CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Under traditional (pre–Modigliani & Miller) capital structure theory, there is an assumed inverse relationship between WACC and company value. The idea is:

As a firm moves towards its optimal capital structure, the WACC falls, and the total value of the firm (equity + debt) rises.

Beyond that optimal point, extra gearing increases financial risk, so the required return from both debt and equity goes up, causing WACC to rise and firm value to fall.

So, within this framework, if a company’s WACC increases, that means it has moved away from its optimal capital structure, and the value of the company will decrease.

Therefore, under traditional theory, an increase in WACC → decrease in company value, so the correct answer is B.

Current price = $5.00

Rights discount = 20% → Issue price = 5 × 0.8 = $4.00

Funds required = $20m

Number of new shares:

20m4=5m shares\frac{20\text{m}}{4} = 5\text{m shares}420m​=5m shares

Currently 20m shares in issue, so ratio:

5m20m=14\frac{5\text{m}}{20\text{m}} = \frac{1}{4}20m5m​=41​

So terms = 1 new share for every 4 existing → A.

Residual dividend policy → dividends are not a good reflection of underlying performance → rules out A.

Highly cyclical earnings and capital structure not matched by listed peers make simple P/E comparison (D) unreliable.

Net asset value (C) rarely captures earnings potential for a going concern.

A discounted cash flow approach using free cash flows and a cost of equity derived from a proxy company (adjusted for gearing) is most appropriate.

Answer: B: Discounted cash flow analysis at WACC based on free cash flow to equity.

(Conceptually: FCFE discounted at cost of equity.)