CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Target earnings after tax for 20X2:

8.0m×1.05=8.4m8.0 \text{m} \times 1.05 = 8.4 \text{m}8.0m×1.05=8.4m

Interest on the new bond:

1.0m×4%=0.04m1.0 \text{m} \times 4\% = 0.04 \text{m}1.0m×4%=0.04m

Let required operating profit (PBIT) = XXX.

Profit before tax = X−0.04X - 0.04X−0.04.

Tax at 20% → profit after tax:

Earnings=(X−0.04)×0.8\text{Earnings} = (X - 0.04)\times 0.8Earnings=(X−0.04)×0.8

Set equal to the target 8.4m:

(X−0.04)×0.8=8.4⇒X−0.04=8.40.8=10.5⇒X=10.5+0.04=10.54m(X - 0.04)\times 0.8 = 8.4 \Rightarrow X - 0.04 = \frac{8.4}{0.8} = 10.5 \Rightarrow X = 10.5 + 0.04 = 10.54 \text{m}(X−0.04)×0.8=8.4⇒X−0.04=0.88.4​=10.5⇒X=10.5+0.04=10.54m

So minimum operating profit = $10.54 million.

Translation risk arises when the foreign subsidiary’s net assets (in BS) are translated into the parent’s currency (A$). The most effective hedge is to match those net assets with liabilities in the same foreign currency. By financing the acquisition with BS borrowings, AAB creates a BS liability that offsets BBA’s BS net assets, reducing the net exposure to translation movements.

A$: equity in A$ doesn’t hedge BS assets.

Multi-currency bank accounts and forward contracts mainly address transaction risk, not long-term translation of balance sheet net assets.

The company needs to raise $40 million via a rights issue.

Current share price = $10

Rights issue at a 20% discount, so issue price =

10×(1−0.20)=10×0.8=$810 \times (1 - 0.20) = 10 \times 0.8 = \$810×(1−0.20)=10×0.8=$8

Number of new shares needed:

New shares=40m8=5 million shares\text{New shares} = \frac{40\text{m}}{8} = 5\text{ million shares}New shares=840m​=5 million shares

There are currently 20 million shares in issue, so the rights issue ratio is:

New sharesExisting shares=520=14\frac{\text{New shares}}{\text{Existing shares}} = \frac{5}{20} = \frac{1}{4}Existing sharesNew shares​=205​=41​

So, shareholders will receive 1 new share for every 4 existing shares.