CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Let’s walk it through carefully.

1. Current earnings and EPS

EBIT = 5m

Current interest (5% × 10m) = 0.5m

Profit before tax = 5.0 − 0.5 = 4.5m

Tax (20%) = 0.9m

Earnings = 4.5 − 0.9 = 3.6m

Shares = 10m → EPS₀ = 3.6 / 10 = 0.36

Current share price = 3.60 → current P/E = 3.60 / 0.36 = 10 (matches the question context).

2. Earnings next year with higher interest

New interest rate = 6% → interest = 10m × 6% = 0.6m

Profit before tax = 5.0 − 0.6 = 4.4m

Tax (20%) = 0.88m

Earnings = 4.4 − 0.88 = 3.52m

EPS₁ = 3.52 / 10m = 0.352

3. New share price using new P/E

Expected P/E next year = 9.5

Price1=EPS1×P/E1=0.352×9.5=3.344\text{Price}_1 = \text{EPS}_1 \times \text{P/E}_1 = 0.352 \times 9.5 = 3.344Price1​=EPS1​×P/E1​=0.352×9.5=3.344

4. Percentage reduction in share price

Current price = 3.60

New price ≈ 3.344

Drop = 3.60 − 3.344 = 0.256

% reduction=0.2563.60≈7.1%≈7%\%\ \text{reduction} = \frac{0.256}{3.60} \approx 7.1\% \approx 7\%% reduction=3.600.256​≈7.1%≈7%

So the closest option is A. Reduction of 7%.

Under traditional (pre–Modigliani & Miller) capital structure theory, there is an assumed inverse relationship between WACC and company value. The idea is:

As a firm moves towards its optimal capital structure, the WACC falls, and the total value of the firm (equity + debt) rises.

Beyond that optimal point, extra gearing increases financial risk, so the required return from both debt and equity goes up, causing WACC to rise and firm value to fall.

So, within this framework, if a company’s WACC increases, that means it has moved away from its optimal capital structure, and the value of the company will decrease.

Therefore, under traditional theory, an increase in WACC → decrease in company value, so the correct answer is B.