F3 Exam Dumps : Financial Strategy

 Revenues are in E$ and F$, costs are in G$, and reporting currency is D$.

 If the D$ strengthens against G$ (option C), then G$ costs translate into fewer D$, so reported costs fall and operating profit margin improves.

 A stronger D$ against E$ or F$ (A or B) reduces the D$ value of sales, hurting margins.

 A weaker D$ against G$ (D) makes G$-denominated costs more expensive in D$, also hurting margins.

So the change that most helps maintain/improve margin is C.

A spin-off/demerger normally involves separating a division or subsidiary and giving its shares to the existing shareholders. It doesn’t in itself raise finance (A), it doesn’t introduce new shareholders to the core entity (B), and it does not inherently increase takeover risk (D). Its main advantage is that it allows the market to value the demerged business separately, revealing its “true” value – C is correct.

For a company valued using the free cash flow to equity with constant growth, the standard Gordon growth formula is:

Value of equity=FCF1ke−g\text{Value of equity} = \frac{\text{FCF}_1}{k_e - g}Value of equity=ke​−gFCF1​​

Where:

FCF₁ = free cash flow in one year’s time

kek_eke​ = cost of equity

ggg = constant growth rate

Here:

FCF₁ = $100,000

ke=10%=0.10k_e = 10\% = 0.10ke​=10%=0.10

g=5%=0.05g = 5\% = 0.05g=5%=0.05

Correct valuation:

Value=100,0000.10−0.05=100,0000.05=$2,000,000\text{Value} = \frac{100{,}000}{0.10 - 0.05} = \frac{100{,}000}{0.05} = \$2{,}000{,}000Value=0.10−0.05100,000​=0.05100,000​=$2,000,000

The analyst instead did:

100,000×(1+0.05)/0.10=105,000/0.10=$1,050,000100{,}000 \times (1 + 0.05) / 0.10 = 105{,}000 / 0.10 = \$1{,}050{,}000100,000×(1+0.05)/0.10=105,000/0.10=$1,050,000

So the true value is $2,000,000 and the analyst’s value is $1,050,000.

Undervaluation=2,000,000−1,050,000=$950,000\text{Undervaluation} = 2{,}000{,}000 - 1{,}050{,}000 = \$950{,}000Undervaluation=2,000,000−1,050,000=$950,000

So the company has been undervalued by $950,000 → Option A.