ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Dumps : ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Exam

Automating notifications about faulty deployments requires tools that facilitate communication and process orchestration between teams. ITIL 4 recommends workflow management and collaboration tools (Option B), such as Slack, Microsoft Teams, or ServiceNow, to automate alerts, streamline communication, and ensure timely responses to deployment issues.

Option A (Service configuration management tools):Incorrect, as these tools manage configuration item data in a CMDB, not notifications or team communication.

Option B (Workflow management and collaboration tools):Correct, as these tools automate notifications and enable seamless collaboration between development and operations teams, addressing the issue directly.

Option C (Work planning and prioritization tools):Incorrect, as tools like Jira focus on task management, not real-time notification automation.

Option D (Environment configuration and management tools):Incorrect, as these tools (e.g., Puppet) manage environment setups, not team notifications.

ITIL 4 defines capability level 3 for a practice as achieving integration across the organization, where the practice is embedded into broader workflows and understood by related practices. For deployment management, an indication of reaching capability level 3 is when employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows (Option B). This demonstrates cross-functional alignment and maturity, showing that deployment management is not siloed but part of the organization’s value streams.

Option A (The deployment management team regularly suggests and implements improvement opportunities):Incorrect, as continual improvement is characteristic of higher capability levels (e.g., level 4), not the defining feature of level 3.

Option B (Employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows):Correct, as level 3 focuses on integration and collaboration across practices, per ITIL 4’s capability framework.

Option C (The deployment manager is able to report on the effectiveness of the deployment management practice):Incorrect, as reporting effectiveness is a general management task, not specific to level 3 maturity.

Option D (Deployment models are developed and implemented):Incorrect, as model development occurs at lower capability levels (e.g., level 1 or 2), not a hallmark of level 3.

ITIL 4’s deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.

Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments):Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4’s definition of deployment management.

Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment):Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.

Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment):Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.

Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment):Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.