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Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Question 1

Of the following, who is BEST suited to assist a risk practitioner in developing a relevant set of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Internal auditor

B.

Asset owner

C.

Finance manager

D.

Control owner

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Question 2

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

Question 3

Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?

Options:

A.

Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods

B.

Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives

C.

linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy

D.

Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods

Question 4

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

Options:

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

Question 5

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an independent review of a risk management process?

Options:

A.

Accuracy of risk tolerance levels

B.

Consistency of risk process results

C.

Participation of stakeholders

D.

Maturity of the process

Question 6

The software version of an enterprise's critical business application has reached end-of-life and is no longer supported by the vendor. IT has decided to develop an in-house replacement application. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

The system documentation is not available.

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) has not approved the decision.

C.

The board of directors has not approved the decision.

D.

The business process owner is not an active participant.

Question 7

What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Control environment

C.

IT objectives

D.

Organizational objectives

Question 8

Which of the following BEST contributes to the implementation of an effective risk response action plan?

Options:

A.

An IT tactical plan

B.

Disaster recovery and continuity testing

C.

Assigned roles and responsibilities

D.

A business impact analysis

Question 9

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for:

Options:

A.

data classification and labeling.

B.

data logging and monitoring.

C.

data retention and destruction.

D.

data mining and analytics.

Question 10

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

Question 11

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

Options:

A.

Reducing the need for audit reviews

B.

Facilitating continuous control monitoring

C.

Improving control process efficiency

D.

Complying with functional requirements

Question 12

The patch management process is MOST effectively monitored through which of the following key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Number of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame

C.

Number of patches deployed outside of business hours

D.

Percentage of patched systems tested

Question 13

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

Options:

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information

Question 14

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

Question 15

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use key control indicators (KCIs) to evaluate control operating effectiveness?

Options:

A.

To measure business exposure to risk

B.

To identify control vulnerabilities

C.

To monitor the achievement of set objectives

D.

To raise awareness of operational issues

Question 16

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

Options:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

Question 17

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine software license compliance?

Options:

A.

List non-compliant systems in the risk register.

B.

Conduct periodic compliance reviews.

C.

Review whistleblower reports of noncompliance.

D.

Monitor user software download activity.

Question 18

In response to the threat of ransomware, an organization has implemented cybersecurity awareness activities. The risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to further reduce the impact of ransomware attacks would be to implement:

Options:

A.

two-factor authentication.

B.

continuous data backup controls.

C.

encryption for data at rest.

D.

encryption for data in motion.

Question 19

To reduce costs, an organization is combining the second and third tines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

The risk governance approach of the second and third lines of defense may differ.

B.

The independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised.

C.

Cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments.

D.

The new structure is not aligned to the organization's internal control framework.

Question 20

Employees are repeatedly seen holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges. This behavior BEST represents:

Options:

A.

a threat.

B.

a vulnerability.

C.

an impact

D.

a control.

Question 21

Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for monitoring control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Conduct control self-assessments (CSAs)

B.

Review system performance logs

C.

Compare controls to business metrics

D.

Perform independent periodic control testing

Question 22

Owners of technical controls should be PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring the controls are:

Options:

A.

Mapped to the corresponding business areas.

B.

Aligned with corporate security policies.

C.

Effectively implemented and maintained.

D.

Designed based on standards and frameworks.

Question 23

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

B.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

C.

Implement key control indicators (KCIs).

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

Question 24

Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

A risk roadmap

B.

A balanced scorecard

C.

A heat map

D.

The risk register

Question 25

An organization uses a biometric access control system for authentication and access to its server room. Which control type has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Deterrent

C.

Preventive

D.

Corrective

Question 26

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective way to test a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Conduct interviews with key stakeholders.

B.

Conduct a tabletop exercise.

C.

Conduct a disaster recovery exercise.

D.

Conduct a full functional exercise.

Question 27

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment?

Options:

A.

Risk and control self-assessment (CSA) reports

B.

Information generated by the systems

C.

Control environment narratives

D.

Confirmation from industry peers

Question 28

Which of the following would be the BEST justification to invest in the development of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution?

Options:

A.

Facilitating risk-aware decision making by stakeholders

B.

Demonstrating management commitment to mitigate risk

C.

Closing audit findings on a timely basis

D.

Ensuring compliance to industry standards

Question 29

When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan?

Options:

A.

Project execution phase

B.

Project initiation phase

C.

Project closing phase

D.

Project planning phase

Question 30

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

Options:

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

Question 31

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Risk appetite

Question 32

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Control owner

Question 33

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level

B.

Number of vulnerabilities identified during the period

C.

Number of vulnerabilities re-opened during the period

D.

Percentage of vulnerabilities escalated to senior management

Question 34

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

Question 35

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

Options:

A.

updating the risk register.

B.

validating the risk scenarios.

C.

documenting the risk scenarios.

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

Question 36

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

Options:

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

Question 37

A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?

Options:

A.

A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.

B.

A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.

C.

Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.

D.

Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.

Question 38

An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:

Options:

A.

avoided.

B.

accepted.

C.

mitigated.

D.

transferred.

Question 39

Which of the following is the BEST way to promote adherence to the risk tolerance level set by management?

Options:

A.

Defining expectations in the enterprise risk policy

B.

Increasing organizational resources to mitigate risks

C.

Communicating external audit results

D.

Avoiding risks that could materialize into substantial losses

Question 40

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate business risk management with IT operations?

Options:

A.

Perform periodic IT control self-assessments.

B.

Require a risk assessment with change requests.

C.

Provide security awareness training.

D.

Perform periodic risk assessments.

Question 41

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

Options:

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization's risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

Question 42

Which of the following conditions presents the GREATEST risk to an application?

Options:

A.

Application controls are manual.

B.

Application development is outsourced.

C.

Source code is escrowed.

D.

Developers have access to production environment.

Question 43

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

Options:

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

Question 44

The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact

B.

the magnitude of an impact

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat

Question 45

During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

Options:

A.

Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.

B.

Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.

C.

Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.

D.

Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment

Question 46

Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance

B.

Risk framework and methodology

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Risk communication plan

Question 47

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

Question 48

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

Options:

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 49

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

Options:

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

Question 50

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

Options:

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

Question 51

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk owner when making risk-aware decisions?

Options:

A.

Risk exposure expressed in business terms

B.

Recommendations for risk response options

C.

Resource requirements for risk responses

D.

List of business areas affected by the risk

Question 52

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

Options:

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

Question 53

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

Question 54

Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business

B.

Cost of regulatory compliance

C.

Projected impact of current business on future business

D.

Expected costs for recovering the business

Question 55

Which of the following is MOST important to consider before determining a response to a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

The likelihood and impact of threat events

B.

The cost to implement the risk response

C.

Lack of data to measure threat events

D.

Monetary value of the asset

Question 56

To help ensure the success of a major IT project, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

obtain the appropriate stakeholders' commitment.

B.

align the project with the IT risk framework.

C.

obtain approval from business process owners.

D.

update the risk register on a regular basis.

Question 57

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....

Options:

A.

The organization's structure has not been updated

B.

Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.

C.

Company equipment has not been retained by IT

D.

Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department

Question 58

Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization's cloud computing environment against leading practices?

Options:

A.

The cloud environment's capability maturity model

B.

The cloud environment's risk register

C.

The cloud computing architecture

D.

The organization's strategic plans for cloud computing

Question 59

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

Options:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

Question 60

Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?

Options:

A.

Cable lock

B.

Acceptable use policy

C.

Data encryption

D.

Asset tag with GPS

Question 61

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?

Options:

A.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

B.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

C.

Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.

D.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

Question 62

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

Options:

A.

The cost associated with incident response activitiesThe composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

Question 63

Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?

Options:

A.

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept

B.

The effective management of risk and internal control environments

C.

Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives

D.

The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives

Question 64

A global organization is planning to collect customer behavior data through social media advertising. Which of the following is the MOST important business risk to be considered?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements may differ in each country.

B.

Data sampling may be impacted by various industry restrictions.

C.

Business advertising will need to be tailored by country.

D.

The data analysis may be ineffective in achieving objectives.

Question 65

Determining if organizational risk is tolerable requires:

Options:

A.

mapping residual risk with cost of controls

B.

comparing against regulatory requirements

C.

comparing industry risk appetite with the organizations.

D.

understanding the organization's risk appetite.

Question 66

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

Options:

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

Question 67

Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off?

Options:

A.

Residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated.

B.

Inherent risk is too high, resulting in the cancellation of an initiative.

C.

Risk appetite has changed to align with organizational objectives.

D.

Residual risk remains at the same level over time without further mitigation.

Question 68

A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.

B.

Controls are not operating efficiently.

C.

Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated

D.

Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold

Question 69

A threat intelligence team has identified an indicator of compromise related to an advanced persistent threat (APT) actor. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the most recent vulnerability scanning report.

B.

Determine the business criticality of the asset.

C.

Determine the adequacy of existing security controls.

D.

Review prior security incidents related to the asset.

Question 70

Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk associated with Internet of Things (IoT) technology?

Options:

A.

The inability to monitor via network management solutions

B.

The lack of relevant IoT security frameworks to guide the risk assessment process

C.

The heightened level of IoT threats via the widespread use of smart devices

D.

The lack of updates for vulnerable firmware

Question 71

A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.

B.

Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.

C.

Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.

D.

Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.

Question 72

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

Question 73

A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization'senterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?

Options:

A.

Align applications to business processes.

B.

Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).

C.

Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.

Question 74

An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Develop a compensating control.

B.

Allocate remediation resources.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Identify risk responses

Question 75

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?

Options:

A.

Ongoing training

B.

Timely notification

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Cost minimization

Question 76

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to reduce risk impact?

Options:

A.

Create an IT security policy.

B.

Implement corrective measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Leverage existing technology

Question 77

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?

Options:

A.

Lack of alignment to best practices

B.

Lack of risk assessment

C.

Lack of risk and control procedures

D.

Lack of management approval

Question 78

An organization uses one centralized single sign-on (SSO) control to cover many applications. Which of the following is the BEST course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed?

Options:

A.

Initiate a retest of the full control

B.

Retest the control using the new application as the only sample.

C.

Review the corresponding change control documentation

D.

Re-evaluate the control during (he next assessment

Question 79

Which of the following activities should only be performed by the third line of defense?

Options:

A.

Operating controls for risk mitigation

B.

Testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls

C.

Providing assurance on risk management processes

D.

Recommending risk treatment options

Question 80

An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?

Options:

A.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.

B.

Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.

D.

Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).

Question 81

Which of the following risk impacts should be the PRIMARY consideration for determining recovery priorities in a disaster recovery situation?

Options:

A.

Data security

B.

Recovery costs

C.

Business disruption

D.

Recovery resource availability

Question 82

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

Question 83

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?

Options:

A.

User authorization

B.

User recertification

C.

Change log review

D.

Access log monitoring

Question 84

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

Options:

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

Question 85

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

Options:

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

Question 86

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

Options:

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

Question 87

When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:

Options:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

regulatory guidelines

D.

control efficiency

Question 88

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

Options:

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

Question 89

A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.

B.

The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.

C.

The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.

D.

The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.

Question 90

The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:

Options:

A.

Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.

B.

Lagging indication of major information security incidents.

C.

Early indication of changes to required risk response.

D.

Insight into the performance of a monitored process.

Question 91

Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated

B.

Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register

C.

Communicating the register to key stakeholders

D.

Performing regular reviews and updates to the register

Question 92

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to update following a change in legislation requiring notification to individuals impacted by data breaches?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Policies and standards

D.

Risk appetite and tolerance

Question 93

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (PII)?

Options:

A.

Business strategies and needs

B.

Security features and support

C.

Costs and benefits

D.

Local laws and regulations

Question 94

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

Question 95

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

Options:

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

Question 96

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to continuously monitor a critical security transformation program?

Options:

A.

To validate the quality of defined deliverables for the program

B.

To detect increases in program costs

C.

To ensure program risk events are mitigated in a timely manner

D.

To provide timely reporting to the governance steering committee

Question 97

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

Options:

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

Question 98

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy?

Options:

A.

Evaluating gaps in the on-premise and cloud security profiles

B.

Establishing minimum cloud security requirements

C.

Enforcing compliance with cloud security parameters

D.

Educating IT staff on variances between on premise and cloud security

Question 99

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise's current appetite for risk?

Options:

A.

Comparative analysis of peer companies

B.

Reviews of brokerage firm assessments

C.

Interviews with senior management

D.

Trend analysis using prior annual reports

Question 100

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

B.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment

Question 101

The BEST way to determine the likelihood of a system availability risk scenario is by assessing the:

Options:

A.

availability of fault tolerant software.

B.

strategic plan for business growth.

C.

vulnerability scan results of critical systems.

D.

redundancy of technical infrastructure.

Question 102

Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?

Options:

A.

Defining risk taxonomy

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities

C.

Conducting an impact analysis

D.

Defining risk response options

Question 103

The PRIMARY reason to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register is to ensure:

Options:

A.

risk is treated appropriately

B.

mitigating actions are prioritized

C.

risk entries are regularly updated

D.

risk exposure is minimized.

Question 104

An IT department has provided a shared drive for personnel to store information to which all employees have access. Which of the following parties is accountable for the risk of potential loss of confidential information?

Options:

A.

Risk manager

B.

Data owner

C.

End user

D.

IT department

Question 105

A multinational organization is considering implementing standard background checks to' all new employees A KEY concern regarding this approach

Options:

A.

fail to identity all relevant issues.

B.

be too costly

C.

violate laws in other countries

D.

be too line consuming

Question 106

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

Options:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

Question 107

Concerned about system load capabilities during the month-end close process, management requires monitoring of the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings. What type of measure has been established?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Critical success factor (CSF)

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

Question 108

Which of the following is MOST helpful in preventing risk events from materializing?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing and tracking issues

B.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Reviewing and analyzing security incidents

D.

Maintaining the risk register

Question 109

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

Question 110

Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Existing IT environment

B.

IT strategic plan

C.

Risk register

D.

Organizational strategic plan

Question 111

External penetration tests MUST include:

Options:

A.

use of consultants to ensure completeness.

B.

communications to users of the target systems.

C.

changes to target data to prove the attack was successful.

D.

advance approval from system owners.

Question 112

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the ongoing risk associated with operating system (OS) vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Temporarily mitigate the OS vulnerabilities

B.

Document and implement a patching process

C.

Evaluate permanent fixes such as patches and upgrades

D.

Identify the vulnerabilities and applicable OS patches

Question 113

An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:

Options:

A.

reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

B.

communicate the consequences for violations.

C.

implement industry best practices.

D.

reduce the organization's risk appetite

Question 114

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action if a risk assessment identifies a risk that is extremely unlikely but would have a severe impact should it occur?

Options:

A.

Rate the risk as high priority based on the severe impact.

B.

Obtain management's consent to accept the risk.

C.

Ignore the risk due to the extremely low likelihood.

D.

Address the risk by analyzing treatment options.

Question 115

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

Options:

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

Question 116

Who should be accountable for monitoring the control environment to ensure controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security monitoring operations

C.

Impacted data owner

D.

System owner

Question 117

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

Options:

A.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

B.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

C.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.

Question 118

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

Question 119

Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Batch job failure monitoring

B.

Periodic network scanning

C.

Annual penetration testing

D.

Risk assessments

Question 120

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

Question 121

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 122

Which of the following provides The BEST information when determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical system to be implemented?

Options:

A.

Single loss expectancy (SLE)

B.

Cost of the information system

C.

Availability of additional compensating controls

D.

Potential business impacts are within acceptable levels

Question 123

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Alignment of investment with risk appetite

C.

Elimination of compensating controls

D.

Reduction in personnel costs

Question 124

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a data protection management plan?

Options:

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Identify critical data.

C.

Establish a data inventory.

D.

Conduct a risk analysis.

Question 125

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure?

Options:

A.

It provides a cost-benefit analysis on control options available for implementation.

B.

It provides a view on where controls should be applied to maximize the uptime of servers.

C.

It provides historical information about the impact of individual servers malfunctioning.

D.

It provides a comprehensive view of the impact should the servers simultaneously fail.

Question 126

An organization has built up its cash reserves and has now become financially able to support additional risk while meeting its objectives. What is this change MOST likely to impact?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk capacity

C.

Risk indicators

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 127

An organization’s board of directors is concerned about recent data breaches in the news and wants to assess its exposure to similar scenarios. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the organization's existing data protection controls.

B.

Reassess the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the business.

C.

Evaluate the sensitivity of data that the business needs to handle.

D.

Review the organization’s data retention policy and regulatory requirements.

Question 128

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

Question 129

Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk map

D.

Risk events

Question 130

Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data privacy manager

C.

System administrator

D.

Human resources (HR) manager

Question 131

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan and risk management integration

B.

Risk escalation and process for communication

C.

Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators

D.

Policies, standards, and procedures

Question 132

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

Options:

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

Question 133

An organization has decided to postpone the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios because stakeholders are unavailable. As a result of this decision, the risk associated with these new entries has been;

Options:

A.

mitigated

B.

deferred

C.

accepted.

D.

transferred

Question 134

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement when implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system?

Options:

A.

Identifying users who have access

B.

Selecting an encryption solution

C.

Defining the data retention period

D.

Determining the value of data

Question 135

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?

Options:

A.

An email from the user accepting the account

B.

Notification from human resources that the account is active

C.

User privileges matching the request form

D.

Formal approval of the account by the user's manager

Question 136

What is the GREATEST concern with maintaining decentralized risk registers instead of a consolidated risk register?

Options:

A.

Aggregated risk may exceed the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance.

B.

Duplicate resources may be used to manage risk registers.

C.

Standardization of risk management practices may be difficult to enforce.

D.

Risk analysis may be inconsistent due to non-uniform impact and likelihood scales.

Question 137

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

Options:

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

Question 138

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

Question 139

An organization recently implemented a machine learning-based solution to monitor IT usage and analyze user behavior in an effort to detect internal fraud. Which of the following is MOST likely to be reassessed as a result of this initiative?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk capacity

Question 140

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed

B.

Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding

C.

Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities

D.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed

Question 141

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

Options:

A.

It guides management in determining risk appetite.

B.

It provides management with a risk inventory.

C.

It aligns risk scenarios to business objectives.

D.

It monitors the performance of risk and control owners.

Question 142

When a high number of approved exceptions are observed during a review of a control procedure, an organization should FIRST initiate a review of the:

Options:

A.

Relevant policies.

B.

Threat landscape.

C.

Awareness program.

D.

Risk heat map.

Question 143

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

Options:

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Access control attestation

C.

Periodic job rotation

D.

Whistleblower program

Question 144

An organization has decided to use an external auditor to review the control environment of an outsourced service provider. The BEST control criteria to evaluate the provider would be based on:

Options:

A.

a recognized industry control framework

B.

guidance provided by the external auditor

C.

the service provider's existing controls

D.

The organization's specific control requirements

Question 145

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.

B.

New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.

C.

The risk environment is subject to change.

D.

The information security budget must be justified.

Question 146

A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?

Options:

A.

Review the risk profile

B.

Review pokey change history

C.

interview the control owner

D.

Perform control testing

Question 147

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.

B.

It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.

C.

It validates the organization's risk appetite.

D.

It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.

Question 148

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for protecting data assets m a Business application system?

Options:

A.

Application controls are aligned with data classification lutes

B.

Application users are periodically trained on proper data handling practices

C.

Encrypted communication is established between applications and data servers

D.

Offsite encrypted backups are automatically created by the application

Question 149

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

Options:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

Question 150

A risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

update the risk rating.

B.

reevaluate inherent risk.

C.

develop new risk scenarios.

D.

implement additional controls.

Question 151

An organization practices the principle of least privilege. To ensure access remains appropriate, application owners should be required to review user access rights on a regular basis by obtaining:

Options:

A.

business purpose documentation and software license counts

B.

an access control matrix and approval from the user's manager

C.

documentation indicating the intended users of the application

D.

security logs to determine the cause of invalid login attempts

Question 152

Which of the following outcomes of disaster recovery planning is MOST important to enable the initiation of necessary actions during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Definition of disaster recovery plan (DRP) scope and key stakeholders

B.

Recovery time and maximum acceptable data loss thresholds

C.

A checklist including equipment, location of data backups, and backup sites

D.

A list of business areas and critical functions subject to risk analysis

Question 153

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Vulnerability analysis

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Scenario analysis

C.

Heat map analysis

Question 154

A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:

Options:

A.

ownership of responsibilities.

B.

a business recovery plan.

C.

provision for source code escrow.

D.

the providers financial statements.

Question 155

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

Question 156

Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

Question 157

A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner

recommend be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.

B.

Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.

C.

Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.

D.

Reduce the risk tolerance level.

Question 158

Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Reviewing control objectives

B.

Aligning with industry best practices

C.

Consulting risk owners

D.

Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite

Question 159

Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization's key IT applications in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the results of independent audits

B.

Performing a site visit to the cloud provider's data center

C.

Performing a due diligence review

D.

Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders

Question 160

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk control assessment

B.

Audit reports with risk ratings

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 161

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

Control identification and mitigation

B.

Adoption of a compliance-based approach

C.

Prevention and detection techniques

D.

Scenario analysis and stress testing

Question 162

Which of the following BEST helps to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing risk responses

B.

Evaluating risk based on frequency and probability

C.

Considering risk factors that can be quantified

D.

Managing the risk by using controls

Question 163

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?

Options:

A.

Standards-based policies

B.

Audit readiness

C.

Efficient operations

D.

Regulatory compliance

Question 164

Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?

Options:

A.

Industry trends in Al

B.

Expected algorithm outputs

C.

Data feeds

D.

Alert functionality

Question 165

An organization is implementing Zero Trust architecture to improve its security posture. Which of the following is the MOST important input to develop the architecture?

Options:

A.

Cloud services risk assessments

B.

The organization's threat model

C.

Access control logs

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) architecture

Question 166

Which of the following is MOST important for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk management industry trends

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk capacity

Question 167

An organization's risk register contains a large volume of risk scenarios that senior management considers overwhelming. Which of the following would BEST help to improve the risk register?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the residual risk components

B.

Performing risk prioritization

C.

Validating the risk appetite level

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

Question 168

Which of the following events is MOST likely to trigger the need to conduct a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

An incident resulting in data loss

B.

Changes in executive management

C.

Updates to the information security policy

D.

Introduction of a new product line

Question 169

A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.

B.

suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.

C.

revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.

D.

evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.

Question 170

During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company's risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework adopted by each company

B.

Risk registers of both companies

C.

IT balanced scorecard of each company

D.

Most recent internal audit findings from both companies

Question 171

An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

Question 172

In addition to the risk exposure, which of the following is MOST important for senior management to understand prior to approving the use of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions?

Options:

A.

Potential benefits from use of Al solutions

B.

Monitoring techniques required for AI solutions

C.

Changes to existing infrastructure to support Al solutions

D.

Skills required to support Al solutions

Question 173

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

Options:

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

Question 174

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

Question 175

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Scheduling periodic audits

B.

Assigning a data custodian

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

Question 176

Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:

Options:

A.

it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.

B.

structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.

C.

structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.

D.

technical specifications are defined during this phase.

Question 177

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

Options:

A.

Self-assessments by process owners

B.

Mitigation plan progress reports

C.

Risk owner attestation

D.

Change in the level of residual risk

Question 178

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

Options:

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

Question 179

The risk to an organization's reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:

Options:

A.

financial risk.

B.

data risk.

C.

operational risk.

D.

strategic risk.

Question 180

A large organization needs to report risk at all levels for a new centralized visualization project to reduce cost and improve performance. Which of the following would MOST effectively represent the overall risk of the project to senior management?

Options:

A.

Aggregated key performance indicators (KPls)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Centralized risk register

D.

Risk heat map

Question 181

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step upon learning the impact of an organization's noncompliance with a specific legal regulation?

Options:

A.

Identify risk response options.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Document the penalties for noncompliance.

Question 182

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's patch management process?

Options:

A.

Average time to implement patches after vendor release

B.

Number of patches tested prior to deployment

C.

Increase in the frequency of patches deployed into production

D.

Percent of patches implemented within established timeframe

Question 183

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

Question 184

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct risk assessments at periodic intervals?

Options:

A.

To ensure emerging risk is identified and monitored

B.

To establish the maturity level of risk assessment processes

C.

To promote a risk-aware culture among staff

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

Question 185

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

Question 186

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

Options:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

Question 187

An IT organization is replacing the customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should own the risk associated with customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer

B.

Business process owner

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

IT controls manager

Question 188

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

Options:

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

Question 189

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle?

Options:

A.

To deliver projects on time and on budget

B.

To assess inherent risk

C.

To include project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profit.

D.

To assess risk throughout the project

Question 190

An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?

Options:

A.

Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives

B.

Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.

C.

Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.

D.

Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.

Question 191

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

Options:

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

Question 192

The MOST important reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) is to help management:

Options:

A.

identity early risk transfer strategies.

B.

lessen the impact of realized risk.

C.

analyze the chain of risk events.

D.

identify the root cause of risk events.

Question 193

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the potential organizational impact of emerging privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security architecture maturity.

B.

Map the new requirements to the existing control framework.

C.

Charter a privacy steering committee.

D.

Conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

Question 194

A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

invoke the established incident response plan.

B.

Inform internal audit.

C.

Perform a root cause analysis

D.

Conduct an immediate risk assessment

Question 195

Implementing which of the following controls would BEST reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited?

Options:

A.

Detective control

B.

Deterrent control

C.

Preventive control

D.

Corrective control

Question 196

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

Options:

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

Question 197

A business impact analysis (BIA) has documented the duration of maximum allowable outage for each of an organization's applications. Which of the following MUST be aligned with the maximum allowable outage?

Options:

A.

Mean time to restore (MTTR)

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

C.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Mean time to detect (MTTD)

Question 198

An organization has provided legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations. Which of the following control types has been applied?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Directive

C.

Preventive

D.

Compensating

Question 199

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk associated with reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees?

Options:

A.

Validating employee social media accounts and passwords

B.

Monitoring Internet usage on employee workstations

C.

Disabling social media access from the organization's technology

D.

Implementing training and awareness programs

Question 200

Following the implementation of an Internet of Things (loT) solution, a risk practitioner identifies new risk factors with impact to existing controls. Which of the following is MOST important to include in a report to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Identified vulnerabilities

B.

Business managers' concerns

C.

Changes to residual risk

D.

Risk strategies of peer organizations

Question 201

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder preferences

B.

Contractual requirements

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Management assertions

Question 202

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

Options:

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

Question 203

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

Question 204

After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?

Options:

A.

To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices

B.

The add new controls to mitigate the risk

C.

The recommend changes to the IoT policy

D.

To confirm the impact to the risk profile

Question 205

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?

Options:

A.

Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities

B.

Inaccurate reporting of results

C.

Increased number of vulnerabilities

D.

Network performance degradation

Question 206

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

Question 207

The MAIN purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control:

Options:

A.

operates as intended.

B.

is being monitored.

C.

meets regulatory requirements.

D.

operates efficiently.

Question 208

A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:

Options:

A.

reduces risk to an acceptable level

B.

quantifies risk impact

C.

aligns with business strategy

D.

advances business objectives.

Question 209

Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Robust organizational communication channels

B.

Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy

C.

Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks

D.

Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)

Question 210

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center?

Options:

A.

Percentage of systems included in recovery processes

B.

Number of key systems hosted

C.

Average response time to resolve system incidents

D.

Percentage of system availability

Question 211

Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Administrative controls

C.

Technical controls

D.

Preventive controls

Question 212

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?

Options:

A.

Exposure of log data

B.

Lack of governance

C.

Increased number of firewall rules

D.

Lack of agreed-upon standards

Question 213

Which of the following BEST mitigates ethical risk?

Options:

A.

Ethics committees

B.

Contingency scenarios

C.

Awareness of consequences for violations

D.

Routine changes in senior management

Question 214

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 215

Which type of cloud computing deployment provides the consumer the GREATEST degree of control over the environment?

Options:

A.

Community cloud

B.

Private cloud

C.

Hybrid cloud

D.

Public cloud

Question 216

Which of the following should be the MAIN consideration when validating an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Comparison against regulations

B.

Maturity of the risk culture

C.

Capacity to withstand loss

D.

Cost of risk mitigation options

Question 217

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced

B.

Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C.

Listing alternative causes for risk events

D.

Illustrating changes in risk trends

Question 218

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

Question 219

An organization is considering adopting artificial intelligence (AI). Which of the

following is the risk practitioner's MOST important course of action?

Options:

A.

Develop key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Ensure sufficient pre-implementation testing.

C.

Identify applicable risk scenarios.

D.

Identify the organization's critical data.

Question 220

An insurance company handling sensitive and personal information from its customers receives a large volume of telephone requests and electronic communications daily. Which of the following

is MOST important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department?

Options:

A.

Archiving sensitive information

B.

Understanding the incident management process

C.

Identifying social engineering attacks

D.

Understanding the importance of using a secure password

Question 221

During the risk assessment of an organization that processes credit cards, a number of existing controls have been found to be ineffective and do not meet industry standards. The overall control environment may still be effective if:

Options:

A.

compensating controls are in place.

B.

a control mitigation plan is in place.

C.

risk management is effective.

D.

residual risk is accepted.

Question 222

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of having a single integrated business continuity plan (BCP) rather than each business unit developing its own BCP?

Options:

A.

It provides assurance of timely business process response and effectiveness.

B.

It supports effective use of resources and provides reasonable confidence of recoverability.

C.

It enables effective BCP maintenance and updates to reflect organizational changes.

D.

It decreases the risk of downtime and operational losses in the event of a disruption.

Question 223

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

Question 224

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

Options:

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

Question 225

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.

B.

Implement layered security.

C.

Outsource to a local processor.

D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.

Question 226

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

Options:

A.

Use production data in a non-production environment

B.

Use masked data in a non-production environment

C.

Use test data in a production environment

D.

Use anonymized data in a non-production environment

Question 227

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with outsourcing network management to an external vendor who will have access to sensitive information assets?

Options:

A.

Prepare a skills matrix to illustrate tasks and required expertise.

B.

Require periodic security assessments of the vendor within the contract.

C.

Perform due diligence to enable holistic assessment of the vendor.

D.

Plan a phased approach for the transition of processes to the vendor.

Question 228

An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Redesign the heat map.

B.

Review the risk tolerance.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Update the risk register.

Question 229

A risk practitioner has collaborated with subject matter experts from the IT department to develop a large list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) for all IT operations within theorganization of the following, who should review the completed list and select the appropriate KRIs for implementation?

Options:

A.

IT security managers

B.

IT control owners

C.

IT auditors

D.

IT risk owners

Question 230

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

C.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

D.

inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.

Question 231

An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?

Options:

A.

Secure encryption protocols are utilized.

B.

Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.

C.

The solution architecture is approved by IT.

D.

A risk transfer clause is included in the contact

Question 232

Which of the following BEST enables senior management lo compare the ratings of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Risk heat map

Question 233

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

Options:

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

Question 234

Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Cryptocurrency reserve

C.

Data backups

D.

End user training

Question 235

Which of the following scenarios is MOST important to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

Accepted risk scenarios with detailed plans for monitoring

B.

Risk scenarios that have been shared with vendors and third parties

C.

Accepted risk scenarios with impact exceeding the risk tolerance

D.

Risk scenarios that have been identified, assessed, and responded to by the risk owners

Question 236

A large organization is replacing its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system and has decided not to deploy the payroll module of the new system. Instead, the current payroll system will continue to be

used. Of the following, who should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected?

Options:

A.

The business owner

B.

The ERP administrator

C.

The project steering committee

D.

The IT project manager

Question 237

Warning banners on login screens for laptops provided by an organization to its employees are an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Corrective

B.

Preventive

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

Question 238

Analyzing trends in key control indicators (KCIs) BEST enables a risk practitioner to proactively identify impacts on an organization's:

Options:

A.

risk classification methods

B.

risk-based capital allocation

C.

risk portfolio

D.

risk culture

Question 239

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

Question 240

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for

sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

B.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels

C.

Recommend device management controls

D.

Enable role-based access control.

Question 241

Which of the following situations reflects residual risk?

Options:

A.

Risk that is present before risk acceptance has been finalized

B.

Risk that is removed after a risk acceptance has been finalized

C.

Risk that is present before mitigation controls have been applied

D.

Risk that remains after mitigation controls have been applied

Question 242

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

Question 243

When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?

Options:

A.

An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events

B.

An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations

C.

A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls

D.

A justification of corrective action taken

Question 244

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process?

Options:

A.

Comparing the actual process with the documented process

B.

Reviewing access logs for user activity

C.

Reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees

D.

Reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy

Question 245

An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

Options:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

Question 246

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation regarding disaster recovery management (DRM) for Software as a Service (SaaS) providers?

Options:

A.

Conduct inoremental backups of data in the SaaS environment to a local data center.

B.

Implement segregation of duties between multiple SaaS solution providers.

C.

Codify availability requirements in the SaaS provider's contract.

D.

Conduct performance benchmarking against other SaaS service providers.

Question 247

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

Options:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

Question 248

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

Question 249

Which of the following provides the MOST important information to facilitate a risk response decision?

Options:

A.

Audit findings

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Key risk indicators

D.

Industry best practices

Question 250

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in

to implement additional IT controls?

Options:

A.

List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

B.

Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C.

Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D.

Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

Question 251

Upon learning that the number of failed backup attempts continually exceeds

the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

Options:

A.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency.

B.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance.

C.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions.

D.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal.

Question 252

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST to support the implementation of governance around organizational assets within an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed risk profile.

B.

Hire experienced and knowledgeable resources.

C.

Schedule internal audits across the business.

D.

Conduct risk assessments across the business.

Question 253

Which of the following provides the MOST helpful information in identifying risk in an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk registers

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Risk scenarios

D.

Risk responses

Question 254

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?

Options:

A.

An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk

B.

Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud

C.

Clear accountability for risk management processes

D.

Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations

Question 255

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?

Options:

A.

Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan

B.

Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls

C.

Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level

D.

Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk

Question 256

A key risk indicator (KRI) that incorporates data from external open-source threat intelligence sources has shown changes in risk trend data. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Impact of risk occurrence

B.

Frequency of risk occurrence

C.

Cost of risk response

D.

Legal aspects of risk realization

Question 257

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

Question 258

Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls

B.

Considering risk that can be shared with a third party

C.

Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios

Question 259

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

Question 260

Which of the following is the BEST method to track asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Periodic asset review by management

B.

Asset registration form

C.

Automated asset management software

D.

IT resource budgeting process

Question 261

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

Question 262

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

Question 263

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

Options:

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

Question 264

An organization is implementing internet of Things (loT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Insufficient network isolation

B.

impact on network performance

C.

insecure data transmission protocols

D.

Lack of interoperability between sensors

Question 265

Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?

Options:

A.

Disciplinary action

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

A review of the awareness program

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 266

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Establishing employee awareness training

B.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

C.

Selling target dates to complete actions

D.

Contracting to third parties

Question 267

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

Options:

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

Question 268

Performing a background check on a new employee candidate before hiring is an example of what type of control?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Compensating

C.

Corrective

D.

Preventive

Question 269

An organization has outsourced its customer management database to an external service provider. Of the following, who should be accountable for ensuring customer data privacy?

Options:

A.

The organization's business process owner

B.

The organization's information security manager

C.

The organization's vendor management officer

D.

The vendor's risk manager

Question 270

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Limit access to senior management only.

B.

Encrypt the risk register.

C.

Implement role-based access.

D.

Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.

Question 271

Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the enterprise architecture

B.

Cost of control implementation

C.

Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)

Question 272

Which of the following approaches to bring your own device (BYOD) service delivery provides the BEST protection from data loss?

Options:

A.

Enable data wipe capabilities

B.

Penetration testing and session timeouts

C.

Implement remote monitoring

D.

Enforce strong passwords and data encryption

Question 273

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?

Options:

A.

Data duplication processes

B.

Data archival processes

C.

Data anonymization processes

D.

Data protection processes

Question 274

Which of the following is MOST important to determine as a result of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Process ownership

B.

Risk appetite statement

C.

Risk tolerance levels

D.

Risk response options

Question 275

A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Notify executive management.

B.

Analyze the impact to the organization.

C.

Update the IT risk register.

D.

Design IT risk mitigation plans.

Question 276

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (Pll)?

Options:

A.

Costs and benefits

B.

Local laws and regulations

C.

Security features and support

D.

Business strategies and needs

Question 277

Which types of controls are BEST used to minimize the risk associated with a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Preventive

C.

Deterrent

D.

Directive

Question 278

Which of the following would provide the MOST objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization's security controls?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

Security operations center review

C.

Internal penetration testing

D.

A third-party audit

Question 279

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

Options:

A.

Regional competitors' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

Question 280

Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?

Options:

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Emerging technology trends

C.

The IT strategic plan

D.

The risk register

Question 281

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

Options:

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

Question 282

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of a control owner?

Options:

A.

To make risk-based decisions and own losses

B.

To ensure implemented controls mitigate risk

C.

To approve deviations from controls

D.

To design controls that will eliminate risk

Question 283

The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:

Options:

A.

risk scenarios.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk policy.

D.

risk appetite.

Question 284

Which of the following provides the MOST mitigation value for an organization implementing new Internet of Things (loT) devices?

Options:

A.

Performing a vulnerability assessment on the loT devices

B.

Designing loT architecture with IT security controls from the start

C.

Implementing key risk indicators (KRIs) for loT devices

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

Question 285

To help ensure all applicable risk scenarios are incorporated into the risk register, it is MOST important to review the:

Options:

A.

risk mitigation approach

B.

cost-benefit analysis.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

vulnerability assessment results

Question 286

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations.

B.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards.

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall.

D.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) for its operations.

Question 287

A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?

Options:

A.

Business analyst

B.

Project sponsor

C.

IT project team

D.

IT project management office (PMO)

Question 288

It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are:

Options:

A.

communicated to business management

B.

tested by business owners.

C.

approved by the business owner.

D.

initiated by business users.

Question 289

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (AI) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

Options:

A.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

B.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

C.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

D.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

Question 290

Deviation from a mitigation action plan's completion date should be determined by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Change management as determined by a change control board

B.

Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects

C.

Project governance criteria as determined by the project office

D.

The risk owner as determined by risk management processes

Question 291

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Risk scenario ownership

C.

Risk thresholds

D.

Possible causes of materialized risk

Question 292

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern if user acceptance testing (UAT) is not conducted when implementing a new application?

Options:

A.

The probability of application defects will increase

B.

Data confidentiality could be compromised

C.

Increase in the use of redundant processes

D.

The application could fail to meet defined business requirements

Question 293

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

Options:

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

Question 294

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Interview the risk owner.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis

Question 295

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

Question 296

Which component of a software inventory BEST enables the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Software version

B.

Assigned software manager

C.

Software support contract expiration

D.

Software licensing information

Question 297

Mapping open risk issues to an enterprise risk heat map BEST facilitates:

Options:

A.

risk response.

B.

control monitoring.

C.

risk identification.

D.

risk ownership.

Question 298

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

Options:

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department's roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization's information security risk profile

Question 299

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of developing information security metrics?

Options:

A.

Raising security awareness

B.

Enabling continuous improvement

C.

Identifying security threats

D.

Ensuring regulatory compliance

Question 300

A PRIMARY function of the risk register is to provide supporting information for the development of an organization's risk:

Options:

A.

strategy.

B.

profile.

C.

process.

D.

map.

Question 301

In an organization with a mature risk management program, which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date?

Options:

A.

Risk questionnaire

B.

Risk register

C.

Management assertion

D.

Compliance manual

Question 302

Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Business manager

C.

Risk owner

D.

Control owner

Question 303

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

Options:

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

Question 304

Who is accountable for the process when an IT stakeholder operates a key

control to address a risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT manager

C.

System owner

D.

Data custodian

Question 305

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

Question 306

An organization has committed to a business initiative with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

Options:

A.

Recommend rejection of the initiative.

B.

Change the level of risk appetite.

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk.

D.

Initiate a reassessment of the risk.

Question 307

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

Options:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

Question 308

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

Options:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

Question 309

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live?

Options:

A.

Testing in a non-production environment

B.

Performing a security control review

C.

Reviewing the security audit report

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

Question 310

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

Question 311

Which of the following BEST prevents control gaps in the Zero Trust model when implementing in the environment?

Options:

A.

Relying on multiple solutions for Zero Trust

B.

Utilizing rapid development during implementation

C.

Establishing a robust technical architecture

D.

Starting with a large initial scope

Question 312

The BEST metric to monitor the risk associated with changes deployed to production is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

changes due to emergencies.

B.

changes that cause incidents.

C.

changes not requiring user acceptance testing.

D.

personnel that have rights to make changes in production.

Question 313

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

Options:

A.

Complexity of the IT infrastructure

B.

Value of information assets

C.

Management culture

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

Question 314

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

Question 315

Within the risk management space, which of the following activities could be

delegated to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Risk oversight

B.

Control implementation

C.

Incident response

D.

User access reviews

Question 316

A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?

Options:

A.

Obtain the risk owner's approval.

B.

Record the risk as accepted in the risk register.

C.

Inform senior management.

D.

update the risk response plan.

Question 317

Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the risk of account compromise?

Options:

A.

Enforce password changes.

B.

Enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA).

C.

Enforce role-based authentication.

D.

Enforce password encryption.

Question 318

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

Question 319

A failed IT system upgrade project has resulted in the corruption of an organization's asset inventory database. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates the impact of this incident?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Authentication

C.

Configuration

D.

Backups

Question 320

It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:

Options:

A.

testing requirements

B.

the implementation plan.

C.

System requirements

D.

The security policy

Question 321

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

Question 322

The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:

Options:

A.

risk assessment methodology.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

capabilities

D.

asset value.

Question 323

Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern associated with the

use of artificial intelligence (Al) systems?

Options:

A.

Al systems need to be available continuously.

B.

Al systems can be affected by bias.

C.

Al systems are expensive to maintain.

D.

Al systems can provide false positives.

Question 324

The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:

Options:

A.

the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value

B.

there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control

C.

the mitigation measures create compounding effects

D.

the control eliminates the risk

Question 325

An organization allows programmers to change production systems in emergency situations. Which of the following is the BEST control?

Options:

A.

Implementing an emergency change authorization process

B.

Periodically reviewing operator logs

C.

Limiting the number of super users

D.

Reviewing the programmers' emergency change reports

Question 326

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

Options:

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

Question 327

What would be MOST helpful to ensuring the effective implementation of a new cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

Creating metrics to report the number of security incidents

B.

Hiring subject matter experts for the program

C.

Establishing a budget for additional resources

D.

Assigning clear ownership of the program

Question 328

Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?

Options:

A.

Periodic assessments

B.

Change management

C.

Awareness training

D.

Policy updates

Question 329

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

Options:

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

Question 330

Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.

B.

Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.

C.

Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.

D.

Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.

Question 331

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments?

Options:

A.

To provide input to the organization's risk appetite

B.

To monitor the vendor's control effectiveness

C.

To verify the vendor's ongoing financial viability

D.

To assess the vendor's risk mitigation plans

Question 332

Which of the following will BEST help an organization select a recovery strategy for critical systems?

Options:

A.

Review the business impact analysis.

B.

Create a business continuity plan.

C.

Analyze previous disaster recovery reports.

D.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

Question 333

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit for an organization with a strong risk awareness culture?

Options:

A.

Reducing the involvement by senior management

B.

Using more risk specialists

C.

Reducing the need for risk policies and guidelines

D.

Discussing and managing risk as a team

Question 334

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY focus when key risk indicators (KRIs) begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds?

Options:

A.

Designing compensating controls

B.

Determining if KRIs have been updated recently

C.

Assessing the effectiveness of the incident response plan

D.

Determining what has changed in the environment

Question 335

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

To create a complete repository of risk to the organization

B.

To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization

C.

To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios

D.

To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization

Question 336

A new international data privacy regulation requires personal data to be

disposed after the specified retention period, which is different from the local

regulatory requirement. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's

BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

The application code has not been version controlled.

B.

Knowledge of the applications is limited to few employees.

C.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

D.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

Question 337

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls?

Options:

A.

Configuration updates do not follow formal change control.

B.

Operational staff perform control self-assessments.

C.

Controls are selected without a formal cost-benefit

D.

analysis-Management reviews security policies once every two years.

Question 338

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

Options:

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

Question 339

An organization's financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?

Options:

A.

IT risk manager

B.

IT system owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business owner

Question 340

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?

Options:

A.

Promotion of a risk-aware culture

B.

Compilation of a comprehensive risk register

C.

Alignment of business activities

D.

Facilitation of risk-aware decision making

Question 341

WhichT5f the following is the MOST effective way to promote organization-wide awareness of data security in response to an increase in regulatory penalties for data leakage?

Options:

A.

Enforce sanctions for noncompliance with security procedures.

B.

Conduct organization-w>de phishing simulations.

C.

Require training on the data handling policy.

D.

Require regular testing of the data breach response plan.

Question 342

Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

Options:

A.

Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.

B.

Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

C.

Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.

D.

Obtain vendor references from third parties.

Question 343

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

Question 344

Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plans

B.

Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts

C.

Establishing risk policies and standards

D.

Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results

Question 345

A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:

Options:

A.

map findings to objectives.

B.

provide quantified detailed analysis

C.

recommend risk tolerance thresholds.

D.

quantify key risk indicators (KRls).

Question 346

A new risk practitioner finds that decisions for implementing risk response plans are not being made. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this situation?

Options:

A.

Risk ownership is not being assigned properly.

B.

The organization has a high level of risk appetite.

C.

Risk management procedures are outdated.

D.

The organization's risk awareness program is ineffective.

Question 347

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following deficiencies should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Unclear organizational risk appetite

B.

Lack of senior management participation

C.

Use of highly customized control frameworks

D.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

Question 348

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

Question 349

Which of the following BEST supports an accurate asset inventory system?

Options:

A.

Asset management metrics are aligned to industry benchmarks

B.

Organizational information risk controls are continuously monitored

C.

There are defined processes in place for onboarding assets

D.

The asset management team is involved in the budgetary planning process

Question 350

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time?

Options:

A.

Replace the action owner with a more experienced individual.

B.

Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed.

C.

Change the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance.

D.

Develop additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed.

Question 351

What is senior management's role in the RACI model when tasked with reviewing monthly status reports provided by risk owners?

Options:

A.

Accountable

B.

Informed

C.

Responsible

D.

Consulted

Question 352

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure new IT policies address the enterprise's requirements?

Options:

A.

involve IT leadership in the policy development process

B.

Require business users to sign acknowledgment of the poises

C.

involve business owners in the pokey development process

D.

Provide policy owners with greater enforcement authority

Question 353

An organization has initiated a project to implement an IT risk management program for the first time. The BEST time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when:

Options:

A.

identifying risk scenarios.

B.

determining the risk strategy.

C.

calculating impact and likelihood.

D.

completing the controls catalog.

Question 354

Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk associated with malicious activities performed by database administrators (DBAs)?

Options:

A.

Activity logging and monitoring

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Awareness training and background checks

Question 355

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?

Options:

A.

Standard operating procedures

B.

SWOT analysis

C.

Industry benchmarking

D.

Control gap analysis

Question 356

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

Options:

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

Question 357

An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:

Options:

A.

guidance of the risk practitioner.

B.

competence of the staff involved.

C.

approval of senior management.

D.

maturity of its risk culture.

Question 358

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?

Options:

A.

An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.

B.

The register is updated frequently.

C.

The register is shared with executive management.

D.

Compensating controls are identified.

Question 359

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files?

Options:

A.

Recording changes to configuration files

B.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning

C.

Restricting access to configuration documentation

D.

Monitoring against the configuration standard

Question 360

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

Options:

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

Question 361

A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization's risk:

Options:

A.

management.

B.

tolerance.

C.

culture.

D.

analysis.

Question 362

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

Question 363

A risk practitioner is utilizing a risk heat map during a risk assessment. Risk events that are coded with the same color will have a similar:

Options:

A.

risk score

B.

risk impact

C.

risk response

D.

risk likelihood.

Question 364

A payroll manager discovers that fields in certain payroll reports have been modified without authorization. Which of the following control weaknesses could have contributed MOST to this problem?

Options:

A.

The user requirements were not documented.

B.

Payroll files were not under the control of a librarian.

C.

The programmer had access to the production programs.

D.

The programmer did not involve the user in testing.

Question 365

In an organization where each division manages risk independently, which of the following would BEST enable management of risk at the enterprise level?

Options:

A.

A standardized risk taxonomy

B.

A list of control deficiencies

C.

An enterprise risk ownership policy

D.

An updated risk tolerance metric

Question 366

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization's disaster

recovery plan (DRP) will mitigate the risk of the organization failing to recover

from a major service disruption?

Options:

A.

A defined recovery point objective (RPO)

B.

An experienced and certified disaster recovery team

C.

A comprehensive list of critical applications

D.

A record of quarterly disaster recovery tests

Question 367

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?

Options:

A.

Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software

B.

Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software

C.

Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization

D.

Lack of professional support for open source software

Question 368

A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reassess the risk profile.

B.

Modify the risk taxonomy.

C.

Increase the risk tolerance.

D.

Review the risk culture.

Question 369

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

Options:

A.

The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.

B.

The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.

C.

The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.

D.

The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.

Question 370

When classifying and prioritizing risk responses, the areas to address FIRST are those with:

Options:

A.

low cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

B.

high cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

C.

high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

D.

low cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

Question 371

The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:

Options:

A.

the risk register change log.

B.

evidence of risk acceptance.

C.

control effectiveness test results.

D.

control design documentation.

Question 372

Which of the following is the MOST effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices?

Options:

A.

Scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory.

B.

Prohibit the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software.

C.

Conduct frequent reviews of software licenses.

D.

Perform frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure.

Question 373

Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR) manager

B.

System administrator

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Compliance manager

Question 374

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?

Options:

A.

Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology

B.

Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet

C.

Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

D.

Developing training and awareness campaigns

Question 375

Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.

B.

The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.

C.

The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.

D.

The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.

Question 376

To minimize risk in a software development project, when is the BEST time to conduct a risk analysis?

Options:

A.

During the business requirement definitions phase

B.

Before periodic steering committee meetings

C.

At each stage of the development life cycle

D.

During the business case development

Question 377

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

Question 378

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Verify authorization by senior management.

B.

Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level

C.

Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime

D.

Update the risk response in the risk register.

Question 379

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

Question 380

An engineer has been assigned to conduct data restoration after a server storage failure. However, the procedure was not successful. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Failure to prepare a business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Insufficient data captured in the business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Insufficient definition of the recovery point objective (RPO)

Question 381

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

Options:

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

Question 382

Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?

Options:

A.

Risk monitoring

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk aggregation

D.

Risk assessment

Question 383

Which of the following is a PRIMARY reason for considering existing controls during initial risk assessment?

Options:

A.

To determine the inherent risk level

B.

To determine the acceptable risk level

C.

To determine the current risk level

D.

To determine the desired risk level

Question 384

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

Options:

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 385

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:

Options:

A.

corporate culture alignment

B.

low risk tolerance

C.

high risk tolerance

D.

corporate culture misalignment.

Question 386

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the transition of a sensitive data backup solution from on-premise to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

More complex test restores

B.

Inadequate service level agreement (SLA) with the provider

C.

More complex incident response procedures

D.

Inadequate data encryption

Question 387

Key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST support risk treatment when they:

Options:

A.

Set performance expectations for controls.

B.

Align with key business objectives.

C.

Indicate that the risk is approaching predefined thresholds.

D.

Articulate likelihood and impact in quantitative terms.

Question 388

The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:

Options:

A.

Identify new or emerging risk issues.

B.

Satisfy audit requirements.

C.

Survey and analyze historical risk data.

D.

Understand internal and external threat agents.

Question 389

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing risk within each business unit

B.

Reviewing risk ranking methodology

C.

Promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness

D.

Assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles

Question 390

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?

Options:

A.

Unencrypted data

B.

Lack of redundant circuits

C.

Low bandwidth connections

D.

Data integrity

Question 391

An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality breach

B.

Institutional knowledge loss

C.

Intellectual property loss

D.

Unauthorized access

Question 392

Which of the following is the BEST Key control indicator KCO to monitor the effectiveness of patch management?

Options:

A.

Percentage of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of severs receiving automata patches

C.

Number of unpremeditated vulnerabilities

D.

Number of intrusion attempts

Question 393

Which of the following should be reported periodically to the risk committee?

Options:

A.

System risk and control matrix

B.

Emerging IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes to risk assessment methodology

D.

Audit committee charter

Question 394

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

Question 395

The MAIN purpose of a risk register is to:

Options:

A.

document the risk universe of the organization.

B.

promote an understanding of risk across the organization.

C.

enable well-informed risk management decisions.

D.

identify stakeholders associated with risk scenarios.

Question 396

Which of the following BEST enables the identification of trends in risk levels?

Options:

A.

Correlation between risk levels and key risk indicators (KRIs) is positive.

B.

Measurements for key risk indicators (KRIs) are repeatable

C.

Quantitative measurements are used for key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Qualitative definitions for key risk indicators (KRIs) are used.

Question 397

Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?

Options:

A.

Average bandwidth usage

B.

Peak bandwidth usage

C.

Total bandwidth usage

D.

Bandwidth used during business hours

Question 398

When implementing an IT risk management program, which of the following is the BEST time to evaluate current control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Before defining a framework

B.

During the risk assessment

C.

When evaluating risk response

D.

When updating the risk register

Question 399

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services

B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management

C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business

D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing

Question 400

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

Question 401

Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?

Options:

A.

Number of projects going live without a security review

B.

Number of employees completing project-specific security training

C.

Number of security projects started in core departments

D.

Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers

Question 402

An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:

Options:

A.

senior management has oversight of the process.

B.

process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.

C.

segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.

D.

risk owners have decision-making authority.

Question 403

Once a risk owner has decided to implement a control to mitigate risk, it is MOST important to develop:

Options:

A.

a process for measuring and reporting control performance.

B.

an alternate control design in case of failure of the identified control.

C.

a process for bypassing control procedures in case of exceptions.

D.

procedures to ensure the effectiveness of the control.

Question 404

Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?

Options:

A.

Requiring a printer access code for each user

B.

Using physical controls to access the printer room

C.

Using video surveillance in the printer room

D.

Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured

Question 405

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

Question 406

A business unit has implemented robotic process automation (RPA) for its

repetitive back-office tasks. Which of the following should be the risk

practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

The security team is unaware of the implementation.

B.

The organization may lose institutional knowledge.

C.

The robots may fail to work effectively.

D.

Virtual clients are used for implementation.

Question 407

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

Options:

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

Question 408

An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement

B.

Customer service reviews

C.

Scope of services provided

D.

Right to audit the provider

Question 409

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

Options:

A.

The organization's knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization's culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

Question 410

An organization becomes aware that IT security failed to detect a coordinated

cyber attack on its data center. Which of the following is the BEST course of

action?

Options:

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Identify compensating controls

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds.

Question 411

Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk manager

C.

Control operator

D.

Risk treatment owner

Question 412

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

Question 413

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?

Options:

A.

Incident reports

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

Question 414

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

Options:

A.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

B.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

C.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.

Question 415

Which of The following BEST represents the desired risk posture for an organization?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance.

B.

Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance.

C.

Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance.

D.

Residual risk is lower than risk tolerance.

Question 416

The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:

Options:

A.

to achieve the desired level of maturity.

B.

the materiality of the risk.

C.

the ability to mitigate risk.

D.

the cost of the control.

Question 417

Which of the following is the PRIMARY accountability for a control owner?

Options:

A.

Communicate risk to senior management.

B.

Own the associated risk the control is mitigating.

C.

Ensure the control operates effectively.

D.

Identify and assess control weaknesses.

Question 418

Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Risk management procedures

B.

Senior management interviews

C.

Benchmark analyses

D.

Risk management framework

Question 419

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis

C.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers

D.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 420

Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios

B.

IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team

C.

Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.

D.

IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.

Question 421

Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?

Options:

A.

Risk self-assessment

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk map

Question 422

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

Question 423

Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Activation of control audits

D.

Acceptable use policies

Question 424

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

Question 425

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when a shadow IT application is identified in a business owner's business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Include the application in the business continuity plan (BCP).

B.

Determine the business purpose of the application.

C.

Segregate the application from the network.

D.

Report the finding to management.

Question 426

The percentage of unpatched systems is a:

Options:

A.

threat vector.

B.

critical success factor (CSF).

C.

key performance indicator (KPI).

D.

key risk indicator (KRI).

Question 427

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile?

Options:

A.

Threat landscape

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk register

D.

Risk metrics

Question 428

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

Question 429

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.

B.

Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.

C.

Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.

D.

Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.

Question 430

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?

Options:

A.

The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions

B.

The number of servers with local credentials to install patches

C.

The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements

D.

The number of servers running the software patching service

Question 431

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

Options:

A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

Question 432

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?

Options:

A.

Conducting security awareness training

B.

Updating the information security policy

C.

Implementing mock phishing exercises

D.

Requiring two-factor authentication

Question 433

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

Options:

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

Question 434

Read" rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:

Options:

A.

business process owner.

B.

database administrator.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

systems administrator.

Question 435

A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?

Options:

A.

Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.

B.

Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.

C.

Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.

D.

Analyze and update IT control assessments.

Question 436

Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis

B.

Control analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Threat analysis

Question 437

Which of the following is MOST useful when communicating risk to management?

Options:

A.

Risk policy

B.

Audit report

C.

Risk map

D.

Maturity model

Question 438

Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Enabling risk-aware decisions

B.

Promoting a risk-aware culture

C.

Improving security governance

D.

Reducing residual risk

Question 439

Who is MOST likely to be responsible for the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy?

Options:

A.

Chief financial officer

B.

Information security director

C.

Internal audit director

D.

Chief information officer

Question 440

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge for an IT risk practitioner who wants to report on trends in historical IT risk levels?

Options:

A.

Qualitative measures for potential loss events

B.

Changes in owners for identified IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes in methods used to calculate probability

D.

Frequent use of risk acceptance as a treatment option

Question 441

Which of the following is the MOST reliable validation of a new control?

Options:

A.

Approval of the control by senior management

B.

Complete and accurate documentation of control objectives

C.

Control owner attestation of control effectiveness

D.

Internal audit review of control design

Question 442

A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management's response?

Options:

A.

The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.

B.

The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.

C.

The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite

D.

Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.

Question 443

Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization's strategic planning?

Options:

A.

Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives

B.

Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics

C.

Regular organization-wide risk awareness training

D.

A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan

Question 444

An organization wants to launch a campaign to advertise a new product Using data analytics, the campaign can be targeted to reach potential customers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Data minimization

B.

Accountability

C.

Accuracy

D.

Purpose limitation

Question 445

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

Options:

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

Question 446

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

Question 447

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when reviewing an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk ownership is recorded.

B.

Vulnerabilities have separate entries.

C.

Control ownership is recorded.

D.

Residual risk is less than inherent risk.

Question 448

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.

B.

Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.

C.

Identify the risk appetite of the organization.

D.

Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

Question 449

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

Question 450

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure disaster recovery staff members

are able to complete their assigned tasks effectively during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Performing parallel disaster recovery testing

B.

Documenting the order of system and application restoration

C.

Involving disaster recovery staff members in risk assessments

D.

Conducting regular tabletop exercises and scenario analysis

Question 451

An incentive program is MOST likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of which organizational asset?

Options:

A.

Employees

B.

Data

C.

Reputation

D.

Customer lists

Question 452

The BEST reason to classify IT assets during a risk assessment is to determine the:

Options:

A.

priority in the risk register.

B.

business process owner.

C.

enterprise risk profile.

D.

appropriate level of protection.

Question 453

Which of the following would be MOST beneficial as a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

Current capital allocation reserves

B.

Negative security return on investment (ROI)

C.

Project cost variances

D.

Annualized loss projections

Question 454

Which of the following will provide the BEST measure of compliance with IT policies?

Options:

A.

Evaluate past policy review reports.

B.

Conduct regular independent reviews.

C.

Perform penetration testing.

D.

Test staff on their compliance responsibilities.

Question 455

When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?

Options:

A.

BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.

C.

BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.

D.

Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.

Question 456

An organization has recently updated its disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk if the new plan is not tested?

Options:

A.

External resources may need to be involved.

B.

Data privacy regulations may be violated.

C.

Recovery costs may increase significantly.

D.

Service interruptions may be longer than anticipated.

Question 457

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Technical event

B.

Threat event

C.

Vulnerability event

D.

Loss event

Question 458

The PRIMARY reason for prioritizing risk scenarios is to:

Options:

A.

provide an enterprise-wide view of risk

B.

support risk response tracking

C.

assign risk ownership

D.

facilitate risk response decisions.

Question 459

Which of the following is MOST useful when performing a quantitative risk assessment?

Options:

A.

RACI matrix

B.

Financial models

C.

Management support

D.

Industry benchmarking

Question 460

What is the MOST important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework?

Options:

A.

Risk and control ownership

B.

Senior management participation

C.

Business unit support

D.

Risk nomenclature and taxonomy

Question 461

An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?

Options:

A.

Project Charlie

B.

Project Bravo

C.

Project Alpha

D.

Project Delta

Question 462

Which of the following approaches will BEST help to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training?

Options:

A.

Piloting courses with focus groups

B.

Using reputable third-party training programs

C.

Reviewing content with senior management

D.

Creating modules for targeted audiences

Question 463

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

Question 464

Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Engaging sponsorship by senior management

B.

Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization

C.

Including input from risk and business unit management

D.

Developing in collaboration with internal audit

Question 465

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

Options:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risk and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

Question 466

Which of the following would BEST help secure online financial transactions from improper users?

Options:

A.

Review of log-in attempts

B.

multi-level authorization

C.

Periodic review of audit trails

D.

multi-factor authentication

Question 467

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

Options:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

Question 468

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

Options:

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

Question 469

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

Options:

A.

A management-approved risk dashboard

B.

A current control framework

C.

A regularly updated risk register

D.

Regularly updated risk management procedures

Question 470

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?

Options:

A.

The number of threats to the system

B.

The organization's available budget

C.

The number of vulnerabilities to the system

D.

The level of acceptable risk to the organization

Question 471

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

Options:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

Question 472

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

Options:

A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

Question 473

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines?

Options:

A.

Configuration validation

B.

Control attestation

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Internal audit review

Question 474

Which of the following is BEST measured by key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Historical trends of the organizational risk profile

B.

Cost efficiency of risk treatment plan projects

C.

Comprehensiveness of risk assessment procedures

D.

Effectiveness of organizational defense in depth

Question 475

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's existing controls?

Options:

A.

Senior management has approved the control design.

B.

Inherent risk has been reduced from original levels.

C.

Residual risk remains within acceptable levels.

D.

Costs for control maintenance are reasonable.

Question 476

A vendor’s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

Options:

A.

Business application owner

B.

Business continuity manager

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

IT infrastructure manager

Question 477

The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:

Options:

A.

determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.

B.

identify critical business functions and resources.

C.

define roles and responsibilities for implementation.

D.

identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.

Question 478

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

Question 479

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action to foster an ethical, risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Implement a fraud detection and prevention framework.

B.

Ensure the alignment of the organization's policies and standards to the defined risk appetite.

C.

Establish an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program.

D.

Perform a comprehensive review of all applicable legislative frameworks and requirements.

Question 480

Which of the following methods is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Not providing capability for employees to work remotely

B.

Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure

C.

Enforcing change and configuration management processes

D.

Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents

Question 481

A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Directive

D.

Deterrent

Question 482

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

Question 483

Which of the following should a risk practitioner review FIRST when evaluating risk events associated with the organization's data flow model?

Options:

A.

Results of data classification activities

B.

Recent changes to enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

High-level network diagrams

D.

Notes from interviews with the data owners

Question 484

While reviewing an organization's monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

B.

Document the control deficiency in the risk register.

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Continue monitoring change management metrics.

Question 485

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for a system administrator who suspects a colleague may be intentionally weakening a system's validation controls in order to pass through fraudulent transactions?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls to deter fraud attempts.

B.

Share the concern through a whistleblower communication channel.

C.

Monitor the activity to collect evidence.

D.

Determine whether the system environment has flaws that may motivate fraud attempts.

Question 486

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?

Options:

A.

The criticality of the asset

B.

The monetary value of the asset

C.

The vulnerability profile of the asset

D.

The size of the asset's user base

Question 487

In which of the following system development life cycle (SDLC) phases should controls be incorporated into system specifications?

Options:

A.

Implementation

B.

Development

C.

Design

D.

Feasibility

Question 488

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing an initial set of risk scenarios for an organization?

Options:

A.

Refer to industry standard scenarios.

B.

Use a top-down approach.

C.

Consider relevant business activities.

D.

Use a bottom-up approach.

Question 489

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations

B.

Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit

C.

Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value

D.

Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance

Question 490

A recent vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application revealed several weaknesses. Which of the following should be done NEXT to determine the risk exposure?

Options:

A.

Code review

B.

Penetration test

C.

Gap assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 491

Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?

Options:

A.

Solutions for eradicating emerging threats

B.

Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats

C.

Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)

D.

Source and identity of attackers

Question 492

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

Options:

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

Exam Detail
Vendor: Isaca
Certification: Isaca Certification
Exam Code: CRISC
Last Update: Jun 15, 2025
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