breaches. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

This scenario describes a duplicate IP address. The ARP table shows two different MAC addresses (0c00.1134.0001 and 0c00.1298.d239) associated with the same IP address (192.168.1.10), which leads to ARP table conflicts and intermittent connectivity.

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“Duplicate IP addresses occur when two devices on the same network are assigned the same IP address, causing network conflicts. Common issues include manual configuration errors or DHCP lease issues. Resolution includes using IP management tools and avoiding overlaps in DHCP and static IP assignments.”

At the transport layer, connectionless communication is typically handled using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP), which transmits data in units called datagrams. Unlike TCP, UDP does not establish a connection before sending data and does not guarantee delivery, making datagrams the correct term for the transmission format in this context. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

SSH (Secure Shell) is the best and most secure method for accessing a network appliance from an external location, according to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives related to secure management protocols and network security. SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access, ensuring that authentication credentials, commands, and session data are protected from interception, eavesdropping, and man-in-the-middle attacks.

Telnet is an insecure legacy protocol that transmits all data, including usernames and passwords, in cleartext, making it unsuitable for any external or untrusted network access. RDP is primarily used for graphical remote desktop access to Windows systems and is not commonly used for managing network appliances such as routers, switches, firewalls, or load balancers. Additionally, RDP introduces a larger attack surface if exposed externally. FTPS is a secure file transfer protocol and is designed for transferring files, not for interactive device management or configuration.

The Network+ N10-009 exam emphasizes the use of secure administrative access methods, and SSH is the industry-standard protocol for managing network infrastructure devices. It supports strong encryption, key-based authentication, and secure tunneling, making it ideal for remote administration over untrusted networks such as the internet.

Configuration monitoring and management tools (often part of network management systems) maintain version-controlled records of device configurations, track changes, and log who made them. This provides accountability and supports compliance audits.

A. Network access control (NAC) manages endpoint access policies but does not track device config changes.

C. Zero Trust is a security framework requiring strict identity verification, not a configuration tracking tool.

D. Syslog collects system logs, but without a config monitoring system, it does not directly compare documentation to device state.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — Change management, configuration management, auditing.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):

Multimode fiber uses multiple paths (modes) of light that bounce off the cladding to travel through the fiber. This is effective for shorter distances but more prone to dispersion.

A. Twinaxial is copper, not fiber.

B. Coaxial carries electrical signals, not light.

C. Single-mode fiber uses a single light path directly through the core without bouncing.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Fiber optics: single-mode vs. multimode.

A rogue DHCP server occurs when an unauthorized or misconfigured DHCP server assigns incorrect IP addresses, default gateways, or DNS settings to clients.

•In this scenario:

•The user can ping the gateway, meaning local network communication is working.

•However, they cannot access network resources, which suggests incorrect IP configuration (likely due to a rogue DHCP server assigning the wrong gateway or DNS).

•Why not the other options?

•VLAN hopping (A): This is an attack that exploits VLAN configurations to gain access to unauthorized VLANs. It would not typically cause multiple users to lose network access.

•Distributed DoS (C): A DDoS attack floods a network or service with traffic, but this issue is more likely misconfigured IP settings than an actual attack.

•Evil twin (D): This refers to a fraudulent Wi-Fi network mimicking a legitimate one. Since the users are on a wired network (ipconfig output checked), this is not applicable.

Increasing the MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) size allows larger frames to be transmitted, reducing overhead and improving throughput — especially for large file transfers like backups.

A. QoS prioritizes traffic but doesn’t reduce backup times directly.

B. SDN is a network management model, not a parameter change.

D. VXLAN encapsulates VLANs, not relevant to backup speeds.

E. TTL is for packet lifetime, not throughput.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Infrastructure — MTU, jumbo frames, performance tuning.

Shoulder surfing is a social engineering attack where attackers observe someone’s private information by looking over their shoulder or using tools like cameras to capture input.

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“Shoulder surfing is the act of watching someone enter confidential information, such as PINs or passwords, often using direct line-of-sight or surveillance equipment.”

SNMPv3 is the version of the Simple Network Management Protocol that introduces security enhancements, including message integrity, authentication, and encryption. Unlike previous versions (v1 and v2c), SNMPv3 supports encrypted communication, ensuring that data is not transmitted in plaintext. This provides confidentiality and protects against eavesdropping and unauthorized access.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

Single Sign-On (SSO) enables a user to access multiple resources or applications with one set of credentials, improving usability and security. The document confirms:

“Single Sign-On (SSO) allows a user to authenticate once and gain access to multiple resources or applications without needing to log in again for each. It streamlines the login process and improves security by reducing the number of passwords that need to be managed.”

Band steering allows wireless access points to automatically direct capable devices to the 5GHz band, which typically has higher throughput and less interference than the 2.4GHz band, improving performance. The document confirms:

“Band steering helps balance wireless client loads by steering dual-band capable devices to the 5GHz band, which offers higher speeds and less channel congestion than 2.4GHz.”

To redirect a network resource that has moved from a local network to a Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) solution, the network administrator needs to configure a DNS record that maps an alias to the new canonical name (hostname) of the SaaS provider’s server. The CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used to alias one domain name to another, effectively redirecting requests to the new hostname without needing to update the IP address directly. This is ideal for SaaS solutions, where the provider’s server hostname is used, and the IP address may change dynamically.

Why not TXT? A TXT record is used to store arbitrary text data, such as SPF records for email authentication or verification strings, not for redirecting resources.

Why not AAA? There is no such thing as an "AAA" record in DNS. This might be a typo for AAAA (IPv6 address record), but AAAA maps a hostname to an IPv6 address, not an alias.

Why not PTR? A PTR record is used for reverse DNS lookups (mapping an IP address to a hostname), not for redirecting a resource to a new hostname.

Role of the Hosts File:

The hosts file is a local file on a computer that maps hostnames to IP addresses. It can be used to override DNS resolution by providing a static mapping of a hostname to an IP address.

Common Issues with the Hosts File:

If an incorrect IP address is mapped to a hostname in the hosts file, it can cause the computer to resolve the hostname to the wrong IP address. This can lead to navigation issues for specific websites while other users, relying on DNS, do not face the same problem.

Why Other Options are Less Likely:

Self-signed certificate: Relates to SSL/TLS and would cause a security warning, not a navigation failure.

Nameserver record: Affects all users, not just one.

IP helper: Used to forward DHCP requests and is unrelated to DNS resolution issues.

Troubleshooting Steps:

Check the hosts file on the affected user's computer (C:\Windows\System32\drivers\etc\hosts on Windows or /etc/hosts on Unix/Linux).

Look for entries that map the problematic hostname to an incorrect IP address and correct or remove them.

A /21 subnet mask means 21 bits are network bits:

8 + 8 + 5 = 21 → leaves 11 bits for hosts.

Subnet mask in binary: 11111111.11111111.11111000.00000000

Converted to decimal: 255.255.248.0

Therefore:

A. /19 = 255.255.224.0

B. /20 = 255.255.240.0

✅ C. /21 = 255.255.248.0 ← correct

D. /22 = 255.255.252.0

Answer correction: The correct option is C. 255.255.248.0, not B.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Subnetting, CIDR notation, dotted decimal masks.

An incorrect pinout on the patch cable could prevent network connectivity due to mismatched wiring. Even if the cables are the correct length and type, a pinout issue can cause continuity problems and prevent data transmission. Proper crimping with the correct pinout is essential for network cables to function. (Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Chapter on Network Media and Topologies)

Ping sends ICMP Echo Request packets and waits for Echo Replies to verify host reachability and measure round-trip time.

A. tcpdump captures packets but does not test reachability.

B. netstat displays open ports and network sessions.

C. nslookup queries DNS servers for name resolution.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — ICMP operation, troubleshooting tools.

Understanding Link Aggregation:

Definition: Link aggregation combines multiple network connections into a single logical link to increase bandwidth and provide redundancy.

Usage in High-Bandwidth Scenarios:

Combining Links: By aggregating multiple 1Gbps connections, the facility can utilize the full 2.5Gbps bandwidth provided by the ISP.

Benefits: Enhanced throughput, load balancing, and redundancy, ensuring better utilization of available bandwidth.

Comparison with Other Options:

802.1Q Tagging: Used for VLAN tagging, which does not affect the physical bandwidth utilization.

Network Address Translation (NAT): Used for IP address translation, not related to link speed or bandwidth aggregation.

Port Duplex: Refers to the mode of communication (full or half duplex) on a port, not the aggregation of bandwidth.

Implementation:

Configure link aggregation (often referred to as LACP - Link Aggregation Control Protocol) on network devices to combine multiple physical links into one logical link.

The correct answer is Spanning Tree because broadcast storms are typically caused by Layer 2 switching loops in Ethernet networks. According to the CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching concepts, the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is specifically designed to prevent loops in networks that have redundant switch connections.

In a Layer 2 environment, switches forward broadcast frames out all ports except the one on which they were received. If redundant paths exist without STP, frames can circulate indefinitely, creating a broadcast storm. This results in excessive traffic, high CPU utilization on switches, MAC address table instability, and significant network performance degradation.

STP prevents this by logically blocking redundant paths while maintaining them as backups. If the active path fails, STP recalculates and activates a previously blocked path, preserving redundancy without loops.

The other options—EIGRP and BGP (routing protocols) and CDP and LLDP (device discovery protocols)—do not prevent Layer 2 loops.

Therefore, configuring Spanning Tree Protocol is the appropriate solution to mitigate broadcast storms.

When a DHCP server is installed and not enough IP addresses are provisioned, users may start experiencing network outages once the available IP addresses are exhausted. DHCP servers assign IP addresses to devices on the network, and if the pool of addresses is too small, new devices or those renewing their lease may fail to obtain an IP address, resulting in network connectivity issues.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

Speed Mismatches: If NICs are set to different speeds (e.g., 100 Mbps on one side and 1 Gbps on the other), performance will degrade. Ensuring consistent speed settings between devices is crucial for optimal performance.

Load balancer settings (B): Applies to server load distribution, not endpoint speed.

Flow control settings (C): Can affect performance but is secondary to speed mismatches.

Infrastructure cabling grade (D): Relevant if the cables are unsuitable for gigabit speeds, but speed settings should be checked first.

A split-tunnel VPN allows certain traffic (e.g., cloud-based services) to bypass the VPN and go directly to the Internet. This reduces the amount of traffic that needs to traverse the company's VPN and Internet connection, conserving bandwidth and reducing costs. It also means that not all traffic is subject to the same level of inspection or filtering, which can improve performance for cloud-based services.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

The customer can access local resources (a database server), which means local networking is working. However, the inability to reach the internet suggests an issue with the default gateway. If the default gateway is unreachable, packets will not be routed outside the local network.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Incorrect DNS – DNS issues would cause problems resolving domain names, but the user should still be able to access external resources via IP addresses.

B. Unreachable gateway – ✅ Correct answer. If the default gateway is incorrect or unreachable, the device cannot route traffic to the internet.

C. Failed root bridge – STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) failures cause switching issues, but the user can still access local devices, meaning STP is not the problem.

D. Poor upstream routing – Would affect the entire network, not just one user.

The issue is that more students have arrived on campus, meaning the available IP addresses are exhausted. To fix this, the administrator should increase the DHCP scope size to allow more devices to obtain IP addresses.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Enable IP helper – IP helper is used to forward DHCP requests across different subnets. However, the problem here is that the DHCP scope is full, not that requests are not reaching the server.

B. Change the subnet mask – The subnet mask determines the number of available hosts, but changing it without increasing the IP pool does not help.

C. Increase the scope size – Correct answer. Expanding the DHCP scope provides more IP addresses for assignment.

D. Add address exclusions – Exclusions reserve IP addresses, which would further reduce available addresses instead of solving the issue.

VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN) encapsulates Ethernet frames inside UDP packets, increasing packet size. This can lead to fragmentation and performance degradation unless Jumbo Frames are enabled.

Breakdown of Options:

A. 802.1Q tagging – VLAN tagging enables segmentation but does not address fragmentation issues.

B. Spanning tree – STP prevents loops but does not improve performance for VXLAN traffic.

C. Link aggregation – LACP combines links for higher bandwidth but does not prevent fragmentation.

D. Jumbo frames – Correct answer. Enabling Jumbo Frames allows larger packet sizes, reducing fragmentation and improving VXLAN performance.

Wi-Fi 6E is the best choice for high-density environments, such as a university campus. It:

Supports more devices with OFDMA (Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiple Access)

Uses the 6GHz band, reducing congestion

Provides faster speeds and lower latency

This makes Wi-Fi 6E ideal for large networks with high-bandwidth demands, like those in a university setting.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Bluetooth – Used for short-range, low-power connections, not large-scale wireless networks.

B. Wi-Fi 6E – ✅ Correct answer. Designed for high-density environments, improving speed and efficiency.

C. 5G – Used for mobile networks, but not ideal for campus-wide local wireless infrastructure.

D. LTE – Used for cellular data, not for campus-wide Wi-Fi.

Understanding Tracert:

Traceroute Tool: tracert (Windows) or traceroute (Linux) is a network diagnostic tool used to trace the path that packets take from a source to a destination. It lists all the intermediate routers the packets traverse.

Determining Traffic Path:

Path Identification: By running tracert to the web application's destination IP address, the technician can identify which route the traffic is taking and thereby determine which internet link is being used.

Load Balancing Insight: If the office uses load balancing for its internet links, tracert can help verify which link is currently handling the traffic for the web application.

Comparison with Other Tools:

netstat: Displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more, but does not trace the path of packets.

nslookup: Used for querying DNS to obtain domain name or IP address mapping, not for tracing packet routes.

ping: Tests connectivity and measures round-trip time but does not provide path information.

Implementation:

Open a command prompt or terminal.

Execute tracert [destination IP] to trace the route.

Analyze the output to determine the path and the link being used.

If a workstation can access the internet and printers (likely in another VLAN) but not internal servers, the port was likely placed into the wrong VLAN after the move. VLAN assignment controls Layer 2 segmentation, restricting access to resources on different VLANs.

A. A wrong default gateway would prevent internet access.

C. An error-disabled port would block all connectivity.

D. A duplicate IP would cause general network issues, not just missing server access.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Troubleshooting — VLAN misconfiguration, connectivity issues.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (paraphrased, aligned to N10-009):

An evil twin is a malicious wireless access point that impersonates a legitimate SSID. Once victims connect, the attacker can intercept and manipulate traffic, performing an on-path (man-in-the-middle) attack—capturing credentials, injecting content, or downgrading encryption.

B. DDoS overwhelms services with traffic; it’s not the typical follow-on from clients joining a rogue AP.

C. ARP spoofing is another way to become on-path on wired segments, but with an evil twin, the wireless association itself enables the on-path position.

D. Phishing is social engineering; while an evil twin could be used to present fake portals, the primary technical posture after connection is on-path.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Wireless threats (rogue APs/evil twins), traffic interception, on-path attacks.

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Out-of-band (OOB) management refers to using a dedicated management network that is physically separate from the regular data network. This management network uses a different set of IP addresses to ensure that management traffic is isolated from user data traffic, providing a secure way to manage network devices even if the main network is down or compromised.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials. ​

The correct answer is The port's VLAN assignment on the switch because the symptoms indicate a Layer 2 segmentation issue. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) troubleshooting methodology and VLAN concepts, if the IP configuration is correct and the TCP/IP stack is functioning, but the default gateway is unreachable, the issue often involves improper VLAN configuration.

In a switched environment, devices must be assigned to the correct VLAN to communicate with the appropriate default gateway interface (often configured on a router or Layer 3 switch). If the user’s switch port is assigned to the wrong VLAN, the workstation may have a valid IP address but will not be able to reach the gateway because it is logically separated into a different broadcast domain.

Option A is unlikely since the IP configuration is already confirmed correct. Option C is not relevant because the issue is localized to a specific user, not a widespread DHCP failure. Option D refers to switch management configuration, which does not affect user traffic routing to the gateway.

Therefore, verifying the switch port’s VLAN assignment is the most appropriate next troubleshooting step.

When a network interface's indicator lights are not blinking on either the computer or the switch, it suggests a physical layer issue. Here is the detailed reasoning:

Ethernet Properly Connected: The Ethernet cable is correctly connected, eliminating issues related to a loose or faulty cable.

No Indicator Lights: The absence of blinking indicator lights on both the computer and the switch typically points to the port being administratively shut down.

Switch Port Shut Down: In networking, a switch port can be administratively shut down, disabling it from passing any traffic. This state is configured by network administrators and can be verified and changed using the command-line interface (CLI) of the switch.

Command to Check and Enable Port:

bash

Copy code

Switch> enable

Switch# configure terminal

Switch(config)# interface [interface id]

Switch(config-if)# no shutdown

The command no shutdown re-enables the interface if it was previously disabled. This will restore the link and the indicator lights should start blinking, showing activity.

Basic Configuration Commands PDF, sections on interface configuration (e.g., shutdown, no shutdown)​​.