CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Workings (Modigliani & Miller with tax):

Current (unlevered) cost of capital ku=9%k_u = 9\%ku​=9%

Cost of debt kd=3%k_d = 3\%kd​=3%

Tax rate T=25%T = 25\%T=25%

Target D/E=1/2=0.5D/E = 1/2 = 0.5D/E=1/2=0.5

Formula with tax:

ke=ku+(ku−kd)(1−T)DEk_e = k_u + (k_u - k_d)(1-T)\frac{D}{E}ke​=ku​+(ku​−kd​)(1−T)ED​ ke=9%+(9%−3%)×0.75×0.5=9%+6%×0.375=9%+2.25%=11.25%≈11.3%k_e = 9\% + (9\% - 3\%) \times 0.75 \times 0.5 = 9\% + 6\% \times 0.375 = 9\% + 2.25\% = 11.25\% \approx 11.3\%ke​=9%+(9%−3%)×0.75×0.5=9%+6%×0.375=9%+2.25%=11.25%≈11.3%

So the nearest option is 11.3% (C).

In semi-strong form market efficiency, share prices reflect all publicly available information, and they react quickly and unbiasedly to new public announcements.

Here, the share price was fairly static before the profit warning, then fell 20% on the day of the announcement. That suggests:

The market did not know this bad news beforehand.

When the profit warning was announced (new public info), the price immediately adjusted.

That is classic semi-strong efficiency behaviour.

Weak form only says prices reflect past price data, not necessarily public news.

Strong form would imply even insider information is already reflected, so you might have seen movement before the announcement.

“Random walk” describes the pattern of price movements, not a level of efficiency in this context.

The assistant has discounted free cash flows to all investors at the WACC (10%). That gives the value of the business (enterprise value), not directly the value of equity.

For a geared company:

If you discount free cash flows to the firm (all investors) at the WACC, you obtain the total value of the firm (V).

To get equity value (E), you must then subtract the market value of debt (D):

E=V−DE = V - DE=V−D

Here, the company has a $6m 7% undated bond trading at par, so the market value of debt is $6m. That amount has not been deducted.

The other options are not errors:

The perpetuity discounting using 7.91.102×0.10\frac{7.9}{1.10^2 \times 0.10}1.102×0.107.9​ is correct for a constant cash flow from year 3 onward.

Using WACC (10%) is appropriate for FCFF.

Tax at 20% is already reflected in either the cash flows or the WACC; it is not “missing” as a separate line.

So the specific mistake is failing to deduct the $6m debt value, i.e. option D.