F3 Exam Dumps : Financial Strategy

Company X is an established, unquoted, specialist IT advisory firm with steady results, predictable dividends and cashflows. Company P is only buying 30% (a minority stake).

B. Dividend based using DVM – Very suitable because dividends are predictable and regular. For a minority stake, dividends are often the main measurable return, so a dividend valuation model is appropriate.

C. Cash based using free cash flow before interest – A DCF valuation based on free cash flow to the firm is also appropriate for a profitable, growing, going concern. You can value the whole business using FCFF and then take 30% of the equity value.

Asset-based (A) is less relevant for a specialist service company with relatively few tangible assets. P/E-based methods (D and E) are less ideal given there are few direct competitors, making comparables unreliable.

Current PBIT = $25m

Existing debt = $60m at 5% → interest = 0.05 × 60 = $3m

Current interest cover = 25 / 3 = 8.3 times (as stated).

New borrowing: $20m at 10% → extra interest = 0.10 × 20 = $2m

Total interest after borrowing = 3 + 2 = $5m

PBIT in first year is unchanged at $25m, so:

New interest cover=255=5 times\text{New interest cover} = \frac{25}{5} = 5 \text{ times}New interest cover=525​=5 times

Loan covenant requires minimum cover of 4 times. New cover (5x) is above this, so covenant is not breached.

Correct answer: D – Interest cover would reduce to 5 times and the covenant would NOT be breached.

A: Net position is pay floating (fixed to bank, receive fixed in swap, pay floating) → True.

B: No principal is exchanged in an interest rate swap → False.

C: LIBOR, not LIBID, is normally the reference rate → False.

D: Interest cash flows are exchanged periodically (e.g. annually) → True.

E: Swaps are usually between a company and a bank → True.

Answer: A, D, E