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ISTQB CTFL-Foundation Dumps

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Question 1

During test process improvement it is recommended to use standards where possible. Standards originate from various sources and they cover different subjects in relation to testing Pick TWO sources of software standards, useful to software testing from the ones mentioned below. 1 credit

Options:

A.

ISO 9126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:

Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions.

B.

ISA 4126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:

Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions.

C.

BS-7925-2 ‘Software testing. Software component testing is a national standard used internationally. It covers a number of testing techniques that may be useful both on component testing level and on system testing level.

D.

SY-395-01 ‘Standard for East Coast Hospital software’ is a regional standard adapted from a national one. Besides hospital software, this standard ought to be used also by other types of software system in the region.

E.

IEEE 829 ‘standard for software test documentation’ is an international standard to be following mandatory by all testing origination regardless of lifecycle models.

Question 2

Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test planning and control

B.

Test implementation & execution

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D.

Test project closure

Question 3

Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis

B.

Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code

C.

Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder

D.

Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort

Question 4

Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. 2 credits

Options:

A.

All supported credit cards

B.

Language localization

C.

Valid and invalid advances

D.

Usability

E.

Response time

Question 5

Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits

Options:

A.

An approach to regression testing

B.

A list of boundary values for “advance amount”

C.

A description of dependencies between test cases

D.

A logical collection of test cases

Question 6

Given the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests remain to be run? 3 credits

Options:

A.

700

B.

720

C.

784

D.

570

Question 7

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Options:

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

Question 8

Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

a. Test data preparation tools

b. Test harness

c. Review tools

d. Test comparators

e. Configuration management tools

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

c and d

C.

c and e

D.

b and d

Question 9

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

Question 10

What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing

B.

Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing

C.

Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning

D.

Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning

Question 11

What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits

Options:

A.

16

B.

2

C.

1

D.

63

Question 12

Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why? 2 credits

Options:

A.

A person with the ability to complete tasks

B.

A quality assurance officer

C.

A person with in-depth technical skills

D.

A person who brings new ideas to the team

Question 13

In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy. 1 credit

Options:

A.

The entry and exit criteria for each test phase

B.

Test training needs for the project resources

C.

The test design techniques to be used

D.

Test performance indicators

E.

The test schedule

Question 14

Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

Options:

A.

Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing

B.

Targets certain types of faults

C.

Will guide experienced testers to find defects

D.

Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques

E.

More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility

F.

Will make non-systematic testing redundant

G.

Will reduce the need for early reviews

Question 15

You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company. Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? 1 credit

Options:

A.

A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy.

B.

A test strategy identifies the specific product for a project risk and defines the approach for the test project.

C.

A test strategy is derived from the test policy and describes the way risk assessments are performed in projects.

D.

A test strategy is the result of a project risk analysis and defines the approach and resources for testing.

Question 16

A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Level of test execution automation

B.

Test level

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Experience level of testers

Question 17

You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.

B.

Recommendations for taking controlling actions

C.

Status compared against the started exit criteria

D.

Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved

Question 18

Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in other domains! 1 credit

Options:

A.

High level of documentation

B.

Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions

C.

Traceability to requirements

D.

Non-functional testing

E.

Master test planning

F.

Test design techniques

G.

Reviews

Question 19

Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.

B.

Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.

C.

Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.

D.

All document reviews involve the development team.

Question 20

Which of the following would you expect to see in the master test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

A description of how the test cases are cross-referenced to requirements in the test management tool.

B.

A detailed identification of the resources that will carry out structural testing in the first iteration.

C.

The test approach that will be applied at system integration testing.

D.

A list of the names of the testers who will carry out the performance testing for the final iteration.

Question 21

Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits

i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.

ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.

iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.

iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(ii) and (iv)

Question 22

Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.

B.

Testing is isolated from development.

C.

Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.

D.

Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.

Question 23

Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B.

Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.

C.

Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.

D.

Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.

Question 24

Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively? 2 credits

Options:

A.

By providing training in the payroll domain

B.

By providing a workshop on test design techniques

C.

By providing specific training on the systems being tested

D.

By providing training on reviewing requirements

Question 25

Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:

a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test strategy document

b. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource requirements

c. A detailed schedule of testing activities

d. The development deliverables to be tested

e. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when

f. Level of requirements coverage achieved

Which THREE of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the master test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

a

B.

b

C.

c

D.

d

E.

e

F.

f

Question 26

As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit

Options:

A.

The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.

B.

Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.

C.

Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.

D.

Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.

Question 27

Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:

a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test

b. strategy document

c. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource

d. requirements

e. A detailed schedule of testing activities

f. The development deliverables to be tested

g. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when

h. Level of requirements coverage achieved

Which TWO of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the phase test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

a

B.

b

C.

c

D.

d

E.

e

F.

f

Question 28

Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK

B.

Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK

C.

Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

D.

Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

Question 29

In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test planning

B.

Test execution

C.

Test management

D.

Test design

Question 30

Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

Options:

A.

Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations

B.

Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system

C.

Activities to deploy the system in the user environment

D.

Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations

E.

Development activities for unit and integration testing

F.

Reviews on requirements documentation

G.

Defining test environment requirements for system testing

Question 31

Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test environment more complex

B.

Define expectation for tasks and deliverables

C.

Clear channels of communications

D.

Possibly different cultures

E.

Testing of non-functional requirements

F.

Audit trail from requirements to test cases

G.

Applying test automation

Question 32

You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management. Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations? 3 credits

Options:

A.

Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.

B.

Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.

C.

Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.

D.

Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy-to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.

Question 33

Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development? 2 credits

Options:

A.

It will extend the development team’s abilities and enhance future delivery capabilities.

B.

It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes.

C.

Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule.

D.

More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is required.

Question 34

Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits

Options:

A.

No priority or severity assigned

B.

Incident numbering is manual rather than automated

C.

No mentioning of reproduceability

D.

No classification on type of incident

Question 35

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

Options:

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

Question 36

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

Question 37

Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? 3 credits

Options:

A.

The concerns over the user interface may lead to changes to the interface which cannot be implemented by development in time for the second test iteration.

B.

The concerns over the user interface raises the likelihood of a risk in that area and increases the amount of test effort needed for the user interface, thereby limiting the test effort available for other parts of the test management tool.

C.

The delivery of the application without the interface changes may upset the user community.

D.

The method used for test estimation is not accurate enough and hence the money spent on testing exceeded its budget.

Question 38

Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Testing for performance problems

B.

Hiring a contractor after a test analyst leaves the company

C.

Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing

D.

Performing a project retrospective meeting using the test results after each increment

Question 39

Which test management control option is most appropriate to adopt under these circumstances? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Introduce mandatory evening and weekend working to retrieve the 3 week slippage.

B.

Reconsider the exit criteria and review the test plan in the context of the current situation.

C.

Advise the user community regarding the reduced scope of requirements and the additional incremental delivery.

D.

Arrange a meeting with the user community representatives to discuss the user interface.

Question 40

Acceptance test cases are based on what?

Options:

A.

Requirements

B.

Design

C.

Code

D.

Decision table

Question 41

Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?

a. Variables that are never used.

b. Security vulnerabilities.

c. Poor performance.

d. Unreachable code.

e. Business processes not followed.

Options:

A.

b, c and d are true; a and e are false

B.

a is true; b, c, d and e are false

C.

c, d and e are true; a and b are false

D.

a, b and d are true; c and e are false

Question 42

What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

Options:

A.

Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested

B.

Use automation tool for testing

C.

Both a and b

D.

None of the above

Question 43

Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits

Options:

A.

In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.

B.

The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.

C.

The test cases do not cover the key requirements.

D.

The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.

Question 44

The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits

Options:

A.

The bidder’s test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044.

B.

The bidder’s project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.

C.

The bidder’s test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.

D.

The bidder’s project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.

Question 45

Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Integration with other tools

B.

Learning time required to use the new tool

C.

Tool portability

D.

Evaluation of suitable tools

Question 46

Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi? 2 credits

Options:

A.

If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.

B.

If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.

C.

TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.

D.

TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.

Question 47

Model characteristics:

Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi? 1 credit

Options:

A.

5 maturity levels

B.

Focussed on higher level testing

C.

20 key areas

D.

Highly related to CMMI

E.

Continuous model

F.

Staged model

G.

Focussed on component and integration testing

Question 48

A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy

B.

Defined according to the maturity model used

C.

Most visible to stakeholders

D.

Low costs actions first