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Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Developing contingency plans for key processes

B.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register

D.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question 2

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

Question 3

Which of the following would be MOST useful when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan?

Options:

A.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Resource expenditure against budget

D.

An up-to-date risk register

Question 4

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

Question 5

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

Question 6

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

Options:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

Question 7

Which of the following would be- MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization's current risk profile?

Options:

A.

Hire consultants specializing m the new technology.

B.

Review existing risk mitigation controls.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a risk assessment.

Question 8

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

Question 9

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?

Options:

A.

Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance

B.

Prioritization of risk action plans across departments

C.

Early detection of emerging threats

D.

Accurate measurement of loss impact

Question 10

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

Options:

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

Question 11

Which of the following will BEST quantify the risk associated with malicious users in an organization?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Threat risk assessment

D.

Vulnerability assessment

Question 12

Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk manager's expertise

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Board of directors' expertise

D.

The organization's culture

Question 13

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

Placement on the risk map

C.

Degree of variances in the risk

D.

Cost of risk mitigation

Question 14

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?

Options:

A.

User provisioning

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Security log monitoring

D.

Entitlement reviews

Question 15

Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?

Options:

A.

Perform an m-depth code review with an expert

B.

Validate functionality by running in a test environment

C.

Implement a service level agreement.

D.

Utilize the change management process.

Question 16

The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:

Options:

A.

plan awareness programs for business managers.

B.

evaluate maturity of the risk management process.

C.

assist in the development of a risk profile.

D.

maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.

Question 17

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

Question 18

Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

Cost of offsite backup premises

B.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

C.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan

D.

Response time of the emergency action plan

Question 19

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

Question 20

Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Directives from legal and regulatory authorities

B.

Audit reports from internal information systems audits

C.

Automated logs collected from different systems

D.

Trend analysis of external risk factors

Question 21

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

Question 22

A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:

Options:

A.

map findings to objectives.

B.

provide quantified detailed analysis

C.

recommend risk tolerance thresholds.

D.

quantify key risk indicators (KRls).

Question 23

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of promoting a risk-aware culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Better understanding of the risk appetite

B.

Improving audit results

C.

Enabling risk-based decision making

D.

Increasing process control efficiencies

Question 24

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

Options:

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

Question 25

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

Question 26

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

Question 27

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

Question 28

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

Options:

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

Question 29

Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Delayed removal of employee access

B.

Authorized administrative access to HR files

C.

Corruption of files due to malware

D.

Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack

Question 30

Which of the following roles would provide the MOST important input when identifying IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Information security managers

B.

Internal auditors

C.

Business process owners

D.

Operational risk managers

Question 31

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

Options:

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

Question 32

Which of the following would be a risk practitioners’ BEST recommendation for preventing cyber intrusion?

Options:

A.

Establish a cyber response plan

B.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools.

C.

Implement network segregation.

D.

Strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts.

Question 33

Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?

Options:

A.

Low software quality

B.

Lack of access controls

C.

Data breaches

D.

Data bias

Question 34

The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Perform a root cause analysis

B.

Perform a code review

C.

Implement version control software.

D.

Implement training on coding best practices

Question 35

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register?

Options:

A.

Aligning risk ownership and control ownership

B.

Developing risk escalation and reporting procedures

C.

Maintaining up-to-date risk treatment plans

D.

Using a consistent method for risk assessment

Question 36

Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability and threat analysis

B.

Control remediation planning

C.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

Question 37

After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

Question 38

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security management function

C.

IT management

D.

Enterprise risk function

Question 39

A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Risk appetite

Question 40

Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?

Options:

A.

The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.

B.

The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

The risk response is accounted for in the budget.

D.

The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.

Question 41

Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

Transaction logging

D.

Benchmarking against peers

Question 42

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

Options:

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

Question 43

What is the BEST approach for determining the inherent risk of a scenario when the actual likelihood of the risk is unknown?

Options:

A.

Use the severity rating to calculate risk.

B.

Classify the risk scenario as low-probability.

C.

Use the highest likelihood identified by risk management.

D.

Rely on range-based estimates provided by subject-matter experts.

Question 44

After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The business process owner

C.

The risk owner

D.

The control owner

Question 45

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 46

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

B.

Residual risk is increased.

C.

Inherent risk is increased.

D.

Risk appetite is decreased

Question 47

Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the implementation of the risk response

B.

Creating a separate risk register for key business units

C.

Performing real-time monitoring of threats

D.

Performing regular risk control self-assessments

Question 48

Which of the following would be MOST important for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process?

Options:

A.

Closed management action plans from the previous audit

B.

Annual risk assessment results

C.

An updated vulnerability management report

D.

A list of identified generic risk scenarios

Question 49

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

Question 50

During the risk assessment of an organization that processes credit cards, a number of existing controls have been found to be ineffective and do not meet industry standards. The overall control environment may still be effective if:

Options:

A.

compensating controls are in place.

B.

a control mitigation plan is in place.

C.

risk management is effective.

D.

residual risk is accepted.

Question 51

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

Question 52

An organization wants to assess the maturity of its internal control environment. The FIRST step should be to:

Options:

A.

validate control process execution.

B.

determine if controls are effective.

C.

identify key process owners.

D.

conduct a baseline assessment.

Question 53

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.

B.

New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.

C.

The risk environment is subject to change.

D.

The information security budget must be justified.

Question 54

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

Question 55

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to reduce risk impact?

Options:

A.

Create an IT security policy.

B.

Implement corrective measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Leverage existing technology

Question 56

Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?

Options:

A.

Involvement of internal audit

B.

Involvement of process owner

C.

Quantitative impact of the risk

D.

Identification of key risk indicators

Question 57

Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

Question 58

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

Options:

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

Question 59

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

Options:

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

Question 60

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

Options:

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

Question 61

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

Question 62

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

Options:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

Question 63

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

Question 64

An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?

Options:

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

C.

Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.

D.

Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.

Question 65

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for prioritizing risk treatment plans when faced with budget limitations?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk and likelihood

B.

Management action plans associated with audit findings

C.

Residual risk relative to appetite and tolerance

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI) trends

Question 66

A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.

B.

identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.

C.

modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.

D.

collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.

Question 67

IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:

Options:

A.

for compliance with laws and regulations

B.

as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.

C.

as input for decision-making

D.

to measure organizational success.

Question 68

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure is MOST likely an example of:

Options:

A.

low risk tolerance.

B.

corporate culture misalignment.

C.

corporate culture alignment.

D.

high risk tolerance

Question 69

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

Question 70

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

Question 71

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

Question 72

An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:

Options:

A.

minimize senior management's risk tolerance.

B.

manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.

C.

reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

are cost-effective to implement

Question 73

A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i< the MOST important topic to cover in this training?

Options:

A.

Applying risk appetite

B.

Applying risk factors

C.

Referencing risk event data

D.

Understanding risk culture

Question 74

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

Options:

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

Question 75

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

Options:

A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

Question 76

A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?

Options:

A.

An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks

B.

An increase in attempted website phishing attacks

C.

A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities

Question 77

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

Question 78

Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities

B.

Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience

C.

Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite

D.

Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation

Question 79

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?

Options:

A.

Benchmark of industry standards

B.

Internal and external risk reports

C.

Recommendations from IT risk experts

D.

Outcome of control self-assessments

Question 80

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

Question 81

Which of the following controls will BEST detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator?

Options:

A.

Reviewing database access rights

B.

Reviewing database activity logs

C.

Comparing data to input records

D.

Reviewing changes to edit checks

Question 82

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

Options:

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

Question 83

An application owner has specified the acceptable downtime in the event of an incident to be much lower than the actual time required for the response team to recover the application. Which of the following should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Invoke the disaster recovery plan during an incident.

B.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available

C.

Implement redundant infrastructure for the application.

D.

Reduce the recovery time by strengthening the response team.

Question 84

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

Question 85

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

Options:

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

Question 86

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

Question 87

The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

Options:

A.

Logs and system events

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

C.

Vulnerability assessment reports

D.

Penetration test reports

Question 88

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

Question 89

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

Question 90

An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Develop a compensating control.

B.

Allocate remediation resources.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Identify risk responses

Question 91

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

Options:

A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

Question 92

A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management's response?

Options:

A.

The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.

B.

The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.

C.

The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite

D.

Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.

Question 93

Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?

Options:

A.

Risk self-assessment

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk map

Question 94

A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

The network security policy

B.

Potential business impact

C.

The WiFi access point configuration

D.

Planned remediation actions

Question 95

When reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) of an online sales order system, a risk practitioner notices that the recovery time objective (RTO) has a shorter lime than what is defined in the disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Adopt the RTO defined in the BCR

B.

Update the risk register to reflect the discrepancy.

C.

Adopt the RTO defined in the DRP.

D.

Communicate the discrepancy to the DR manager for follow-up.

Question 96

An organization has made a decision to purchase a new IT system. During when phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) will identified risk MOST likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Implementation

C.

Initiation

D.

Operation and maintenance

Question 97

An organization has recently hired a large number of part-time employees. During the annual audit, it was discovered that many user IDs and passwords were documented in procedure manuals for use by the part-time employees. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Policy violation

Question 98

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Technical event

B.

Threat event

C.

Vulnerability event

D.

Loss event

Question 99

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

Options:

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

Question 100

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?

Options:

A.

Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities

B.

Inaccurate reporting of results

C.

Increased number of vulnerabilities

D.

Network performance degradation

Question 101

An organization has decided to postpone the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios because stakeholders are unavailable. As a result of this decision, the risk associated with these new entries has been;

Options:

A.

mitigated

B.

deferred

C.

accepted.

D.

transferred

Question 102

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

Options:

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

Question 103

An organization wants to grant remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to management?

Options:

A.

Transborder data transfer restrictions

B.

Differences in regional standards

C.

Lack of monitoring over vendor activities

D.

Lack of after-hours incident management support

Question 104

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Implementing technical control over the assets

C.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

D.

Scheduling periodic audits

Question 105

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

B.

Update the risk register with the results.

C.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

D.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

Question 106

An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish

Options:

A.

risk scenarios

B.

risk maps

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk ownership.

Question 107

Recovery the objectives (RTOs) should be based on

Options:

A.

minimum tolerable downtime

B.

minimum tolerable loss of data.

C.

maximum tolerable downtime.

D.

maximum tolerable loss of data

Question 108

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Management approval

B.

Annual review

C.

Relevance

D.

Automation

Question 109

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

Question 110

What should be the PRIMARY consideration related to data privacy protection when there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information?

Options:

A.

Do not collect or retain data that is not needed.

B.

Redact data where possible.

C.

Limit access to the personal data.

D.

Ensure all data is encrypted at rest and during transit.

Question 111

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

Question 112

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

Question 113

Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of risk responses?

Options:

A.

Clear understanding of the risk

B.

Comparable industry risk trends

C.

Appropriate resources

D.

Detailed standards and procedures

Question 114

Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?

Options:

A.

Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders

B.

Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training

C.

Providing regular communication to risk managers

D.

Appointing the risk manager from the business units

Question 115

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Risk scenario ownership

C.

Risk thresholds

D.

Possible causes of materialized risk

Question 116

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....

Options:

A.

The organization's structure has not been updated

B.

Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.

C.

Company equipment has not been retained by IT

D.

Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department

Question 117

Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Existing IT environment

B.

IT strategic plan

C.

Risk register

D.

Organizational strategic plan

Question 118

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

Options:

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

Question 119

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Peer benchmarks

B.

Internal audit reports

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Threat analysis results

Question 120

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk control assessment

B.

Audit reports with risk ratings

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 121

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?

Options:

A.

The impact of the risk

B.

The replacement cost of the business asset

C.

The cost of risk mitigation controls

D.

The classification of the business asset

Question 122

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines?

Options:

A.

Configuration validation

B.

Control attestation

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Internal audit review

Question 123

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis

B.

Conduct system testing

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Update security policies

Question 124

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRls) should be revised?

Options:

A.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

B.

An Increase In the number of risk threshold exceptions

C.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

D.

A decrease In the number of key performance indicators (KPls)

Question 125

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

Question 126

In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is MOST important for the emergency response team members to understand:

Options:

A.

system architecture in target areas.

B.

IT management policies and procedures.

C.

business objectives of the organization.

D.

defined roles and responsibilities.

Question 127

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, which of the following should be done FIRST to ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

Define metrics for restoring availability.

B.

Identify conditions that may cause disruptions.

C.

Review incident response procedures.

D.

Evaluate the probability of risk events.

Question 128

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

Question 129

Which of the following is MOST important for mitigating ethical risk when establishing accountability for control ownership?

Options:

A.

Ensuring processes are documented to enable effective control execution

B.

Ensuring regular risk messaging is Included in business communications from leadership

C.

Ensuring schedules and deadlines for control-related deliverables are strictly monitored

D.

Ensuring performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite

Question 130

A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Define information retention requirements and policies

B.

Provide information security awareness training

C.

Establish security management processes and procedures

D.

Establish an inventory of information assets

Question 131

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

Question 132

When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:

Options:

A.

Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.

B.

Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.

C.

Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.

D.

Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios

Question 133

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

Question 134

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Fiscal management practices

B.

Business maturity

C.

Budget for implementing security

D.

Management culture

Question 135

An organization is implementing robotic process automation (RPA) to streamline business processes. Given that implementation of this technology is expected to impact existing controls, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reassess whether mitigating controls address the known risk in the processes.

B.

Update processes to address the new technology.

C.

Update the data governance policy to address the new technology.

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the impacted processes.

Question 136

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?

Options:

A.

Enroll the employee in additional security training.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Conduct an internal audit.

D.

Instruct the vendor to delete the data.

Question 137

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

Options:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

Question 138

An organization has an approved bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the devices?

Options:

A.

Periodically review application on BYOD devices

B.

Include BYOD in organizational awareness programs

C.

Implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls.

D.

Enable a remote wee capability for BYOD devices

Question 139

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:

Options:

A.

by the security administration team.

B.

successfully within the expected time frame.

C.

successfully during the first attempt.

D.

without causing an unplanned system outage.

Question 140

During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company's risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework adopted by each company

B.

Risk registers of both companies

C.

IT balanced scorecard of each company

D.

Most recent internal audit findings from both companies

Question 141

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 142

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

Question 143

Which of the following is the MOST effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices?

Options:

A.

Scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory.

B.

Prohibit the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software.

C.

Conduct frequent reviews of software licenses.

D.

Perform frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure.

Question 144

During a risk assessment, a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information, citing confidentiality concerns. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Escalate the non-cooperation to management

B.

Exclude applicable controls from the assessment.

C.

Review the supplier's contractual obligations.

D.

Request risk acceptance from the business process owner.

Question 145

A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain

access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?

Options:

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

Question 146

Which of the following would be the BEST way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program?

Options:

A.

Conduct penetration testing.

B.

Interview IT operations personnel.

C.

Conduct vulnerability scans.

D.

Review change control board documentation.

Question 147

A highly regulated enterprise is developing a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios What should be done FIRST by IT governance to support this effort?

Options:

A.

Request a regulatory risk reporting methodology

B.

Require critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks.

C.

Establish IT-specific compliance objectives

D.

Communicate IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers

Question 148

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

Question 149

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Segregation of duties

C.

Communication plan

D.

Critical asset inventory

Question 150

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of executive management's support for IT risk mitigation efforts?

Options:

A.

The number of stakeholders involved in IT risk identification workshops

B.

The percentage of corporate budget allocated to IT risk activities

C.

The percentage of incidents presented to the board

D.

The number of executives attending IT security awareness training

Question 151

Which of the following management action will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

Options:

A.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

B.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

C.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

D.

Updating remote desktop software

Question 152

A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?

Options:

A.

Review the risk profile

B.

Review pokey change history

C.

interview the control owner

D.

Perform control testing

Question 153

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

Question 154

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

Options:

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

Question 155

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gam insight into its overall risk profile''

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Threat landscape

D.

Risk metrics

Question 156

An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:

Options:

A.

controls perform as intended.

B.

controls operate efficiently.

C.

controls are implemented consistent

D.

control designs are reviewed periodically

Question 157

Which of The following BEST represents the desired risk posture for an organization?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance.

B.

Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance.

C.

Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance.

D.

Residual risk is lower than risk tolerance.

Question 158

If preventive controls cannot be Implemented due to technology limitations, which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce risk7

Options:

A.

Evaluate alternative controls.

B.

Redefine the business process to reduce the risk.

C.

Develop a plan to upgrade technology.

D.

Define a process for monitoring risk.

Question 159

Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plans

B.

Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts

C.

Establishing risk policies and standards

D.

Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results

Question 160

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization's risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

Question 161

An organization's chief information officer (CIO) has proposed investing in a new. untested technology to take advantage of being first to market Senior management has concerns about the success of the project and has set a limit for expenditures before final approval. This conditional approval indicates the organization's risk:

Options:

A.

capacity.

B.

appetite.

C.

management capability.

D.

treatment strategy.

Question 162

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

Options:

A.

The cost associated with incident response activitiesThe composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

Question 163

Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?

Options:

A.

Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements

B.

Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements

C.

Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.

D.

Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.

Question 164

A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?

Options:

A.

Change logs

B.

Change management meeting minutes

C.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 165

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B.

Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

C.

Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

Question 166

After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?

Options:

A.

To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices

B.

The add new controls to mitigate the risk

C.

The recommend changes to the IoT policy

D.

To confirm the impact to the risk profile

Question 167

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

Question 168

An organization has experienced several incidents of extended network outages that have exceeded tolerance. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST step to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional controls to address the risk.

B.

Update the risk tolerance level to acceptable thresholds.

C.

Update the incident-related risk trend in the risk register.

D.

Recommend a root cause analysis of the incidents.

Question 169

Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Regular testing of risk controls

B.

Communication of audit findings

C.

Procedures for security monitoring

D.

Open communication of risk reporting

Question 170

Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Compliance manager

Question 171

Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

define recovery time objectives (RTOs).

B.

define the information classification policy

C.

conduct a sensitivity analyse

D.

Identify information custodians

Question 172

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution

B.

Assigning a data owner

C.

Scheduling periodic audits

D.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

Question 173

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?

Options:

A.

Perform a business case analysis

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)

D.

Build a provision for risk

Question 174

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

Question 175

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

Adherence to governing policies

C.

Regular stakeholder briefings

D.

Independent audit results

Question 176

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

Question 177

Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance

B.

Risk framework and methodology

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Risk communication plan

Question 178

When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan?

Options:

A.

Project execution phase

B.

Project initiation phase

C.

Project closing phase

D.

Project planning phase

Question 179

What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.

B.

It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.

C.

It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.

D.

It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.

Question 180

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year's risk assessment results

Question 181

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

Options:

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

Question 182

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

Question 183

An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

risk mitigation.

B.

risk evaluation.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk tolerance.

Question 184

Who should be responsible (of evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Risk practitioner

Question 185

An information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control Who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The risk owner

C.

The control owner

D.

The audit manager

Question 186

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

Options:

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

Question 187

Senior management is deciding whether to share confidential data with the organization's business partners. The BEST course of action for a risk practitioner would be to submit a report to senior management containing the:

Options:

A.

possible risk and suggested mitigation plans.

B.

design of controls to encrypt the data to be shared.

C.

project plan for classification of the data.

D.

summary of data protection and privacy legislation.

Question 188

Of the following, who is BEST suited to assist a risk practitioner in developing a relevant set of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Internal auditor

B.

Asset owner

C.

Finance manager

D.

Control owner

Question 189

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

Options:

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

Question 190

The BEST metric to monitor the risk associated with changes deployed to production is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

changes due to emergencies.

B.

changes that cause incidents.

C.

changes not requiring user acceptance testing.

D.

personnel that have rights to make changes in production.

Question 191

An employee lost a personal mobile device that may contain sensitive corporate information. What should be the risk practitioner's recommendation?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk analysis.

B.

Initiate a remote data wipe.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan

D.

Disable the user account.

Question 192

Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization's risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:

Options:

A.

is in charge of information security.

B.

is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

can implement remediation action plans.

D.

is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.

Question 193

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

Options:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

Question 194

Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Threat type

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

Question 195

An IT control gap has been identified in a key process. Who would be the MOST appropriate owner of the risk associated with this gap?

Options:

A.

Key control owner

B.

Operational risk manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

Question 196

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

Question 197

The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:

Options:

A.

develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy

B.

develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios

C.

identify root causes for relevant events

D.

perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis

Question 198

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring?

Options:

A.

Monitoring is only conducted between official hours of business

B.

Employees are informed of how they are bong monitored

C.

Reporting on nonproductive employees is sent to management on a scheduled basis

D.

Multiple data monitoring sources are integrated into security incident response procedures

Question 199

An organization is implementing encryption for data at rest to reduce the risk associated with unauthorized access. Which of the following MUST be considered to assess the residual risk?

Options:

A.

Data retention requirements

B.

Data destruction requirements

C.

Cloud storage architecture

D.

Key management

Question 200

A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment. The BEST way to engage stakeholder attention is to:

Options:

A.

include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks,

B.

include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs,

C.

include a roadmap to achieve operational excellence,

D.

publish the report on-demand for stakeholders.

Question 201

The PRIMARY purpose of using a framework for risk analysis is to:

Options:

A.

improve accountability

B.

improve consistency

C.

help define risk tolerance

D.

help develop risk scenarios.

Question 202

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

Options:

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

Question 203

Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to change the likelihood rating in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Control cost

C.

Control effectiveness

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 204

Which of the following will BEST help in communicating strategic risk priorities?

Options:

A.

Heat map

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Balanced Scorecard

D.

Risk register

Question 205

Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of unpatched IT assets

B.

Percentage of IT assets without ownership

C.

The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year

D.

The number of IT assets procured during the previous month

Question 206

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan and risk management integration

B.

Risk escalation and process for communication

C.

Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators

D.

Policies, standards, and procedures

Question 207

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

Question 208

An organization discovers significant vulnerabilities in a recently purchased commercial off-the-shelf software product which will not be corrected until the next release. Which of the following is the risk manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the risk of implementing versus postponing with stakeholders.

B.

Run vulnerability testing tools to independently verify the vulnerabilities.

C.

Review software license to determine the vendor's responsibility regarding vulnerabilities.

D.

Require the vendor to correct significant vulnerabilities prior to installation.

Question 209

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

Options:

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

Question 210

A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.

B.

Build a business case to remediate the fix.

C.

Research the types of attacks the threat can present.

D.

Determine the impact of the missing threat.

Question 211

An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?

Options:

A.

Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives

B.

Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.

C.

Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.

D.

Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.

Question 212

Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's operations during a major it transformation?

Options:

A.

Lack of robust awareness programs

B.

infrequent risk assessments of key controls

C.

Rapid changes in IT procedures

D.

Unavailability of critical IT systems

Question 213

Which of the following is MOST important to compare against the corporate risk profile?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Regulatory compliance

Question 214

A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization's risk:

Options:

A.

management.

B.

tolerance.

C.

culture.

D.

analysis.

Question 215

An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Capability maturity level

C.

Internal audit plan

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

Question 216

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?

Options:

A.

Lack of alignment to best practices

B.

Lack of risk assessment

C.

Lack of risk and control procedures

D.

Lack of management approval

Question 217

Which of the following controls BEST enables an organization to ensure a complete and accurate IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Prohibiting the use of personal devices for business

B.

Performing network scanning for unknown devices

C.

Requesting an asset list from business owners

D.

Documenting asset configuration baselines

Question 218

When evaluating enterprise IT risk management it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

create new control processes to reduce identified IT risk scenarios

B.

confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance

C.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management

D.

review alignment with the organization's investment plan

Question 219

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of business users completing risk training

B.

Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed

C.

Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined

D.

Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise's response

Question 220

Which of the following represents a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

An identity thief seeking to acquire personal financial data from an organization

B.

Media recognition of an organization's market leadership in its industry

C.

A standard procedure for applying software patches two weeks after release

D.

An employee recently fired for insubordination

Question 221

Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?

Options:

A.

Customized regional training on local laws and regulations

B.

Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions

C.

Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture

D.

Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers

Question 222

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

Question 223

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of developing information security metrics?

Options:

A.

Raising security awareness

B.

Enabling continuous improvement

C.

Identifying security threats

D.

Ensuring regulatory compliance

Question 224

Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Number of risk register entries

B.

Number of controls

C.

Level of financial support

D.

Amount of residual risk

Question 225

Employees are repeatedly seen holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges. This behavior BEST represents:

Options:

A.

a threat.

B.

a vulnerability.

C.

an impact

D.

a control.

Question 226

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

Control identification and mitigation

B.

Adoption of a compliance-based approach

C.

Prevention and detection techniques

D.

Scenario analysis and stress testing

Question 227

The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:

Options:

A.

assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.

B.

confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.

C.

verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.

D.

ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.

Question 228

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

Options:

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

Question 229

Which of the following is an IT business owner's BEST course of action following an unexpected increase in emergency changes?

Options:

A.

Evaluating the impact to control objectives

B.

Conducting a root cause analysis

C.

Validating the adequacy of current processes

D.

Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure

Question 230

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology?

Options:

A.

Risk response plans

B.

Risk and control ownership

C.

Key controls

D.

Impact and likelihood ratings

Question 231

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a ewe Business process. which of the following should be done FRST10 ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

a identity conditions that may cause disruptions

B.

Review incident response procedures

C.

Evaluate the probability of risk events

D.

Define metrics for restoring availability

Question 232

Several network user accounts were recently created without the required management approvals. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Conduct a comprehensive compliance review.

B.

Develop incident response procedures for noncompliance.

C.

Investigate the root cause of noncompliance.

D.

Declare a security breach and Inform management.

Question 233

Which of the following is the FIRST step in risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Review risk governance

B.

Asset identification

C.

Identify risk factors

D.

Inherent risk identification

Question 234

A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.

B.

Communicate to those who test and promote changes.

C.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.

D.

Assess the maturity of the change management process.

Question 235

Which of the following should be implemented to BEST mitigate the risk associated with infrastructure updates?

Options:

A.

Role-specific technical training

B.

Change management audit

C.

Change control process

D.

Risk assessment

Question 236

During a risk treatment plan review, a risk practitioner finds the approved risk action plan has not been completed However, there were other risk mitigation actions implemented. Which of the fallowing is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the cost-benefit of mitigating controls

B.

Mark the risk status as unresolved within the risk register

C.

Verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner

D.

Update the risk register with implemented mitigating actions

Question 237

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

Options:

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

Question 238

The MOST important objective of information security controls is to:

Options:

A.

Identify threats and vulnerability

B.

Ensure alignment with industry standards

C.

Provide measurable risk reduction

D.

Enforce strong security solutions

Question 239

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Perform root cause analysis.

C.

Initiate disciplinary action.

D.

Update the incident response plan.

Question 240

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

Question 241

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit for an organization with a strong risk awareness culture?

Options:

A.

Reducing the involvement by senior management

B.

Using more risk specialists

C.

Reducing the need for risk policies and guidelines

D.

Discussing and managing risk as a team

Question 242

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Evaluating risk impact

B.

Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Conducting internal audits

D.

Creating quarterly risk reports

Question 243

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

Question 244

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

Question 245

What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?

Options:

A.

Flexibility and adaptability

B.

Measurability and consistency

C.

Robustness and resilience

D.

Optimal cost and benefit

Question 246

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

Question 247

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

B.

assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

C.

benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.

D.

facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

Question 248

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

accounts without documented approval

B.

user accounts with default passwords

C.

active accounts belonging to former personnel

D.

accounts with dormant activity.

Question 249

While reviewing a contract of a cloud services vendor, it was discovered that the vendor refuses to accept liability for a sensitive data breach. Which of the following controls will BES reduce the risk associated with such a data breach?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key

B.

Engaging a third party to validate operational controls

C.

Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor

D.

Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key

Question 250

Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.

B.

It requires more resources than other methods

C.

It produces the results in numeric form.

D.

It is based on impact analysis of information assets.

Question 251

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?

Options:

A.

Data duplication processes

B.

Data archival processes

C.

Data anonymization processes

D.

Data protection processes

Question 252

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to update following a change in legislation requiring notification to individuals impacted by data breaches?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Policies and standards

D.

Risk appetite and tolerance

Question 253

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Alignment of investment with risk appetite

C.

Elimination of compensating controls

D.

Reduction in personnel costs

Question 254

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

Question 255

What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset

B.

Known emerging environmental threats

C.

Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer

D.

Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services

Question 256

What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Ensure compliance.

B.

Identify trends.

C.

Promote a risk-aware culture.

D.

Optimize resources needed for controls

Question 257

Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Countermeasures analysis

B.

Best practice assessment

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Risk assessment

Question 258

Which of The following should be of GREATEST concern for an organization considering the adoption of a bring your own device (BYOD) initiative?

Options:

A.

Device corruption

B.

Data loss

C.

Malicious users

D.

User support

Question 259

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

Options:

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

Question 260

Participants in a risk workshop have become focused on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this type of issue in the long term?

Options:

A.

Perform a return on investment analysis.

B.

Review the risk register and risk scenarios.

C.

Calculate annualized loss expectancy of risk scenarios.

D.

Raise the maturity of organizational risk management.

Question 261

Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?

Options:

A.

Number of projects going live without a security review

B.

Number of employees completing project-specific security training

C.

Number of security projects started in core departments

D.

Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers

Question 262

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process

B.

Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives

C.

Number of current test plans and procedures

D.

Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test

Question 263

Which of the following describes the relationship between Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIS)?

Options:

A.

KCIs are independent from KRIs KRIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs help in determining risk appetite.

C.

KCIs are defined using data from KRIs.

D.

KCIs provide input for KRIs

Question 264

Winch of the following can be concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report for the it infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Likelihood of a threat

B.

Impact of technology risk

C.

Impact of operational risk

D.

Control weakness

Question 265

Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?

Options:

A.

Threat event

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk event

D.

Security incident

Question 266

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

Question 267

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?

Options:

A.

To provide data for establishing the risk profile

B.

To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies

C.

To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur

D.

To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness

Question 268

To reduce costs, an organization is combining the second and third tines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

The risk governance approach of the second and third lines of defense may differ.

B.

The independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised.

C.

Cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments.

D.

The new structure is not aligned to the organization's internal control framework.

Question 269

A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. Which of the following should be the practitioner's PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity of the data

B.

Readability of test data

C.

Security of the test environment

D.

Availability of data to authorized staff

Question 270

The MAIN purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control:

Options:

A.

operates as intended.

B.

is being monitored.

C.

meets regulatory requirements.

D.

operates efficiently.

Question 271

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Identifying critical information assets

B.

Identifying events impacting continuity of operations.

C.

Creating a data classification scheme

D.

Analyzing previous risk assessment results

Question 272

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

Question 273

An organization has initiated a project to launch an IT-based service to customers and take advantage of being the first to market. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to senior management?

Options:

A.

More time has been allotted for testing.

B.

The project is likely to deliver the product late.

C.

A new project manager is handling the project.

D.

The cost of the project will exceed the allotted budget.

Question 274

The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:

Options:

A.

capability to implement new processes

B.

evolution of process improvements

C.

degree of compliance with policies and procedures

D.

control requirements.

Question 275

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

Question 276

An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?

Options:

A.

The balanced scorecard

B.

A cost-benefit analysis

C.

The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning

Question 277

An organization automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis. This practice is MOST likely the result of:

Options:

A.

a lack of mitigating actions for identified risk

B.

decreased threat levels

C.

ineffective service delivery

D.

ineffective IT governance

Question 278

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an IT risk awareness program?

Options:

A.

Ensure compliance with the organization's internal policies

B.

Cultivate long-term behavioral change.

C.

Communicate IT risk policy to the participants.

D.

Demonstrate regulatory compliance.

Question 279

Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization's network?

Options:

A.

Network monitoring infrastructure

B.

Centralized vulnerability management

C.

Incident management process

D.

Centralized log management

Question 280

Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?

Options:

A.

Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods

B.

Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives

C.

linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy

D.

Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods

Question 281

Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

Options:

A.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions

B.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal

C.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance

D.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency

Question 282

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an antivirus program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

B.

Number of false positives defected over a period of time

C.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

D.

Frequency of anti-vinjs software updates

Question 283

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle?

Options:

A.

To deliver projects on time and on budget

B.

To assess inherent risk

C.

To include project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profit.

D.

To assess risk throughout the project

Question 284

A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.

B.

The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.

C.

The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.

D.

The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.

Question 285

Whose risk tolerance matters MOST when making a risk decision?

Options:

A.

Customers who would be affected by a breach

B.

Auditors, regulators and standards organizations

C.

The business process owner of the exposed assets

D.

The information security manager

Question 286

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

Options:

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

Question 287

When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:

Options:

A.

risk appetite.

B.

security policies

C.

process maps.

D.

risk tolerance level

Question 288

The MOST important reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) is to help management:

Options:

A.

identity early risk transfer strategies.

B.

lessen the impact of realized risk.

C.

analyze the chain of risk events.

D.

identify the root cause of risk events.

Question 289

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?

Options:

A.

Frequency of anti-virus software updates

B.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

C.

Number of false positives detected over a period of time

D.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

Question 290

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

Options:

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

Question 291

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

Question 292

An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the risk identification process.

B.

Inform the risk scenario owners.

C.

Create a risk awareness communication plan.

D.

Update the risk register.

Question 293

Which stakeholders are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Audit and compliance management

B.

The chief information officer (CIO) and the chief financial officer (CFO)

C.

Enterprise risk management and business process owners

D.

Executive management and the board of directors

Question 294

A maturity model will BEST indicate:

Options:

A.

confidentiality and integrity.

B.

effectiveness and efficiency.

C.

availability and reliability.

D.

certification and accreditation.

Question 295

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Results of current and past risk assessments

B.

Organizational strategy and objectives

C.

Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios

D.

Internal and external audit findings

Question 296

An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?

Options:

A.

Project Charlie

B.

Project Bravo

C.

Project Alpha

D.

Project Delta

Question 297

A risk owner should be the person accountable for:

Options:

A.

the risk management process

B.

managing controls.

C.

implementing actions.

D.

the business process.

Question 298

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?

Options:

A.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

B.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

C.

There is a lack of technology recovery options.

D.

The applications are not captured in the risk profile.

Question 299

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

Options:

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

Question 300

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

Options:

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

Question 301

Which of the following would BEST enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT)?

Options:

A.

Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle

B.

Implementing loT device software monitoring

C.

Performing periodic risk assessments of loT

D.

Performing secure code reviews

Question 302

The PRIMARY purpose of a maturity model is to compare the:

Options:

A.

current state of key processes to their desired state.

B.

actual KPIs with target KPIs.

C.

organization to industry best practices.

D.

organization to peers.

Question 303

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed?

Options:

A.

The risk owner has validated outcomes.

B.

The risk register has been updated.

C.

The control objectives are mapped to risk objectives.

D.

The requirements have been achieved.

Question 304

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

Question 305

A risk practitioner observes that the fraud detection controls in an online payment system do not perform as expected. Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Risk appetite

Question 306

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

Options:

A.

review the key risk indicators.

B.

conduct a risk analysis.

C.

update the risk register

D.

reallocate risk response resources.

Question 307

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user's workstation?

Options:

A.

An antivirus program

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Firewall log monitoring

D.

File integrity monitoring

Question 308

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.

B.

Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.

C.

Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.

D.

Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.

Question 309

Which of the following is the MOST important component of effective security incident response?

Options:

A.

Network time protocol synchronization

B.

Identification of attack sources

C.

Early detection of breaches

D.

A documented communications plan

Question 310

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

Question 311

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

Options:

A.

organizational risk appetite.

B.

business sector best practices.

C.

business process requirements.

D.

availability of automated solutions

Question 312

An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:

Options:

A.

immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops

B.

centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled

C.

report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.

D.

procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.

Question 313

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

Options:

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

Question 314

A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner

recommend be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.

B.

Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.

C.

Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.

D.

Reduce the risk tolerance level.

Question 315

Which of the following would provide executive management with the BEST information to make risk decisions as a result of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

A companion of risk assessment results to the desired state

B.

A quantitative presentation of risk assessment results

C.

An assessment of organizational maturity levels and readiness

D.

A qualitative presentation of risk assessment results

Question 316

Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Batch job failure monitoring

B.

Periodic network scanning

C.

Annual penetration testing

D.

Risk assessments

Question 317

A new regulator/ requirement imposes severe fines for data leakage involving customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). The risk practitioner has recommended avoiding the risk. Which of the following actions would BEST align with this recommendation?

Options:

A.

Reduce retention periods for Pll data.

B.

Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site.

C.

Modify business processes to stop collecting Pll.

D.

Implement strong encryption for Pll.

Question 318

What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Control environment

C.

IT objectives

D.

Organizational objectives

Question 319

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.

B.

Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.

C.

Identify the risk appetite of the organization.

D.

Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

Question 320

The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:

Options:

A.

the third-party website manager

B.

the business process owner

C.

IT security

D.

the compliance manager

Question 321

The effectiveness of a control has decreased. What is the MOST likely effect on the associated risk?

Options:

A.

The risk impact changes.

B.

The risk classification changes.

C.

The inherent risk changes.

D.

The residual risk changes.

Question 322

A control owner identifies that the organization's shared drive contains personally identifiable information (Pll) that can be accessed by all personnel. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk response?

Options:

A.

Protect sensitive information with access controls.

B.

Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution.

C.

Re-communicate the data protection policy.

D.

Implement a data encryption solution.

Question 323

Which of the following statements in an organization's current risk profile report is cause for further action by senior management?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicator (KPI) trend data is incomplete.

B.

New key risk indicators (KRIs) have been established.

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are outside of targets.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are lagging.

Question 324

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk practitioner to embed risk management within the organization?

Options:

A.

Provide risk management feedback to key stakeholders.

B.

Collect and analyze risk data for report generation.

C.

Monitor and prioritize risk data according to the heat map.

D.

Engage key stakeholders in risk management practices.

Question 325

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program is the number of:

Options:

A.

vulnerability scans.

B.

recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

vulnerabilities remediated,

D.

new vulnerabilities identified.

Question 326

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

Options:

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

Question 327

An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

Question 328

A newly enacted information privacy law significantly increases financial penalties for breaches of personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following will MOST likely outcome for an organization affected by the new law?

Options:

A.

Increase in compliance breaches

B.

Increase in loss event impact

C.

Increase in residual risk

D.

Increase in customer complaints

Question 329

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Obtaining funding support

B.

Defining the risk assessment scope

C.

Selecting the risk assessment framework

D.

Establishing inherent risk

Question 330

The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) method of risk analysis:

Options:

A.

helps in calculating the expected cost of controls

B.

uses qualitative risk rankings such as low. medium and high.

C.

can be used m a cost-benefit analysts

D.

can be used to determine the indirect business impact.

Question 331

Which of the following would MOST likely drive the need to review and update key performance indicators (KPIs) for critical IT assets?

Options:

A.

The outsourcing of related IT processes

B.

Outcomes of periodic risk assessments

C.

Changes in service level objectives

D.

Findings from continuous monitoring

Question 332

Which of the following criteria is MOST important when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data?

Options:

A.

The recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

The likelihood of a recurring attack

C.

The organization's risk tolerance

D.

The business significance of the information

Question 333

A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Internal audit

B.

Control owner

C.

Senior management

D.

Risk manager

Question 334

Before implementing instant messaging within an organization using a public solution, which of the following should be in place to mitigate data leakage risk?

Options:

A.

A data extraction tool

B.

An access control list

C.

An intrusion detection system (IDS)

D.

An acceptable usage policy

Question 335

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?

Options:

A.

Approving operational strategies and objectives

B.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk

C.

Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program

D.

Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register

Question 336

Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:

Options:

A.

using the same scales in assessing risk

B.

utilizing industry benchmarks

C.

using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems

D.

including primarily low-level risk factors

Question 337

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the first line of defense related to computer-enabled fraud?

Options:

A.

Providing oversight of risk management processes

B.

Implementing processes to detect and deter fraud

C.

Ensuring that risk and control assessments consider fraud

D.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate fraud

Question 338

Which of the following provides The BEST information when determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical system to be implemented?

Options:

A.

Single loss expectancy (SLE)

B.

Cost of the information system

C.

Availability of additional compensating controls

D.

Potential business impacts are within acceptable levels

Question 339

Which of the following is MOST essential for an effective change control environment?

Options:

A.

Business management approval of change requests

B.

Separation of development and production environments

C.

Requirement of an implementation rollback plan

D.

IT management review of implemented changes

Question 340

Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the:

Options:

A.

overall effectiveness of risk management

B.

consequences of risk materializing

C.

necessity of developing a risk strategy,

D.

organization s risk threshold.

Question 341

Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Risk management procedures

B.

Senior management interviews

C.

Benchmark analyses

D.

Risk management framework

Question 342

Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

Options:

A.

Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.

B.

Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

C.

Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.

D.

Obtain vendor references from third parties.

Question 343

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary?

Options:

A.

Obtain approval to retire the control.

B.

Update the status of the control as obsolete.

C.

Consult the internal auditor for a second opinion.

D.

Verify the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan.

Question 344

Which of the following indicates an organization follows IT risk management best practice?

Options:

A.

The risk register template uses an industry standard.

B.

The risk register is regularly updated.

C.

All fields in the risk register have been completed.

D.

Controls are listed against risk entries in the register.

Question 345

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to revisit a previously accepted risk?

Options:

A.

To update risk ownership

B.

To review the risk acceptance with new stakeholders

C.

To ensure risk levels have not changed

D.

To ensure controls are still operating effectively

Question 346

An identified high probability risk scenario involving a critical, proprietary business function has an annualized cost of control higher than the annual loss expectancy. Which of the following is the BEST risk response?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoid

Question 347

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?

Options:

A.

Management's expectations

B.

Corporate risk profile

C.

Recent security incidents

D.

The current risk management capability

Question 348

A PRIMARY function of the risk register is to provide supporting information for the development of an organization's risk:

Options:

A.

strategy.

B.

profile.

C.

process.

D.

map.

Question 349

A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:

Options:

A.

mitigated

B.

accepted

C.

avoided

D.

deferred

Question 350

Which of the following provides the MOST helpful information in identifying risk in an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk registers

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Risk scenarios

D.

Risk responses

Question 351

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when performing a risk assessment of a fire suppression system within a data center?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Onsite replacement availability

C.

Maintenance procedures

D.

Installation manuals

Question 352

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

Question 353

Which of the following will MOST improve stakeholders' understanding of the effect of a potential threat?

Options:

A.

Establishing a risk management committee

B.

Updating the organization's risk register to reflect the new threat

C.

Communicating the results of the threat impact analysis

D.

Establishing metrics to assess the effectiveness of the responses

Question 354

Which of the following BEST enables the risk profile to serve as an effective resource to support business objectives?

Options:

A.

Engaging external risk professionals to periodically review the risk

B.

Prioritizing global standards over local requirements in the risk profile

C.

Updating the risk profile with risk assessment results

D.

Assigning quantitative values to qualitative metrics in the risk register

Question 355

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.

B.

Implement layered security.

C.

Outsource to a local processor.

D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.

Question 356

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

Options:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

Question 357

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization that wants to reduce IT operational risk?

Options:

A.

Increasing senior management's understanding of IT operations

B.

Increasing the frequency of data backups

C.

Minimizing complexity of IT infrastructure

D.

Decentralizing IT infrastructure

Question 358

Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?

Options:

A.

Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.

B.

Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.

D.

Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.

Question 359

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

Options:

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

Question 360

Which of the following would prompt changes in key risk indicator {KRI) thresholds?

Options:

A.

Changes to the risk register

B.

Changes in risk appetite or tolerance

C.

Modification to risk categories

D.

Knowledge of new and emerging threats

Question 361

Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?

Options:

A.

Trends in IT resource usage

B.

Trends in IT maintenance costs

C.

Increased resource availability

D.

Increased number of incidents

Question 362

Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?

Options:

A.

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept

B.

The effective management of risk and internal control environments

C.

Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives

D.

The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives

Question 363

Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?

Options:

A.

Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.

B.

Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.

C.

Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.

D.

Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.

Question 364

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

Options:

A.

Organization's information security manager

B.

Organization's risk function

C.

Service provider's IT management

D.

Service provider's information security manager

Question 365

A risk practitioner recently discovered that sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following i the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment

B.

Implement equivalent security in the test environment.

C.

Prevent the use of production data for test purposes

D.

Mask data before being transferred to the test environment.

Question 366

Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?

Options:

A.

Threat to IT

B.

Number of control failures

C.

Impact on business

D.

Risk ownership

Question 367

The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:

Options:

A.

risk scenarios.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk policy.

D.

risk appetite.

Question 368

A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Directive

D.

Deterrent

Question 369

Which of the following risk register elements is MOST likely to be updated if the attack surface or exposure of an asset is reduced?

Options:

A.

Likelihood rating

B.

Control effectiveness

C.

Assessment approach

D.

Impact rating

Question 370

Which of the following is MOST commonly compared against the risk appetite?

Options:

A.

IT risk

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Financial risk

D.

Residual risk

Question 371

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge for an IT risk practitioner who wants to report on trends in historical IT risk levels?

Options:

A.

Qualitative measures for potential loss events

B.

Changes in owners for identified IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes in methods used to calculate probability

D.

Frequent use of risk acceptance as a treatment option

Question 372

Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?

Options:

A.

Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis

B.

Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.

C.

Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.

D.

Include information security control specifications in business cases.

Question 373

When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

Options:

A.

that results in a full root cause analysis.

B.

used for verification within the SLA.

C.

that are verified as actual incidents.

D.

resolved within the SLA.

Question 374

What is the GREATEST concern with maintaining decentralized risk registers instead of a consolidated risk register?

Options:

A.

Aggregated risk may exceed the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance.

B.

Duplicate resources may be used to manage risk registers.

C.

Standardization of risk management practices may be difficult to enforce.

D.

Risk analysis may be inconsistent due to non-uniform impact and likelihood scales.

Question 375

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Interview the risk owner.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis

Question 376

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

Options:

A.

Prepare a report for senior management.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

Question 377

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for a system administrator who suspects a colleague may be intentionally weakening a system's validation controls in order to pass through fraudulent transactions?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls to deter fraud attempts.

B.

Share the concern through a whistleblower communication channel.

C.

Monitor the activity to collect evidence.

D.

Determine whether the system environment has flaws that may motivate fraud attempts.

Question 378

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder preferences

B.

Contractual requirements

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Management assertions

Question 379

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the third line of defense?

Options:

A.

Providing assurance of the effectiveness of risk management activities

B.

Providing guidance on the design of effective controls

C.

Providing advisory services on enterprise risk management (ERM)

D.

Providing benchmarking on other organizations' risk management programs

Question 380

To help ensure the success of a major IT project, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

obtain the appropriate stakeholders' commitment.

B.

align the project with the IT risk framework.

C.

obtain approval from business process owners.

D.

update the risk register on a regular basis.

Question 381

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

Options:

A.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

B.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

C.

Date and status of the last project milestone

D.

The individuals assigned ownership of controls

Question 382

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?

Options:

A.

Standards-based policies

B.

Audit readiness

C.

Efficient operations

D.

Regulatory compliance

Question 383

One of an organization's key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Additional mitigating controls should be identified.

B.

The system should not be used until the application is changed

C.

The organization's IT risk appetite should be adjusted.

D.

The associated IT risk should be accepted by management.

Question 384

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

Options:

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Access control attestation

C.

Periodic job rotation

D.

Whistleblower program

Question 385

Which of the following is MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Common attacks in other industries.

B.

Identification of risk events.

C.

Impact on critical assets.

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events.

Question 386

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for the prioritization of risk responses?

Options:

A.

Residual risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Mitigation cost

D.

Inherent risk

Question 387

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform based on the value added by the platform and the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment with stakeholders.

B.

Conduct third-party resilience tests.

C.

Update the risk register with the process changes.

D.

Review risk related to standards and regulations.

Question 388

When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:

Options:

A.

insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.

B.

service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.

C.

a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.

D.

accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.

Question 389

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

Options:

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

Question 390

A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?

Options:

A.

Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.

B.

Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.

C.

Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.

D.

Analyze and update IT control assessments.

Question 391

Which of the following is MOST important requirement to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor contract to ensure data is protected?

Options:

A.

The vendor must provide periodic independent assurance reports.

B.

The vendor must host data in a specific geographic location.

C.

The vendor must be held liable for regulatory fines for failure to protect data.

D.

The vendor must participate in an annual vendor performance review.

Question 392

Which of the following controls will BEST mitigate risk associated with excessive access privileges?

Options:

A.

Review of user access logs

B.

Frequent password expiration

C.

Separation of duties

D.

Entitlement reviews

Question 393

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (Pll)?

Options:

A.

Costs and benefits

B.

Local laws and regulations

C.

Security features and support

D.

Business strategies and needs

Question 394

Who is BEST suited to provide information to the risk practitioner about the effectiveness of a technical control associated with an application?

Options:

A.

System owner

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Process owner

D.

Risk owner

Question 395

Which of the following activities is a responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Challenging risk decision making

B.

Developing controls to manage risk scenarios

C.

Implementing risk response plans

D.

Establishing organizational risk appetite

Question 396

An organization's IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.

B.

The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.

C.

The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.

D.

Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.

Question 397

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

Question 398

The PRIMARY reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to:

Options:

A.

reduce subjectivity in risk management.

B.

comply with regulatory requirements.

C.

demonstrate best industry practice.

D.

improve visibility of overall risk exposure.

Question 399

Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data privacy manager

C.

System administrator

D.

Human resources (HR) manager

Question 400

The risk to an organization's reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:

Options:

A.

financial risk.

B.

data risk.

C.

operational risk.

D.

strategic risk.

Question 401

Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

Question 402

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE goal of conducting a privacy impact analysis (PIA)?

Options:

A.

To identify gaps in data protection controls

B.

To develop a customer notification plan

C.

To identify personally identifiable information (Pll)

D.

To determine gaps in data identification processes

Question 403

An organization is implementing Zero Trust architecture to improve its security posture. Which of the following is the MOST important input to develop the architecture?

Options:

A.

Cloud services risk assessments

B.

The organization's threat model

C.

Access control logs

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) architecture

Question 404

An organization's stakeholders are unable to agree on appropriate risk responses. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Identify a risk transfer option.

C.

Reassess risk scenarios.

D.

Benchmark with similar industries.

Question 405

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to understand about an organization in order to create an effective risk

awareness program?

Options:

A.

Policies and procedures

B.

Structure and culture

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) and thresholds

D.

Known threats and vulnerabilities

Question 406

Which of the following is BEST used to aggregate data from multiple systems to identify abnormal behavior?

Options:

A.

Cyber threat intelligence

B.

Anti-malware software

C.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

D.

SIEM systems

Question 407

An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

Question 408

Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result of the decrease in risk appetite due to a new privacy regulation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Risk trends

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk objectives

Question 409

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether risk management is aligned with its goals and objectives?

Options:

A.

The organization has approved policies that provide operational boundaries.

B.

Organizational controls are in place to effectively manage risk appetite.

C.

Environmental changes that impact risk are continually evaluated.

D.

The organization has an approved enterprise architecture (EA) program.

Question 410

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?

Options:

A.

Application monitoring

B.

Separation of duty

C.

Least privilege

D.

Nonrepudiation

Question 411

When determining risk ownership, the MAIN consideration should be:

Options:

A.

who owns the business process.

B.

the amount of residual risk.

C.

who is responsible for risk mitigation.

D.

the total cost of risk treatment.

Question 412

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Control owner

Question 413

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

Options:

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

Question 414

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations

B.

Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit

C.

Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value

D.

Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance

Question 415

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?

Options:

A.

Business case documentation

B.

Organizational risk appetite statement

C.

Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation

D.

Organizational hierarchy

Question 416

It was discovered that a service provider's administrator was accessing sensitive information without the approval of the customer in an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model. Which of the following would BEST protect against a future recurrence?

Options:

A.

Data encryption

B.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Contractual requirements

Question 417

A legacy application used for a critical business function relies on software that has reached the end of extended support Which of the following is the MOST effective control to manage this application?

Options:

A.

Subscribe to threat intelligence to monitor external attacks.

B.

Apply patches for a newer version of the application.

C.

Segment the application within the existing network.

D.

Increase the frequency of regular system and data backups.

Question 418

Which of the following is MOST important to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance?

Options:

A.

Business impact assessment (BIA)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Risk profile

D.

Industry benchmark analysis

Question 419

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the board and senior leadership

regarding the organization's approach to risk management for emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the organization follows risk management industry best practices

B.

Ensuring IT risk scenarios are updated and include emerging technologies

C.

Ensuring the risk framework and policies are suitable for emerging technologies

D.

Ensuring threat intelligence services are used to gather data about emerging technologies

Question 420

Which of the following criteria for assigning owners to IT risk scenarios provides the GREATEST benefit to an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk owner understands the effect of loss events on business operations.

B.

The risk owner is a member of senior leadership in the IT organization.

C.

The risk owner has strong technical aptitude across multiple business systems.

D.

The risk owner has extensive risk management experience.

Question 421

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee

B.

Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings

C.

Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep

D.

Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants

Question 422

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.

B.

Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.

C.

Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.

D.

Review the organization's data inventory.

Question 423

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced

B.

Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C.

Listing alternative causes for risk events

D.

Illustrating changes in risk trends

Question 424

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

Options:

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

Question 425

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

Options:

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

Question 426

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to continuously monitor a critical security transformation program?

Options:

A.

To validate the quality of defined deliverables for the program

B.

To detect increases in program costs

C.

To ensure program risk events are mitigated in a timely manner

D.

To provide timely reporting to the governance steering committee

Question 427

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?

Options:

A.

To provide evidence of activities

B.

To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)

C.

To ensure that changes are authorized

D.

To ensure that changes made are correctly applied

Question 428

Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of emerging risk?

Options:

A.

Performing scenario-based assessments

B.

Reviewing audit reports annually

C.

Conducting root cause analyses

D.

Engaging a risk-focused audit team

Question 429

A data center has recently been migrated to a jurisdiction where heavy fines will be imposed should leakage of customer personal data occur. Assuming no other changes to the operating environment, which factor should be updated to reflect this situation as an input to scenario development for this particular risk event?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk impact

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

Question 430

An organization has identified the need to implement an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk assessment methodology for a risk practitioner to use for this initiative?

Options:

A.

Qualitative method

B.

Industry calibration method

C.

Threat-based method

D.

Quantitative method

Question 431

A failure in an organization’s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's IMMEDIATE concern?

Options:

A.

Threats are not being detected.

B.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

The process documentation was not updated.

Question 432

Which of the following is the BEST response when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified?

Options:

A.

Remediate and report the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee.

B.

Verify the deficiency and then notify the business process owner.

C.

Verify the deficiency and then notify internal audit.

D.

Remediate and report the deficiency to senior executive management.

Question 433

An organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform an impact assessment.

B.

Perform a penetration test.

C.

Request an external audit.

D.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

Question 434

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating risk and security requirements in an organization's enterprise architecture (EA)?

Options:

A.

Adherence to legal and compliance requirements

B.

Reduction in the number of test cases in the acceptance phase

C.

Establishment of digital forensic architectures

D.

Consistent management of information assets

Question 435

When implementing an IT risk management program, which of the following is the BEST time to evaluate current control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Before defining a framework

B.

During the risk assessment

C.

When evaluating risk response

D.

When updating the risk register

Question 436

An organization has restructured its business processes, and the business continuity plan (BCP) needs to be revised accordingly. Which of the following should be identified FIRST?

Options:

A.

Variances in recovery times

B.

Ownership assignment for controls

C.

New potentially disruptive scenarios

D.

Contractual changes with customers

Question 437

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Historical data availability

B.

Implementation and reporting effort

C.

Ability to display trends

D.

Sensitivity and reliability

Question 438

When assigning control ownership, it is MOST important to verify that the owner has accountability for:

Options:

A.

Control effectiveness.

B.

The budget for control implementation.

C.

Assessment of control risk.

D.

Internal control audits.

Question 439

A risk practitioner learns that a risk owner has been accepting gifts from a supplier of IT products. Some of these IT products are used to implement controls and to mitigate risk to acceptable levels. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Initiate disciplinary action against the risk owner.

B.

Reassess the risk and review the underlying controls.

C.

Review organizational ethics policies.

D.

Report the activity to the supervisor.

Question 440

Who is accountable for the process when an IT stakeholder operates a key

control to address a risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT manager

C.

System owner

D.

Data custodian

Question 441

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

Options:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

Question 442

An application development team has a backlog of user requirements for a new system that will process insurance claim payments for customers. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for a risk-based review of the user requirements?

Options:

A.

Number of claims affected by the user requirements

B.

Number of customers impacted

C.

Impact to the accuracy of claim calculation

D.

Level of resources required to implement the user requirements

Question 443

Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a documented risk register

B.

Establishing a risk awareness program

C.

Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents

D.

Allocating resources for risk remediation

Question 444

A risk practitioner is involved in a comprehensive overhaul of the organizational risk management program. Which of the following should be reviewed FIRST to help identify relevant IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Technology threats

B.

IT assets

C.

Security vulnerabilities

D.

IT risk register

Question 445

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?

Options:

A.

Inaccurate record management data

B.

Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Lack of accountability for data ownership

D.

Users having unauthorized access to data

Question 446

Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?

Options:

A.

Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities

B.

Determining attack likelihood per business unit

C.

Adjusting business unit risk tolerances

D.

Customizing incident response plans for each business unit

Question 447

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

Options:

A.

Identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite.

B.

Help with internal control assessments concerning risk appetite.

C.

Assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds.

D.

Identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds.

Question 448

After conducting a risk assessment for regulatory compliance, an organization has identified only one possible mitigating control. The cost of the control has been determined to be higher than the penalty of noncompliance. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk with management sign-off.

B.

Ignore the risk until the regulatory body conducts a compliance check.

C.

Mitigate the risk with the identified control.

D.

Transfer the risk by buying insurance.

Question 449

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (AI) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

Options:

A.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

B.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

C.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

D.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

Question 450

An organization is developing a risk universe to create a holistic view of its overall risk profile. Which of the following is the GREATEST barrier to achieving the initiative's objectives?

Options:

A.

Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops within the organization

B.

Lack of common understanding of the organization's risk culture

C.

Lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure

D.

Lack of an integrated risk management system to aggregate risk scenarios

Question 451

An organization allows programmers to change production systems in emergency situations. Which of the following is the BEST control?

Options:

A.

Implementing an emergency change authorization process

B.

Periodically reviewing operator logs

C.

Limiting the number of super users

D.

Reviewing the programmers' emergency change reports

Question 452

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of relevant risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Perform quantitative risk analysis of historical data.

B.

Adopt an industry-recognized risk framework.

C.

Use qualitative risk assessment methodologies.

D.

Conduct brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders.

Question 453

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

Options:

A.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

B.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

C.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

D.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

Question 454

A risk practitioner is reviewing accountability assignments for data risk in the risk register. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

The risk owner is not the control owner for associated data controls.

B.

The risk owner is in a business unit and does not report through the IT department.

C.

The risk owner is listed as the department responsible for decision-making.

D.

The risk owner is a staff member rather than a department manager.

Question 455

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations.

B.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards.

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall.

D.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) for its operations.

Question 456

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for

sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

B.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels

C.

Recommend device management controls

D.

Enable role-based access control.

Question 457

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

Options:

A.

It guides management in determining risk appetite.

B.

It provides management with a risk inventory.

C.

It aligns risk scenarios to business objectives.

D.

It monitors the performance of risk and control owners.

Question 458

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool

C.

Lack of senior management involvement

D.

Use of multiple risk registers

Question 459

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time?

Options:

A.

Replace the action owner with a more experienced individual.

B.

Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed.

C.

Change the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance.

D.

Develop additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed.

Question 460

Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Business manager

C.

Risk owner

D.

Control owner

Question 461

An organization's IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.

B.

Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.

C.

Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.

D.

Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.

Question 462

An organization has adopted an emerging technology without following proper processes. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action to address this risk?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk because the technology has already been adopted.

B.

Propose a transfer of risk to a third party with subsequent monitoring.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine risk exposure.

D.

Recommend to senior management to decommission the technology.

Question 463

Who is accountable for authorizing application access in a cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?

Options:

A.

Cloud service provider

B.

IT department

C.

Senior management

D.

Business unit owner

Question 464

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to engage business unit managers in risk management processes'?

Options:

A.

Improved alignment will technical risk

B.

Better-informed business decisions

C.

Enhanced understanding of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Improved business operations efficiency

Question 465

When confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, which of the following is MOST important to review?

Options:

A.

Results of benchmarking studies

B.

Results of risk assessments

C.

Number of emergency change requests

D.

Maturity model

Question 466

When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:

Options:

A.

business process owners.

B.

representative data sets.

C.

industry benchmark data.

D.

data automation systems.

Question 467

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the internal control environment

B.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

Question 468

An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.

B.

Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.

C.

Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.

D.

Obtain certification to a global information security standard.

Question 469

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor

adherence to the 15-day threshold?

Options:

A.

Operation level agreement (OLA)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

Question 470

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the use of artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

Options:

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

Exam Detail
Vendor: Isaca
Certification: Isaca Certification
Exam Code: CRISC
Last Update: Apr 30, 2025
CRISC Question Answers
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