CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Current values (before project):

Equity = 1,100

Debt = 500

Firm value = 1,600

Project cost = 200; NPV = +10.

After the project:

Financed by rights issue (equity only)

Equity = 1,310 → increase of 210

But shareholders have to inject 200 cash themselves.

Net gain in shareholder wealth = 210 − 200 = 10

Financed by bond issue (all debt)

Equity = 1,150 → increase of 50

No new equity cash is put in by shareholders.

Net gain in shareholder wealth = 50

This equals: project NPV (10) + tax shield on extra debt (0.20 × 200 = 40).

Financed by mix of debt & equity at existing D/E

Equity = 1,260 → increase of 160

New equity raised ≈ 137 (since extra debt is 63, total 200).

Net gain = 160 − 137 = 23 (NPV 10 + extra tax shield ≈ 13).

The company’s objective is maximisation of shareholder wealth, so it should choose the financing that gives the highest net increase, which is the bond issue (all debt) with a gain of $50m to equity holders.

This is exactly what Modigliani & Miller with corporate tax predicts: increasing gearing creates value for shareholders via the interest tax shield.

Answer: B. $50 million if financed by debt

Cash flows:

Years 1–3: 100, 100, 100

From year 4: grow at 2% forever. Cost of capital = 12%.

PV of years 1–3:

PV1−3=1001.12+1001.122+1001.123≈240\text{PV}_{1-3} = \frac{100}{1.12} + \frac{100}{1.12^2} + \frac{100}{1.12^3} \approx 240PV1−3​=1.12100​+1.122100​+1.123100​≈240

Terminal value at end of year 3:

Year 4 CF = 100×1.02=102100 \times 1.02 = 102100×1.02=102

TV3=1020.12−0.02=1020.10=1,020\text{TV}_3 = \frac{102}{0.12 - 0.02} = \frac{102}{0.10} = 1{,}020TV3​=0.12−0.02102​=0.10102​=1,020

PV of terminal value:

PV(TV)=1,0201.123≈726\text{PV(TV)} = \frac{1{,}020}{1.12^3} \approx 726PV(TV)=1.1231,020​≈726

Total value ≈ 240+726=966240 + 726 = 966240+726=966.

So the value is $966 million → Option A.

Under traditional (pre–Modigliani & Miller) capital structure theory, there is an assumed inverse relationship between WACC and company value. The idea is:

As a firm moves towards its optimal capital structure, the WACC falls, and the total value of the firm (equity + debt) rises.

Beyond that optimal point, extra gearing increases financial risk, so the required return from both debt and equity goes up, causing WACC to rise and firm value to fall.

So, within this framework, if a company’s WACC increases, that means it has moved away from its optimal capital structure, and the value of the company will decrease.

Therefore, under traditional theory, an increase in WACC → decrease in company value, so the correct answer is B.