CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Before announcement:

Equity = 4m shares × $4.0 = $16m

Debt = $7m

Gearing = 7 / 16 = 43.75% → already above 40%.

After additional $2m debt and higher share price:

Debt = 7 + 2 = $9m

Equity = 4m × $4.2 = $16.8m

Gearing = 9 / 16.8 ≈ 53.6% → even further above the 40% ceiling.

So the gearing objective is exceeded both before and after, and gearing rises.

The assistant has discounted free cash flows to all investors at the WACC (10%). That gives the value of the business (enterprise value), not directly the value of equity.

For a geared company:

If you discount free cash flows to the firm (all investors) at the WACC, you obtain the total value of the firm (V).

To get equity value (E), you must then subtract the market value of debt (D):

E=V−DE = V - DE=V−D

Here, the company has a $6m 7% undated bond trading at par, so the market value of debt is $6m. That amount has not been deducted.

The other options are not errors:

The perpetuity discounting using 7.91.102×0.10\frac{7.9}{1.10^2 \times 0.10}1.102×0.107.9​ is correct for a constant cash flow from year 3 onward.

Using WACC (10%) is appropriate for FCFF.

Tax at 20% is already reflected in either the cash flows or the WACC; it is not “missing” as a separate line.

So the specific mistake is failing to deduct the $6m debt value, i.e. option D.

This requirement is a standard interest rate parity (IRP) application from CIMA F3 foreign exchange management. Where the spot rate is quoted as foreign currency per unit of home currency (here, A$ per PS, since 1 PS = 5 A$), CIMA F3 applies the parity relationship to forecast the exchange rate over the period using relative money-market interest rates. The forward/forecast rate is derived as:

Given:

p.a. (home deposits)

p.a. (foreign deposits)

PPP will receive A$5,000,000 in 3 months; converting at the forecast rate:

Rounded to the nearest thousand PS: