CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

 A. The shareholder can choose whether to take the cash or not.

With a repurchase, shareholders can decide to sell (take cash) or keep their shares. A one-off dividend forces all shareholders to receive cash.

 C. It means that the company will be able to pay lower total dividends in the future.

After a buyback there are fewer shares in issue. If the company keeps the same dividend per share, the total dividend outlay falls – good for future cash flow and flexibility.

 E. It will not create an expectation for future increased dividends.

A large one-off dividend may be interpreted as a permanent increase, creating pressure to maintain higher payouts. A buyback is seen as a more one-off, discretionary event, so it avoids that expectation.

 B is wrong: a repurchase reduces, not increases, shares in issue.

 D is not an advantage relative to a dividend – both methods return cash that shareholders can spend as they wish.

The most appropriate swap is to receive fixed and pay floating on $50 million of the new debt.

Answer: D. Receive fixed pay floating interest rate swap for $50 million.

Under traditional (pre–Modigliani & Miller) capital structure theory, there is an assumed inverse relationship between WACC and company value. The idea is:

As a firm moves towards its optimal capital structure, the WACC falls, and the total value of the firm (equity + debt) rises.

Beyond that optimal point, extra gearing increases financial risk, so the required return from both debt and equity goes up, causing WACC to rise and firm value to fall.

So, within this framework, if a company’s WACC increases, that means it has moved away from its optimal capital structure, and the value of the company will decrease.

Therefore, under traditional theory, an increase in WACC → decrease in company value, so the correct answer is B.