ITIL ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

The purpose of the release management practice in ITIL 4 is to make new and changed services and features available for use by ensuring a controlled and efficient release process. According to theITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument, the purpose is defined as:"The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and changed services and features available for use"(Section 2.1). This focuses on delivering value to service consumers by enabling them to use improved or new services quickly and effectively.

Option A focuses on the service operations team performing tests, which is part of the release process but not the primary value perceived by service consumers.

Option B mentions reducing business losses for the operations team, which is an internal benefit, not a direct value for consumers.

Option C aligns directly with the purpose: "the quick use of improved services after new service features have been made available" reflects the consumer-facing value of release management—ensuring they can benefit from new or improved services promptly.

Option D focuses on mitigating the service provider’s risks, which is a provider-centric benefit, not a consumer-focused value statement.

Thus, the correct answer is C, as it directly addresses the value to service consumers by emphasizing the availability and usability of improved services, aligning with the ITIL 4 definition of release management’s purpose.

The release planning and coordination process in ITIL 4 Release Management requires inputs toensure effective planning and execution of releases. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument specifies:"Key inputs to release planning and coordination include details about the users who will be affected, as this helps in scheduling and communicating the release to minimize disruption"(Section 3.2.1).

Option A (Documented findings on the success of a release) is an output of a release evaluation, not an input to planning.

Option B (Updates to the continual improvement register) may inform long-term improvements but isn’t a direct input to planning a specific release.

Option C (Details about the users who will be affected) is a critical input, as understanding the user base helps tailor the release schedule, communication, and impact mitigation strategies.

Option D (Notifications to stakeholders about the release status) is an output of the release process, not an input to planning.

The correct answer is C, as user details are essential for effective release planning and coordination.

Third parties, such as suppliers or vendors, often play a role in the execution of releases, especially when they provide components or services involved in the release. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Performing a release according to an agreed model often involves dependencies on third parties, such as suppliers providing software updates, infrastructure, or support services, which need to be integrated during the release execution"(Section 3.4).

Option A (Release management alignment with other practices) is an internal coordination activity, less likely to directly involve third parties.

Option B (Identifying an applicable model) is a planning activity typically handled internally by the release manager.

Option C (Performing a release according to an agreed model) directly involves executing the release, which often requires third-party components or services, creating a dependency.

Option D (Verifying a release) may involve third-party tools but is less dependent on their active participation compared to execution.

The correct answer is C, as performing the release is the activity most likely to depend on third parties.