CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

The most appropriate swap is to receive fixed and pay floating on $50 million of the new debt.

Answer: D. Receive fixed pay floating interest rate swap for $50 million.

When valuing an unlisted company using a P/E ratio from a similar listed company, we normally reduce the proxy P/E to reflect the extra risk and reduced attractiveness of the unlisted investment.

A. Relative lack of marketability – Unlisted shares are harder to sell and usually take longer to realise, so investors demand a higher return, i.e. a lower P/E. ✔

B. Lower level of scrutiny and regulation – Unlisted companies face less disclosure and governance requirements, so information risk is higher. Greater risk ⇒ lower valuation multiple ⇒ reduced P/E. ✔

C. Smaller and less established – Unlisted companies tend to be smaller, less diversified and less stable, so investors again expect a higher return, implying a lower P/E. ✔

D. Control premium not included – If the proxy P/E excludes a control premium but you are valuing a controlling stake, you would increase the P/E, not reduce it. ✘

E. Higher forecast earnings growth – Higher expected growth justifies a higher P/E, not a lower one. ✘

F. One-off profit item in latest earnings – This should be dealt with by adjusting the earnings, not by cutting the P/E multiple. ✘

So the three factors justifying a reduction in the proxy P/E are A, B and C.

A. True – holding more securities across different industries reduces unsystematic risk.

B. False – systematic risk (market risk) cannot be diversified away.

C. True – beta measures an investment’s systematic risk relative to the market.

D. False – beta of 1 means same risk as the market, not risk-free.

E. True – the Security Market Line (SML) plots expected return against beta (systematic risk).

So the correct three are A, C and E.