CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

IFRS 7 requires detailed disclosures about financial instruments and risk management, including currency risk, sensitivity analysis, and how those risks are managed. When these are published for the first time, investors may learn new information about:

The extent of US$ exposure (40% export sales), and

The quality of risk management (hedging, matching, etc.).

Efficient market theory (covered in F3) says prices adjust to new, relevant information. That new information could make investors more confident (if risks are well managed) or more concerned (if risks are high and poorly managed). So the share price could either increase or decrease, depending on the market’s reaction.

That matches option D.

Options A and C assume a one-way direction (always up or always down), which is unrealistic. B is wrong because segmental analysis does not normally give the same detailed, risk-focused disclosure as IFRS 7.

A – Retained earnings: When you value equity by discounting cash flows to equity, the result already represents the total value of equity. You don’t then add book retained earnings on top – that would double-count equity.

B – Deducting $400m for the bond: With a FCFE valuation you do not deduct the value of debt at all – the cash flows are already after interest and principal. So deducting the bond is wrong, and in any case they used nominal value ($400m) instead of market value ($380m).

C – Using WACC: Cash flows to equity must be discounted at the cost of equity, not at WACC. WACC is used only when discounting free cash flow to the firm.

Using cash flows to equity (D) is fine, and deducting replacement capex (E) is correct because only free cash after maintaining assets belongs to shareholders.

A. Any opportunity to benefit from future exchange rate movements is lost.

True – a money market hedge locks in the effective exchange rate now, so you remove both downside risk and upside potential.

B. It can be tailored to match the size of the payment.

True – you can structure the borrowing/lending and FX transaction to exactly match the foreign currency amount due.

C. It manages transaction risk.

True – transaction risk (uncertainty in the home currency value of a known future foreign-currency cash flow) is what a money market hedge directly addresses.

D. It offers a significantly better outcome than a forward contract.

False – under interest rate parity, a money market hedge and a forward contract should give similar effective rates (ignoring spreads and costs).

E. It avoids the need to find immediate finance.

False – for a payable, you normally borrow or use cash now as part of the hedge, so it does not avoid immediate financing; it actually requires it.

✅ Answer to Q29: A, B, C