CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

 A. The shareholder can choose whether to take the cash or not.

With a repurchase, shareholders can decide to sell (take cash) or keep their shares. A one-off dividend forces all shareholders to receive cash.

 C. It means that the company will be able to pay lower total dividends in the future.

After a buyback there are fewer shares in issue. If the company keeps the same dividend per share, the total dividend outlay falls – good for future cash flow and flexibility.

 E. It will not create an expectation for future increased dividends.

A large one-off dividend may be interpreted as a permanent increase, creating pressure to maintain higher payouts. A buyback is seen as a more one-off, discretionary event, so it avoids that expectation.

 B is wrong: a repurchase reduces, not increases, shares in issue.

 D is not an advantage relative to a dividend – both methods return cash that shareholders can spend as they wish.

Company B (all equity):

Cost of equity = asset return = Ku = 17%

Company A:

Gearing D:E = 1:2 → D/E = 0.5

Pre-tax cost of debt Kd = 7%

Tax rate T = 30%

Levered cost of equity with tax:

Ke=Ku+DE(1−T)(Ku−Kd)K_e = K_u + \frac{D}{E}(1 - T)(K_u - K_d)Ke​=Ku​+ED​(1−T)(Ku​−Kd​) Ke=17%+0.5×0.7×(17%−7%)=17%+0.5×0.7×10%=17%+3.5%=20.5%K_e = 17\% + 0.5 \times 0.7 \times (17\% - 7\%) = 17\% + 0.5 \times 0.7 \times 10\% = 17\% + 3.5\% = 20.5\%Ke​=17%+0.5×0.7×(17%−7%)=17%+0.5×0.7×10%=17%+3.5%=20.5%

✅ Correct: A. 20.5%

Before announcement:

Equity = 4m shares × $4.0 = $16m

Debt = $7m

Gearing = 7 / 16 = 43.75% → already above 40%.

After additional $2m debt and higher share price:

Debt = 7 + 2 = $9m

Equity = 4m × $4.2 = $16.8m

Gearing = 9 / 16.8 ≈ 53.6% → even further above the 40% ceiling.

So the gearing objective is exceeded both before and after, and gearing rises.