Month End Sale 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: save70

Free and Premium Isaca CRISC Dumps Questions Answers

Page: 1 / 131
Total 1745 questions

Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Question 1

An organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform an impact assessment.

B.

Perform a penetration test.

C.

Request an external audit.

D.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

Buy Now
Question 2

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization's risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

Question 3

During an organization's simulated phishing email campaign, which of the following is the BEST indicator of a mature security awareness program?

Options:

A.

A high number of participants reporting the email

B.

A high number of participants deleting the email

C.

A low number of participants with questions for the help desk

D.

A low number of participants opening the email

Question 4

A risk practitioner learns that a risk owner has been accepting gifts from a supplier of IT products. Some of these IT products are used to implement controls and to mitigate risk to acceptable levels. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Initiate disciplinary action against the risk owner.

B.

Reassess the risk and review the underlying controls.

C.

Review organizational ethics policies.

D.

Report the activity to the supervisor.

Question 5

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

Question 6

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

Options:

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

Question 7

Which of the following would prompt changes in key risk indicator {KRI) thresholds?

Options:

A.

Changes to the risk register

B.

Changes in risk appetite or tolerance

C.

Modification to risk categories

D.

Knowledge of new and emerging threats

Question 8

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization would engage an independent reviewer to assess its IT risk management program?

Options:

A.

To ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating emerging risk

B.

To confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed in quantitative terms

C.

To evaluate threats to the organization's operations and strategy

D.

To identify gaps in the alignment of IT risk management processes and strategy

Question 9

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?

Options:

A.

To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities

B.

To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits

C.

To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements

D.

To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective

Question 10

Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.

B.

Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.

C.

Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.

D.

Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.

Question 11

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP) will mitigate the risk of the organization failing to recover from a major service disruption?

Options:

A.

An experienced and certified disaster recovery team

B.

A record of quarterly disaster recovery tests

C.

A comprehensive list of critical applications

D.

A defined recovery point objective (RPO)

Question 12

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?

Options:

A.

Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests

B.

Decreased number of reported security incidents

C.

Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations

D.

Number of employees that complete security training

Question 13

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

Options:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

Question 14

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

Options:

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

Question 15

Deviation from a mitigation action plan's completion date should be determined by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Change management as determined by a change control board

B.

Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects

C.

Project governance criteria as determined by the project office

D.

The risk owner as determined by risk management processes

Question 16

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

Question 17

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

Question 18

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization's adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?

Options:

A.

It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.

B.

It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.

C.

There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.

D.

Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.

Question 19

Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Obsolete response documentation

B.

Increased stakeholder turnover

C.

Failure to audit third-party providers

D.

Undefined assignment of responsibility

Question 20

Which of the following is the MOST essential characteristic of a good IT risk scenario?

Options:

A.

The scenario is aligned to business control processes.

B.

The scenario is aligned to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.

C.

The scenario is aligned to a business objective.

D.

The scenario is aligned to known vulnerabilities in information technology.

Question 21

Which of the following will BEST communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives to senior management?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Balanced scorecard

C.

Industry standards

D.

Heat map

Question 22

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

Options:

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information

Question 23

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

Options:

A.

Regional competitors' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

Question 24

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?

Options:

A.

Management's expectations

B.

Corporate risk profile

C.

Recent security incidents

D.

The current risk management capability

Question 25

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems?

Options:

A.

A record of incidents is maintained.

B.

Forensic investigations are facilitated.

C.

Security violations can be identified.

D.

Developing threats are detected earlier.

Question 26

Who is BEST suited to provide information to the risk practitioner about the effectiveness of a technical control associated with an application?

Options:

A.

System owner

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Process owner

D.

Risk owner

Question 27

When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?

Options:

A.

An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events

B.

An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations

C.

A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls

D.

A justification of corrective action taken

Question 28

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk governance charter

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Cross-business representation

Question 29

After the announcement of a new IT regulatory requirement, it is MOST important for a risk practitioner to;

Options:

A.

prepare an IT risk mitigation strategy.

B.

escalate to senior management.

C.

perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

review the impact to the IT environment.

Question 30

Options:

A.

To gain stakeholder support for the implementation of controls

B.

To address multiple risk scenarios mitigated by technical controls

C.

To comply with industry best practices by balancing multiple types of controls

D.

To improve the effectiveness of controls that mitigate risk

Question 31

A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?

Options:

A.

Monitoring of service costs

B.

Provision of internal audit reports

C.

Notification of sub-contracting arrangements

D.

Confidentiality of customer data

Question 32

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r

Options:

A.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

B.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

C.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

D.

Update the risk register with the results.

Question 33

Options:

A.

Implement project status checks to avoid financial risk.

B.

Support the project team in identifying and responding to risk.

C.

Update and publish the project risk register on a regular basis.

D.

Reduce project cost by eliminating risk to the project.

Question 34

Options:

A.

Develop policies with less restrictive requirements to ensure consistency across the organization.

B.

Develop a global policy to be applied uniformly by each country.

C.

Develop country-specific policies to address local regulations.

D.

Develop a global policy that accommodates country-specific requirements.

Question 35

Which of the following is MOST helpful to facilitate the decision of recovery priorities in a disaster situation?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

B.

Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Risk Scenario Analysis

Question 36

For no apparent reason, the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold. Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Temporarily increase the risk threshold.

B.

Suspend processing to investigate the problem.

C.

Initiate a feasibility study for a new application.

D.

Conduct a root-cause analysis.

Question 37

An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?

Options:

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

C.

Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.

D.

Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.

Question 38

The MAIN purpose of having a documented risk profile is to:

Options:

A.

comply with external and internal requirements.

B.

enable well-informed decision making.

C.

prioritize investment projects.

D.

keep the risk register up-to-date.

Question 39

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Implementing technical control over the assets

C.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

D.

Scheduling periodic audits

Question 40

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

Options:

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

Question 41

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

Question 42

When reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) of an online sales order system, a risk practitioner notices that the recovery time objective (RTO) has a shorter lime than what is defined in the disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Adopt the RTO defined in the BCR

B.

Update the risk register to reflect the discrepancy.

C.

Adopt the RTO defined in the DRP.

D.

Communicate the discrepancy to the DR manager for follow-up.

Question 43

Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database''

Options:

A.

Implement role-based access control

B.

Implement a data masking process

C.

Include sanctions in nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

D.

Install a data loss prevention (DLP) tool

Question 44

The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:

Options:

A.

assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.

B.

confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.

C.

verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.

D.

ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.

Question 45

Who is MOST likely to be responsible for the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy?

Options:

A.

Chief financial officer

B.

Information security director

C.

Internal audit director

D.

Chief information officer

Question 46

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

Options:

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

Question 47

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Control owner

Question 48

Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Monetary approval limits

C.

Clear roles and responsibilities

D.

Password policies

Question 49

An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Develop a compensating control.

B.

Allocate remediation resources.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Identify risk responses

Question 50

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

Options:

A.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

B.

Whether the affected technology is Internet-facing

C.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

D.

How pervasive the vulnerability is within the organization

Question 51

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

Question 52

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure new IT policies address the enterprise's requirements?

Options:

A.

involve IT leadership in the policy development process

B.

Require business users to sign acknowledgment of the poises

C.

involve business owners in the pokey development process

D.

Provide policy owners with greater enforcement authority

Question 53

Which of the following provides The BEST information when determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical system to be implemented?

Options:

A.

Single loss expectancy (SLE)

B.

Cost of the information system

C.

Availability of additional compensating controls

D.

Potential business impacts are within acceptable levels

Question 54

Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

define recovery time objectives (RTOs).

B.

define the information classification policy

C.

conduct a sensitivity analyse

D.

Identify information custodians

Question 55

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate risk assessments to senior management?

Options:

A.

To ensure actions can be taken to align assessment results to risk appetite

B.

To ensure key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds can be adjusted for tolerance

C.

To ensure awareness of risk and controls is shared with key decision makers

D.

To ensure the maturity of the assessment program can be validated

Question 56

Which of the following BEST indicates how well a web infrastructure protects critical information from an attacker?

Options:

A.

Failed login attempts

B.

Simulating a denial of service attack

C.

Absence of IT audit findings

D.

Penetration test

Question 57

During a post-implementation review for a new system, users voiced concerns about missing functionality. Which of the following is the BEST way for the organization to avoid this situation in the future?

Options:

A.

Test system reliability and performance.

B.

Adopt an Agile development approach.

C.

Conduct user acceptance testing (UAT).

D.

Adopt a phased changeover approach.

Question 58

Which of the following observations from a third-party service provider review would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Service level agreements (SLAs) have not been met over the last quarter.

B.

The service contract is up for renewal in less than thirty days.

C.

Key third-party personnel have recently been replaced.

D.

Monthly service charges are significantly higher than industry norms.

Question 59

A business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend allowing the new usage based on prior approval.

B.

Request a new third-party review.

C.

Request revalidation of the original use case.

D.

Assess the risk associated with the new use case.

Question 60

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for:

Options:

A.

data classification and labeling.

B.

data logging and monitoring.

C.

data retention and destruction.

D.

data mining and analytics.

Question 61

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether risk management is aligned with its goals and objectives?

Options:

A.

The organization has approved policies that provide operational boundaries.

B.

Organizational controls are in place to effectively manage risk appetite.

C.

Environmental changes that impact risk are continually evaluated.

D.

The organization has an approved enterprise architecture (EA) program.

Question 62

The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:

Options:

A.

reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.

B.

identify compensating controls.

C.

minimize residual risk.

D.

reduce risk factors.

Question 63

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to aggregate risk assessment results from different business units?

Options:

A.

To improve communication of risk to senior management

B.

To compare risk profiles across the business units

C.

To allocate budget for risk management resources

D.

To determine overall impact to the organization

Question 64

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

Options:

A.

Reducing the need for audit reviews

B.

Facilitating continuous control monitoring

C.

Improving control process efficiency

D.

Complying with functional requirements

Question 65

Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results

B.

Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments

C.

A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed

D.

The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results

Question 66

An engineer has been assigned to conduct data restoration after a server storage failure. However, the procedure was not successful. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Failure to prepare a business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Insufficient data captured in the business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Insufficient definition of the recovery point objective (RPO)

Question 67

After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

A decrease in threats

B.

A change in the risk profile

C.

An increase in reported vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in identified risk scenarios

Question 68

A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization'senterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?

Options:

A.

Align applications to business processes.

B.

Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).

C.

Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.

Question 69

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

B.

assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

C.

benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.

D.

facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

Question 70

Which of the following BEST informs decision-makers about the value of a notice and consent control for the collection of personal information?

Options:

A.

A comparison of the costs of notice and consent control options

B.

Examples of regulatory fines incurred by industry peers for noncompliance

C.

A report of critical controls showing the importance of notice and consent

D.

A cost-benefit analysis of the control versus probable legal action

Question 71

Which of the following controls will BEST detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator?

Options:

A.

Reviewing database access rights

B.

Reviewing database activity logs

C.

Comparing data to input records

D.

Reviewing changes to edit checks

Question 72

Which of the following events is MOST likely to trigger the need to conduct a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

An incident resulting in data loss

B.

Changes in executive management

C.

Updates to the information security policy

D.

Introduction of a new product line

Question 73

What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

Options:

A.

Relative positions on the risk map

B.

Risk treatment options

C.

Capability of enterprise to implement

D.

The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response

Question 74

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

Question 75

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

Question 76

To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?

Options:

A.

Threshold definition

B.

Escalation procedures

C.

Automated data feed

D.

Controls monitoring

Question 77

Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?

Options:

A.

The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.

B.

The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

The risk response is accounted for in the budget.

D.

The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.

Question 78

Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?

Options:

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Executive management team

C.

Audit committee

D.

Business process owner

Question 79

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when a shadow IT application is identified in a business owner's business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Include the application in the business continuity plan (BCP).

B.

Determine the business purpose of the application.

C.

Segregate the application from the network.

D.

Report the finding to management.

Question 80

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

Options:

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

Question 81

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 82

Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?

Options:

A.

Risk self-assessment

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk map

Question 83

After identifying new risk events during a project, the project manager s NEXT step should be to:

Options:

A.

determine if the scenarios need 10 be accepted or responded to.

B.

record the scenarios into the risk register.

C.

continue with a qualitative risk analysis.

D.

continue with a quantitative risk analysis.

Question 84

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

Question 85

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment?

Options:

A.

Risk and control self-assessment (CSA) reports

B.

Information generated by the systems

C.

Control environment narratives

D.

Confirmation from industry peers

Question 86

Which of the following is the MOST important component of effective security incident response?

Options:

A.

Network time protocol synchronization

B.

Identification of attack sources

C.

Early detection of breaches

D.

A documented communications plan

Question 87

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process

B.

Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives

C.

Number of current test plans and procedures

D.

Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test

Question 88

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?

Options:

A.

Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions

B.

Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options

C.

Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options

D.

Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.

Question 89

What would be MOST helpful to ensuring the effective implementation of a new cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

Creating metrics to report the number of security incidents

B.

Hiring subject matter experts for the program

C.

Establishing a budget for additional resources

D.

Assigning clear ownership of the program

Question 90

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

Options:

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

Question 91

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Perform root cause analysis.

C.

Initiate disciplinary action.

D.

Update the incident response plan.

Question 92

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Peer benchmarks

B.

Internal audit reports

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Threat analysis results

Question 93

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct risk assessments at periodic intervals?

Options:

A.

To ensure emerging risk is identified and monitored

B.

To establish the maturity level of risk assessment processes

C.

To promote a risk-aware culture among staff

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

Question 94

Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios

B.

IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team

C.

Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.

D.

IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.

Question 95

The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:

Options:

A.

facilitate resource availability.

B.

help ensure objectives are met.

C.

safeguard corporate assets.

D.

help prevent operational losses.

Question 96

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user's workstation?

Options:

A.

An antivirus program

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Firewall log monitoring

D.

File integrity monitoring

Question 97

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a potential threat?

Options:

A.

Increase in identified system vulnerabilities

B.

Ineffective risk treatment plans

C.

Excessive policy and standard exceptions

D.

Excessive activity in system logs

Question 98

Which of the following is the BEST way to protect sensitive data from administrators within a public cloud?

Options:

A.

Use an encrypted tunnel lo connect to the cloud.

B.

Encrypt the data in the cloud database.

C.

Encrypt physical hard drives within the cloud.

D.

Encrypt data before it leaves the organization.

Question 99

Which of the following BEST enables senior management lo compare the ratings of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Risk heat map

Question 100

Which of the following is a detective control?

Options:

A.

Limit check

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Access control software

D.

Rerun procedures

Question 101

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Identifying critical information assets

B.

Identifying events impacting continuity of operations.

C.

Creating a data classification scheme

D.

Analyzing previous risk assessment results

Question 102

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:

Options:

A.

accountable for the affected processes.

B.

members of senior management.

C.

authorized to select risk mitigation options.

D.

independent from the business operations.

Question 103

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Vulnerability analysis

C.

Scenario analysis

D.

Heat map analysis

Question 104

A highly regulated enterprise is developing a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios What should be done FIRST by IT governance to support this effort?

Options:

A.

Request a regulatory risk reporting methodology

B.

Require critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks.

C.

Establish IT-specific compliance objectives

D.

Communicate IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers

Question 105

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

Options:

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

Question 106

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which ot the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

Question 107

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated?

Options:

A.

Implement controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk.

B.

Implement a key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the existing control performance.

C.

Accept the residual risk in its entirety and obtain executive management approval.

D.

Separate the risk into multiple components and avoid the risk components that cannot be mitigated.

Question 108

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?

Options:

A.

Increase in the frequency of changes

B.

Percent of unauthorized changes

C.

Increase in the number of emergency changes

D.

Average time to complete changes

Question 109

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY focus when key risk indicators (KRIs) begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds?

Options:

A.

Designing compensating controls

B.

Determining if KRIs have been updated recently

C.

Assessing the effectiveness of the incident response plan

D.

Determining what has changed in the environment

Question 110

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

Question 111

Which type of indicators should be developed to measure the effectiveness of an organization's firewall rule set?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key management indicators (KMIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

Question 112

In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is MOST important for the emergency response team members to understand:

Options:

A.

system architecture in target areas.

B.

IT management policies and procedures.

C.

business objectives of the organization.

D.

defined roles and responsibilities.

Question 113

An organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries?

Options:

A.

The volume of risk scenarios is too large

B.

Risk aggregation has not been completed

C.

Risk scenarios are not applicable

D.

The risk analysts for each scenario is incomplete

Question 114

An identified high probability risk scenario involving a critical, proprietary business function has an annualized cost of control higher than the annual loss expectancy. Which of the following is the BEST risk response?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoid

Question 115

To help ensure the success of a major IT project, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

obtain the appropriate stakeholders' commitment.

B.

align the project with the IT risk framework.

C.

obtain approval from business process owners.

D.

update the risk register on a regular basis.

Question 116

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Developing contingency plans for key processes

B.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register

D.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 117

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

Options:

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

Question 118

Performing a background check on a new employee candidate before hiring is an example of what type of control?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Compensating

C.

Corrective

D.

Preventive

Question 119

Which of the following is the BEST approach for determining whether a risk action plan is effective?

Options:

A.

Comparing the remediation cost against budget

B.

Assessing changes in residual risk

C.

Assessing the inherent risk

D.

Monitoring changes of key performance indicators(KPIs)

Question 120

A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.

B.

identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.

C.

modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.

D.

collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.

Question 121

An IT department has provided a shared drive for personnel to store information to which all employees have access. Which of the following parties is accountable for the risk of potential loss of confidential information?

Options:

A.

Risk manager

B.

Data owner

C.

End user

D.

IT department

Question 122

A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk impact

Question 123

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?

Options:

A.

To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management

B.

To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization

C.

To assign a risk owner to manage the risk

D.

To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk

Question 124

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

Question 125

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

Options:

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

Question 126

A business impact analysis (BIA) has documented the duration of maximum allowable outage for each of an organization's applications. Which of the following MUST be aligned with the maximum allowable outage?

Options:

A.

Mean time to restore (MTTR)

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

C.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Mean time to detect (MTTD)

Question 127

An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement

B.

Customer service reviews

C.

Scope of services provided

D.

Right to audit the provider

Question 128

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

Question 129

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

Options:

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

Question 130

Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability and threat analysis

B.

Control remediation planning

C.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

Question 131

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the confidentiality of data in the event of a data breach within a Software as a Service (SaaS) environment?

Options:

A.

Vendor's information security officer

B.

Customer's data privacy officer

C.

Customer's data owner

D.

Vendor's application owner

Question 132

A vendor’s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

Options:

A.

Business application owner

B.

Business continuity manager

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

IT infrastructure manager

Question 133

The software version of an enterprise's critical business application has reached end-of-life and is no longer supported by the vendor. IT has decided to develop an in-house replacement application. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

The system documentation is not available.

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) has not approved the decision.

C.

The board of directors has not approved the decision.

D.

The business process owner is not an active participant.

Question 134

An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.

C.

Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.

D.

Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained

Question 135

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

Question 136

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

Question 137

The MAIN goal of the risk analysis process is to determine the:

Options:

A.

potential severity of impact

B.

frequency and magnitude of loss

C.

control deficiencies

D.

threats and vulnerabilities

Question 138

During the creation of an organization's IT risk management program, the BEST time to identify key risk indicators (KRIs) is while:

Options:

A.

Interviewing data owners

B.

Reviewing risk response plans with internal audit

C.

Developing a risk monitoring process

D.

Reviewing an external risk assessment

Question 139

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

Options:

A.

The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

B.

The number of resolved security incidents

C.

The number of newly identified security incidents

D.

The number of recurring security incidents

Question 140

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

Options:

A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

Question 141

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

Question 142

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to identify the consequences of losing critical resources due to a disaster?

Options:

A.

Risk management action plans

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

What-if technique

D.

Tabletop exercise results

Question 143

An organization is planning to outsource its payroll function to an external service provider Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when selecting the provider?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the system

B.

Right to audit the provider

C.

Internal controls to ensure data privacy

D.

Transparency of key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 144

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

Question 145

A risk action plan has been changed during the risk mitigation effort. Which of the following is MOST important for the risk practitioner to verify?

Options:

A.

Impact of the change on inherent risk

B.

Approval for the change by the risk owner

C.

Business rationale for the change

D.

Risk to the mitigation effort due to the change

Question 146

Which of the following situations would BEST justify escalation to senior management?

Options:

A.

Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits.

B.

Residual risk is inadequately recorded.

C.

Residual risk remains after controls have been applied.

D.

Residual risk equals current risk.

Question 147

An organization has been experiencing an increasing number of spear phishing attacks Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to mitigate the risk associated with these attacks?

Options:

A.

Update firewall configuration

B.

Require strong password complexity

C.

implement a security awareness program

D.

Implement two-factor authentication

Question 148

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

Question 149

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk of relying on artificial intelligence (Al) within heuristic security systems?

Options:

A.

Al may result in less reliance on human intervention.

B.

Malicious activity may inadvertently be classified as normal during baselining.

C.

Risk assessments of heuristic security systems are more difficult.

D.

Predefined patterns of malicious activity may quickly become outdated.

Question 150

The MOST important objective of information security controls is to:

Options:

A.

Identify threats and vulnerability

B.

Ensure alignment with industry standards

C.

Provide measurable risk reduction

D.

Enforce strong security solutions

Question 151

Options:

A.

Internal email communications are not encrypted.

B.

Data transmission within the corporate network is not encrypted.

C.

Internally created documents are not automatically classified.

D.

Data transmission across public networks is not encrypted.

Question 152

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when awarding a project to a third-party service provider whose servers are located offshore?

Options:

A.

Difficulty of monitoring compliance due to geographical distance

B.

Cost implications due to installation of network intrusion detection systems (IDSs)

C.

Delays in incident communication

D.

Potential impact on data governance

Question 153

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

Question 154

Following the implementation of an Internet of Things (loT) solution, a risk practitioner identifies new risk factors with impact to existing controls. Which of the following is MOST important to include in a report to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Identified vulnerabilities

B.

Business managers' concerns

C.

Changes to residual risk

D.

Risk strategies of peer organizations

Question 155

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

Options:

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

Question 156

Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?

Options:

A.

Cost of implementation

B.

Implementation of unproven applications

C.

Disruption to business processes

D.

Increase in attack surface area

Question 157

The PRIMARY reason for periodically monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

rectify errors in results of KRIs.

B.

detect changes in the risk profile.

C.

reduce costs of risk mitigation controls.

D.

continually improve risk assessments.

Question 158

An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?

Options:

A.

Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.

B.

Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.

C.

Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.

D.

Transfer a read-only version of the data.

Question 159

Which of the following outcomes of disaster recovery planning is MOST important to enable the initiation of necessary actions during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Definition of disaster recovery plan (DRP) scope and key stakeholders

B.

Recovery time and maximum acceptable data loss thresholds

C.

A checklist including equipment, location of data backups, and backup sites

D.

A list of business areas and critical functions subject to risk analysis

Question 160

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate privileged access to database accounts?

Options:

A.

Regular reviews of privileged access

B.

Confirmation from users with privileged access

C.

Management approval of access requests

D.

Confirmation from the database administrator (DBA)

Question 161

During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process. Which of the following would enable the MOST effective management of the residual risk?

Options:

A.

Schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls' effectiveness.

B.

Report the use of compensating controls to senior management.

C.

Recommend additional IT controls to further reduce residual risk.

D.

Request that ownership of the compensating controls is reassigned to IT

Question 162

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

Options:

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 163

Which of the following has the GREATEST positive impact on ethical compliance within the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Senior management demonstrates ethics in their day-to-day decision making.

B.

An independent ethics investigation team has been established.

C.

Employees are required to complete ethics training courses annually.

D.

The risk practitioner is required to consult with the ethics committee.

Question 164

During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:

Options:

A.

reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic

B.

analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives

C.

analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives

D.

sniff the traffic using a network analyzer

Question 165

Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?

Options:

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Data backups

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 166

An organization's financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?

Options:

A.

IT risk manager

B.

IT system owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business owner

Question 167

An organization has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days' leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Percentage of staff turnover following five consecutive days of leave

B.

Average number of consecutive days of leave per staff member

C.

Number of suspected malicious activities reported since policy implementation

D.

Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities since policy implementation

Question 168

An organization is outsourcing a key database to be hosted by an external service provider. Who is BEST suited to assess the impact of potential data loss?

Options:

A.

Database manager

B.

Public relations manager

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Business manager

Question 169

The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:

Options:

A.

to achieve the desired level of maturity.

B.

the materiality of the risk.

C.

the ability to mitigate risk.

D.

the cost of the control.

Question 170

What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Ensure compliance.

B.

Identify trends.

C.

Promote a risk-aware culture.

D.

Optimize resources needed for controls

Question 171

Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result of the decrease in risk appetite due to a new privacy regulation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Risk trends

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk objectives

Question 172

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Evaluating risk impact

B.

Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Conducting internal audits

D.

Creating quarterly risk reports

Question 173

Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk manager's expertise

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Board of directors' expertise

D.

The organization's culture

Question 174

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

Options:

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

Question 175

Which of the following is MOST important to determine as a result of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Process ownership

B.

Risk appetite statement

C.

Risk tolerance levels

D.

Risk response options

Question 176

Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Expected frequency and potential impact

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment

D.

Risk appetite

Question 177

An organization has adopted an emerging technology without following proper processes. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action to address this risk?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk because the technology has already been adopted.

B.

Propose a transfer of risk to a third party with subsequent monitoring.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine risk exposure.

D.

Recommend to senior management to decommission the technology.

Question 178

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

Options:

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

Question 179

An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on theorganization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?

Options:

A.

Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.

B.

Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.

C.

Use a secure channel to transmit the files.

D.

Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.

Question 180

Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?

Options:

A.

Threat to IT

B.

Number of control failures

C.

Impact on business

D.

Risk ownership

Question 181

The BEST reason to classify IT assets during a risk assessment is to determine the:

Options:

A.

priority in the risk register.

B.

business process owner.

C.

enterprise risk profile.

D.

appropriate level of protection.

Question 182

During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?

Options:

A.

Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.

B.

Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.

C.

Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.

D.

Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.

Question 183

A financial organization is considering a project to implement the use of blockchain technology. To help ensure the organization's management team can make informed decisions on the project, which of the following should the risk practitioner reassess?

Options:

A.

Risk classification

B.

Risk profile

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 184

Which of the following metrics is BEST used to communicate to senior management that the control environment manages risk within appetite and tolerance?

Options:

A.

Number of security incidents

B.

Reduction in control expenditures

C.

Number of risk responses executed

D.

Reduction in residual risk

Question 185

A risk manager has determined there is excessive risk with a particular technology. Who is the BEST person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology?

Options:

A.

IT system owner

B.

Chief financial officer

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

Business process owner

Question 186

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

Options:

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

Question 187

An organization has contracted with a cloud service provider to support the deployment of a new product. Of the following, who should own the associated risk?

Options:

A.

The head of enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

The IT risk manager

C.

The information security manager

D.

The product owner

Question 188

Which of the following would have the GREATEST impact on reducing the risk associated with the implementation of a big data project?

Options:

A.

Data processing

B.

Data quality

C.

Data scalability

D.

Data governance

Question 189

Which of the following BEST indicates that risk management is embedded into the responsibilities of all employees?

Options:

A.

The number of incidents has decreased over time

B.

Industry benchmarking is performed on an annual basis

C.

Risk management practices are audited on an annual basis

D.

Risk management practices are incorporated into business processes

Question 190

In an organization where each division manages risk independently, which of the following would BEST enable management of risk at the enterprise level?

Options:

A.

A standardized risk taxonomy

B.

A list of control deficiencies

C.

An enterprise risk ownership policy

D.

An updated risk tolerance metric

Question 191

A recent big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Data quality

B.

Maintenance costs

C.

Data redundancy

D.

System integration

Question 192

A penetration testing team discovered an ineffectively designed access control. Who is responsible for ensuring the control design gap is remediated?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

IT security manager

D.

Control operator

Question 193

A failed IT system upgrade project has resulted in the corruption of an organization's asset inventory database. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates the impact of this incident?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Authentication

C.

Configuration

D.

Backups

Question 194

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

Options:

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

Question 195

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

Question 196

Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:

Options:

A.

it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.

B.

structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.

C.

structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.

D.

technical specifications are defined during this phase.

Question 197

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

Options:

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

Question 198

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of having a single integrated business continuity plan (BCP) rather than each business unit developing its own BCP?

Options:

A.

It provides assurance of timely business process response and effectiveness.

B.

It supports effective use of resources and provides reasonable confidence of recoverability.

C.

It enables effective BCP maintenance and updates to reflect organizational changes.

D.

It decreases the risk of downtime and operational losses in the event of a disruption.

Question 199

Which of the following is MOST helpful in developing key risk indicator (KRl) thresholds?

Options:

A.

Loss expectancy information

B.

Control performance predictions

C.

IT service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Remediation activity progress

Question 200

Which of the following is the MOST significant indicator of the need to perform a penetration test?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of high-risk audit findings

B.

An increase in the number of security incidents

C.

An increase in the percentage of turnover in IT personnel

D.

An increase in the number of infrastructure changes

Question 201

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for prioritizing risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Cost of risk mitigation

B.

Asset criticality

C.

Acceptable risk level

D.

Business impact assessment

Question 202

Several network user accounts were recently created without the required management approvals. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Conduct a comprehensive compliance review.

B.

Develop incident response procedures for noncompliance.

C.

Investigate the root cause of noncompliance.

D.

Declare a security breach and Inform management.

Question 203

After conducting a risk assessment for regulatory compliance, an organization has identified only one possible mitigating control. The cost of the control has been determined to be higher than the penalty of noncompliance. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk with management sign-off.

B.

Ignore the risk until the regulatory body conducts a compliance check.

C.

Mitigate the risk with the identified control.

D.

Transfer the risk by buying insurance.

Question 204

While conducting an organization-wide risk assessment, it is noted that many of the information security policies have not changed in the past three years. The BEST course of action is to:

Options:

A.

review and update the policies to align with industry standards.

B.

determine that the policies should be updated annually.

C.

report that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently.

D.

review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy.

Question 205

A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Recommend avoiding the risk.

B.

Validate the risk response with internal audit.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Evaluate outsourcing the process.

Question 206

A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization's use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a gap analysis.

B.

Terminate the outsourcing agreement.

C.

Identify compensating controls.

D.

Transfer risk to the third party.

Question 207

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation when a key risk indicator (KRI) is generating an excessive volume of events?

Options:

A.

Reevaluate the design of the KRIs.

B.

Develop a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Monitor KRIs within a specific timeframe.

D.

Activate the incident response plan.

Question 208

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

Question 209

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

Question 210

Options:

A.

Average time to contain security incidents

B.

Percentage of systems being monitored

C.

Number of false positives reported

D.

Number of personnel dedicated to security monitoring

Question 211

Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off?

Options:

A.

Residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated.

B.

Inherent risk is too high, resulting in the cancellation of an initiative.

C.

Risk appetite has changed to align with organizational objectives.

D.

Residual risk remains at the same level over time without further mitigation.

Question 212

Which of the following BEST indicates that additional or improved controls ate needed m the environment?

Options:

A.

Management, has decreased organisational risk appetite

B.

The risk register and portfolio do not include all risk scenarios

C.

merging risk scenarios have been identified

D.

Risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance

Question 213

The BEST way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy is

to review:

Options:

A.

change logs.

B.

configuration settings.

C.

server access logs.

D.

anti-malware compliance.

Question 214

A company has recently acquired a customer relationship management (CRM) application from a certified software vendor. Which of the following will BE ST help lo prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploded?

Options:

A.

implement code reviews and Quality assurance on a regular basis

B.

Verity me software agreement indemnifies the company from losses

C.

Review the source coda and error reporting of the application

D.

Update the software with the latest patches and updates

Question 215

An organization has initiated a project to implement an IT risk management program for the first time. The BEST time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when:

Options:

A.

identifying risk scenarios.

B.

determining the risk strategy.

C.

calculating impact and likelihood.

D.

completing the controls catalog.

Question 216

Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?

Options:

A.

IT security manager

B.

IT personnel

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

Question 217

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

Options:

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

Question 218

Options:

A.

Conduct targeted risk assessments.

B.

Recommend management accept the low risk scenarios.

C.

Assess management's risk tolerance.

D.

Propose mitigating controls.

Question 219

Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plans

B.

Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts

C.

Establishing risk policies and standards

D.

Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results

Question 220

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

Question 221

A cote data center went offline abruptly for several hours affecting many transactions across multiple locations. Which of the to" owing would provide the MOST useful information to determine mitigating controls?

Options:

A.

Forensic analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BlA)

Question 222

Which key performance efficiency IKPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of service level agreement (SLA) violations

B.

Percentage of recovery issues identified during the exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within tie recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within tie recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 223

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

Question 224

Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?

Options:

A.

Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities

B.

Determining attack likelihood per business unit

C.

Adjusting business unit risk tolerances

D.

Customizing incident response plans for each business unit

Question 225

Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?

Options:

A.

Customized regional training on local laws and regulations

B.

Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions

C.

Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture

D.

Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers

Question 226

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

Options:

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

Question 227

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

Options:

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

Question 228

Which of the following potential scenarios associated with the implementation of a new database technology presents the GREATEST risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources.

B.

Application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget.

C.

Data may not be recoverable due to system failures.

D.

The database system may not be scalable in the future.

Question 229

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

Options:

A.

Organization's information security manager

B.

Organization's risk function

C.

Service provider's IT management

D.

Service provider's information security manager

Question 230

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

Options:

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

Question 231

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?

Options:

A.

To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors

B.

To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk

C.

To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance

D.

To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions

Question 232

Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?

Options:

A.

information security manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Risk owner

D.

Risk manager

Question 233

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for communicating current levels of IT-related risk to executive management?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk action plans

Question 234

In addition to the risk exposure, which of the following is MOST important for senior management to understand prior to approving the use of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions?

Options:

A.

Potential benefits from use of Al solutions

B.

Monitoring techniques required for AI solutions

C.

Changes to existing infrastructure to support Al solutions

D.

Skills required to support Al solutions

Question 235

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

Options:

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

Question 236

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

Question 237

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?

Options:

A.

Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register

B.

Updating impact assessments for risk scenario

C.

Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed

D.

Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)

Question 238

Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

Question 239

Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.

B.

The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.

C.

The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.

D.

The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.

Question 240

Which of the following scenarios is MOST important to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

Accepted risk scenarios with detailed plans for monitoring

B.

Risk scenarios that have been shared with vendors and third parties

C.

Accepted risk scenarios with impact exceeding the risk tolerance

D.

Risk scenarios that have been identified, assessed, and responded to by the risk owners

Question 241

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

Options:

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

Question 242

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important course of action when the level of risk has exceeded risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Facilitate a review of risk tolerance levels

B.

Adjust the risk impact and likelihood scale

C.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Introduce the risk treatment process

Question 243

A new regulator/ requirement imposes severe fines for data leakage involving customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). The risk practitioner has recommended avoiding the risk. Which of the following actions would BEST align with this recommendation?

Options:

A.

Reduce retention periods for Pll data.

B.

Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site.

C.

Modify business processes to stop collecting Pll.

D.

Implement strong encryption for Pll.

Question 244

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

Options:

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

Question 245

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

B.

Update the risk register with the results.

C.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

D.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

Question 246

Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?

Options:

A.

Enforcing employees’ sanctions

B.

Conducting phishing exercises

C.

Enforcing segregation of dunes

D.

Reviewing the organization's risk appetite

Question 247

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing an overview of an organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk management treatment plan

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Risk management framework

D.

Risk register

Question 248

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?

Options:

A.

Ongoing availability of data

B.

Ability to aggregate data

C.

Ability to predict trends

D.

Availability of automated reporting systems

Question 249

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?

Options:

A.

Standards-based policies

B.

Audit readiness

C.

Efficient operations

D.

Regulatory compliance

Question 250

The PRIMARY objective of the board of directors periodically reviewing the risk profile is to help ensure:

Options:

A.

the risk strategy is appropriate

B.

KRIs and KPIs are aligned

C.

performance of controls is adequate

D.

the risk monitoring process has been established

Question 251

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's existing controls?

Options:

A.

Senior management has approved the control design.

B.

Inherent risk has been reduced from original levels.

C.

Residual risk remains within acceptable levels.

D.

Costs for control maintenance are reasonable.

Question 252

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

Options:

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 253

When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?

Options:

A.

Perform a background check on the vendor.

B.

Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Require the vendor to have liability insurance.

D.

Clearly define the project scope

Question 254

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

Options:

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

Question 255

The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is owned by the:

Options:

A.

security department.

B.

business unit

C.

vendor.

D.

IT department.

Question 256

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

Options:

A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

Question 257

Implementing which of the following controls would BEST reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited?

Options:

A.

Detective control

B.

Deterrent control

C.

Preventive control

D.

Corrective control

Question 258

An IT operations team implements disaster recovery controls based on decisions from application owners regarding the level of resiliency needed. Who is the risk owner in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Business resilience manager

B.

Disaster recovery team lead

C.

Application owner

D.

IT operations manager

Question 259

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

Options:

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

Question 260

An organization has recently updated its disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk if the new plan is not tested?

Options:

A.

External resources may need to be involved.

B.

Data privacy regulations may be violated.

C.

Recovery costs may increase significantly.

D.

Service interruptions may be longer than anticipated.

Question 261

A PRIMARY function of the risk register is to provide supporting information for the development of an organization's risk:

Options:

A.

strategy.

B.

profile.

C.

process.

D.

map.

Question 262

Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the enterprise architecture

B.

Cost of control implementation

C.

Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)

Question 263

Concerned about system load capabilities during the month-end close process, management requires monitoring of the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings. What type of measure has been established?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Critical success factor (CSF)

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

Question 264

Whose risk tolerance matters MOST when making a risk decision?

Options:

A.

Customers who would be affected by a breach

B.

Auditors, regulators and standards organizations

C.

The business process owner of the exposed assets

D.

The information security manager

Question 265

Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Robust organizational communication channels

B.

Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy

C.

Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks

D.

Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)

Question 266

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

Question 267

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the potential organizational impact of emerging privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security architecture maturity.

B.

Map the new requirements to the existing control framework.

C.

Charter a privacy steering committee.

D.

Conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

Question 268

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

Question 269

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

Options:

A.

organizational risk appetite.

B.

business sector best practices.

C.

business process requirements.

D.

availability of automated solutions

Question 270

While reviewing an organization's monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

B.

Document the control deficiency in the risk register.

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Continue monitoring change management metrics.

Question 271

Prior to selecting key performance indicators (KPIs), itis MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

trending data is available.

B.

process flowcharts are current.

C.

measurement objectives are defined.

D.

data collection technology is available.

Question 272

Participants in a risk workshop have become focused on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this type of issue in the long term?

Options:

A.

Perform a return on investment analysis.

B.

Review the risk register and risk scenarios.

C.

Calculate annualized loss expectancy of risk scenarios.

D.

Raise the maturity of organizational risk management.

Question 273

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

Question 274

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

Options:

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

Question 275

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 276

When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?

Options:

A.

identification of control requirements

B.

Alignment to business objectives

C.

Consideration of new business strategies

D.

inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance

Question 277

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

Question 278

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when a company is made aware of new regulatory requirements impacting IT?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Prioritize impact to the business units.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Review the risk tolerance and appetite.

Question 279

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan's implementation?

Options:

A.

Increased number of controls

B.

Reduced risk level

C.

Increased risk appetite

D.

Stakeholder commitment

Question 280

An external security audit has reported multiple findings related to control noncompliance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

A recommendation for internal audit validation

B.

Plans for mitigating the associated risk

C.

Suggestions for improving risk awareness training

D.

The impact to the organization’s risk profile

Question 281

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Number of training sessions completed

B.

Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score

C.

Percentage of attendees versus total staff

D.

Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback

Question 282

Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern associated with the

use of artificial intelligence (Al) systems?

Options:

A.

Al systems need to be available continuously.

B.

Al systems can be affected by bias.

C.

Al systems are expensive to maintain.

D.

Al systems can provide false positives.

Question 283

To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and ERM, it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:

Options:

A.

Risk impact and likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Risk response plans and owners

Question 284

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Fiscal management practices

B.

Business maturity

C.

Budget for implementing security

D.

Management culture

Question 285

Which types of controls are BEST used to minimize the risk associated with a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Preventive

C.

Deterrent

D.

Directive

Question 286

Which of the following is the MOST important driver of an effective enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

Risk policy

B.

Risk committee

C.

Risk culture

D.

Risk management plan

Question 287

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

Options:

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

Question 288

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action to foster an ethical, risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Implement a fraud detection and prevention framework.

B.

Ensure the alignment of the organization's policies and standards to the defined risk appetite.

C.

Establish an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program.

D.

Perform a comprehensive review of all applicable legislative frameworks and requirements.

Question 289

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increased volume of online transactions on a retailer website?

Options:

A.

Hot backup site

B.

Transaction limits

C.

Scalable infrastructure

D.

Website activity monitoring

Question 290

Which of the following analyses is MOST useful for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets?

Options:

A.

SWOT analysis

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 291

An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

Options:

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

Question 292

When of the following is the MOST significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database?

Options:

A.

Users may share accounts with business system analyst

B.

Application may not capture a complete audit trail.

C.

Users may be able to circumvent application controls.

D.

Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process

Question 293

A global organization is planning to collect customer behavior data through social media advertising. Which of the following is the MOST important business risk to be considered?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements may differ in each country.

B.

Data sampling may be impacted by various industry restrictions.

C.

Business advertising will need to be tailored by country.

D.

The data analysis may be ineffective in achieving objectives.

Question 294

An organization mandates the escalation of a service ticket when a key application is offline for 5 minutes or more due to potential risk exposure. The risk practitioner has been asked by management to prepare a report of application offline times using both 3- and 5-minute thresholds. What does the 3-minute threshold represent?

Options:

A.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

B.

Key Risk Indicator (KRI)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Key Performance Indicator (KPI)

Question 295

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

Question 296

Which of the following is MOST important requirement to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor contract to ensure data is protected?

Options:

A.

The vendor must provide periodic independent assurance reports.

B.

The vendor must host data in a specific geographic location.

C.

The vendor must be held liable for regulatory fines for failure to protect data.

D.

The vendor must participate in an annual vendor performance review.

Question 297

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of executive management's support for IT risk mitigation efforts?

Options:

A.

The number of stakeholders involved in IT risk identification workshops

B.

The percentage of corporate budget allocated to IT risk activities

C.

The percentage of incidents presented to the board

D.

The number of executives attending IT security awareness training

Question 298

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

Placement on the risk map

C.

Degree of variances in the risk

D.

Cost of risk mitigation

Question 299

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk map with stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Consolidates risk response options by severity

B.

Aligns risk appetite with business objectives

C.

Correlates risk scenarios to risk appetite

D.

Defines an organizational risk taxonomy

Question 300

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate whether controls to reduce user device vulnerabilities have been implemented according to management's action plan?

Options:

A.

Survey device owners.

B.

Rescan the user environment.

C.

Require annual end user policy acceptance.

D.

Review awareness training assessment results

Question 301

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

Options:

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

Question 302

An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:

Options:

A.

immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops

B.

centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled

C.

report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.

D.

procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.

Question 303

Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?

Options:

A.

Identifying monitoring mechanisms

B.

Including them in the risk register

C.

Aligning them with business objectives

D.

Prototyping compensating controls

Question 304

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of promoting a risk-aware culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Better understanding of the risk appetite

B.

Improving audit results

C.

Enabling risk-based decision making

D.

Increasing process control efficiencies

Question 305

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Vulnerability analysis

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Scenario analysis

C.

Heat map analysis

Question 306

IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:

Options:

A.

for compliance with laws and regulations

B.

as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.

C.

as input for decision-making

D.

to measure organizational success.

Question 307

A global organization is considering the transfer of its customer information systems to an overseas cloud service provider in the event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

Options:

A.

Regulatory restrictions for cross-border data transfer

B.

Service level objectives in the vendor contract

C.

Organizational culture differences between each country

D.

Management practices within each company

Question 308

An organization's chief information officer (CIO) has proposed investing in a new. untested technology to take advantage of being first to market Senior management has concerns about the success of the project and has set a limit for expenditures before final approval. This conditional approval indicates the organization's risk:

Options:

A.

capacity.

B.

appetite.

C.

management capability.

D.

treatment strategy.

Question 309

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

Options:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

Question 310

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

Question 311

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?

Options:

A.

Lack of alignment to best practices

B.

Lack of risk assessment

C.

Lack of risk and control procedures

D.

Lack of management approval

Question 312

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?

Options:

A.

Perform a business case analysis

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)

D.

Build a provision for risk

Question 313

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting a root cause analysis following an incident?

Options:

A.

To reduce incident response times defined in SLAs

B.

To satisfy senior management expectations for incident response

C.

To ensure risk has been reduced to acceptable levels

D.

To minimize the likelihood of future occurrences

Question 314

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?

Options:

A.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

B.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

C.

There is a lack of technology recovery options.

D.

The applications are not captured in the risk profile.

Question 315

The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:

Options:

A.

develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy

B.

develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios

C.

identify root causes for relevant events

D.

perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis

Question 316

The PRIMARY purpose of using a framework for risk analysis is to:

Options:

A.

improve accountability

B.

improve consistency

C.

help define risk tolerance

D.

help develop risk scenarios.

Question 317

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following is the BEST way to promote a risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Emphasize individual responsibility for managing risk.

B.

Communicate incident escalation procedures.

C.

Illustrate methods to identify threats and vulnerabilities.

D.

Challenge the effectiveness of business processes.

Question 318

What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset

B.

Known emerging environmental threats

C.

Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer

D.

Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services

Question 319

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

Options:

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

Question 320

An organization has established a policy prohibiting ransom payments if subjected to a ransomware attack. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to support this policy?

Options:

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

B.

Creating immutable backups

C.

Performing required patching

D.

Implementing continuous intrusion detection monitoring

Question 321

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Scheduling periodic audits

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

Question 322

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?

Options:

A.

Promotion of a risk-aware culture

B.

Compilation of a comprehensive risk register

C.

Alignment of business activities

D.

Facilitation of risk-aware decision making

Question 323

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

Options:

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

Question 324

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

Options:

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

Question 325

An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the countrywhere it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?

Options:

A.

Analyze data protection methods.

B.

Understand data flows.

C.

Include a right-to-audit clause.

D.

Implement strong access controls.

Question 326

Options:

A.

Conduct frequent internal audits of IT systems.

B.

Review information from threat intelligence sources.

C.

Define a comprehensive set of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Document thorough IT risk scenarios in the risk register.

Question 327

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?

Options:

A.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

B.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

C.

Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.

D.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

Question 328

Which of the following BEST supports an accurate asset inventory system?

Options:

A.

Asset management metrics are aligned to industry benchmarks

B.

Organizational information risk controls are continuously monitored

C.

There are defined processes in place for onboarding assets

D.

The asset management team is involved in the budgetary planning process

Question 329

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRls) should be revised?

Options:

A.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

B.

An Increase In the number of risk threshold exceptions

C.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

D.

A decrease In the number of key performance indicators (KPls)

Question 330

A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Notify executive management.

B.

Analyze the impact to the organization.

C.

Update the IT risk register.

D.

Design IT risk mitigation plans.

Question 331

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager to exclude an in-scope system from a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Postpone the risk assessment.

B.

Facilitate the exception process.

C.

Accept the manager's request.

D.

Reject the manager's request.

Question 332

A technology company is developing a strategic artificial intelligence (Al)-driven application that has high potential business value. At what point should the enterprise risk profile be updated?

Options:

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon approval of the business case

C.

When user stories are developed

D.

During post-implementation review

Question 333

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the use of artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

Options:

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

Question 334

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

Options:

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Access control attestation

C.

Periodic job rotation

D.

Whistleblower program

Question 335

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

Question 336

Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?

Options:

A.

Risk maturity

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk culture

Question 337

An organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention The business owner challenges whether the situation is worth remediating Which of the following is the risk manager s BEST response'

Options:

A.

Identify the regulatory bodies that may highlight this gap

B.

Highlight news articles about data breaches

C.

Evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss

D.

Verify if competitors comply with a similar policy

Question 338

Following a review of a third-party vendor, it is MOST important for an organization to ensure:

Options:

A.

results of the review are accurately reported to management.

B.

identified findings are reviewed by the organization.

C.

results of the review are validated by internal audit.

D.

identified findings are approved by the vendor.

Question 339

Which of the following will be MOST effective in uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions?

Options:

A.

Digital signature

B.

Edit checks

C.

Encryption

D.

Multifactor authentication

Question 340

Which of the following is MOST helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Introducing an approved IT governance framework

B.

Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BlA)

D.

Implementing a risk classification system

Question 341

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

Options:

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

Question 342

The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:

Options:

A.

Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.

B.

Lagging indication of major information security incidents.

C.

Early indication of changes to required risk response.

D.

Insight into the performance of a monitored process.

Question 343

Which stakeholders are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Audit and compliance management

B.

The chief information officer (CIO) and the chief financial officer (CFO)

C.

Enterprise risk management and business process owners

D.

Executive management and the board of directors

Question 344

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

Question 345

To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should:

Options:

A.

continuously monitor the environment.

B.

develop key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

maintain a risk matrix.

D.

maintain a risk register.

Question 346

What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?

Options:

A.

Loss event frequency and magnitude

B.

The previous year's budget and actuals

C.

Industry benchmarks and standards

D.

Return on IT security-related investments

Question 347

A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment.

B.

Prevent the use of production data in the test environment

C.

De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.

D.

Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.

Question 348

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

Options:

A.

To assign control ownership of risk

B.

To provide a centralized view of risk

C.

To identify opportunities to transfer risk

D.

To mitigate organizational risk

Question 349

The PRIMARY objective of a risk identification process is to:

Options:

A.

evaluate how risk conditions are managed.

B.

determine threats and vulnerabilities.

C.

estimate anticipated financial impact of risk conditions.

D.

establish risk response options.

Question 350

A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Enterprise risk management framework

C.

Risk management policies

D.

Risk register

Question 351

Which of the following would MOST likely drive the need to review and update key performance indicators (KPIs) for critical IT assets?

Options:

A.

The outsourcing of related IT processes

B.

Outcomes of periodic risk assessments

C.

Changes in service level objectives

D.

Findings from continuous monitoring

Question 352

A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:

Options:

A.

mitigated

B.

accepted

C.

avoided

D.

deferred

Question 353

Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?

Options:

A.

Level of residual risk

B.

The results of a gap analysis

C.

IT alignment to business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 354

Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?

Options:

A.

Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)

C.

Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage

D.

Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements

Question 355

Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk associated with a new implementation of single sign-on?

Options:

A.

Inability to access key information

B.

Complex security administration

C.

User resistance to single sign-on

D.

Single point of failure

Question 356

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application?

Options:

A.

Review regular control testing results.

B.

Recommend a penetration test.

C.

Assess the risk to determine mitigation needed.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 357

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool

C.

Lack of senior management involvement

D.

Use of multiple risk registers

Question 358

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

Question 359

When determining the accuracy of a key risk indicator (KRI), it is MOST important that the indicator:

Options:

A.

is correlated to risk and tracks variances in the risk.

B.

is assigned to IT processes and projects with a low level of risk.

C.

has a high correlation with the process outcome.

D.

triggers response based on risk thresholds.

Question 360

Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Number of risk register entries

B.

Number of controls

C.

Level of financial support

D.

Amount of residual risk

Question 361

An information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control Who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The risk owner

C.

The control owner

D.

The audit manager

Question 362

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

Question 363

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk practitioner to embed risk management within the organization?

Options:

A.

Provide risk management feedback to key stakeholders.

B.

Collect and analyze risk data for report generation.

C.

Monitor and prioritize risk data according to the heat map.

D.

Engage key stakeholders in risk management practices.

Question 364

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

Options:

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

Question 365

Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Delayed removal of employee access

B.

Authorized administrative access to HR files

C.

Corruption of files due to malware

D.

Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack

Question 366

An organization is preparing to transfer a large number of customer service representatives to the sales department. Of the following, who is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access?

Options:

A.

IT service desk manager

B.

Sales manager

C.

Customer service manager

D.

Access control manager

Question 367

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure is MOST likely an example of:

Options:

A.

low risk tolerance.

B.

corporate culture misalignment.

C.

corporate culture alignment.

D.

high risk tolerance

Question 368

Which of the following criteria is MOST important when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data?

Options:

A.

The recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

The likelihood of a recurring attack

C.

The organization's risk tolerance

D.

The business significance of the information

Question 369

Senior leadership has set guidelines for the integration of a new acquisition. The guidelines allow for a variation in the level of risk-taking. The variation indicates which of the following risk management concepts?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk sensitivity

D.

Risk velocity

Question 370

Which of the following emerging technologies is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Internet of Things (IoT)

B.

Quantum computing

C.

Virtual reality (VR)

D.

Machine learning

Question 371

When creating a program to manage data privacy risk, which of the following is MOST important to ensure that the program is successful?

Options:

A.

Compliance with industry frameworks

B.

Alignment with applicable legal and regulatory requirements

C.

Approval of mitigating and compensating controls

D.

Adoption of mission and vision statements

Question 372

An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:

Options:

A.

avoided.

B.

accepted.

C.

mitigated.

D.

transferred.

Question 373

Which of the following indicates an organization follows IT risk management best practice?

Options:

A.

The risk register template uses an industry standard.

B.

The risk register is regularly updated.

C.

All fields in the risk register have been completed.

D.

Controls are listed against risk entries in the register.

Question 374

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?

Options:

A.

Frequency of anti-virus software updates

B.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

C.

Number of false positives detected over a period of time

D.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

Question 375

Options:

A.

Business information security officer

B.

Service level manager

C.

Business process manager

D.

Data center operations manager

Question 376

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

Options:

A.

only approved changes are implemented

B.

timely evaluation of change events

C.

an audit trail exists.

D.

that emergency changes are logged.

Question 377

Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?

Options:

A.

Periodic assessments

B.

Change management

C.

Awareness training

D.

Policy updates

Question 378

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when risk is found to be above the acceptable risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Review risk tolerance levels

B.

Maintain the current controls.

C.

Analyze the effectiveness of controls.

D.

Execute the risk response plan

Question 379

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?

Options:

A.

Requirements for regulatory obligations.

B.

Cost of control implementation.

C.

Effectiveness of risk treatment.

D.

Number of risk response options.

Question 380

Which of the following BEST measures the impact of business interruptions caused by an IT service outage?

Options:

A.

Sustained financial loss

B.

Cost of remediation efforts

C.

Duration of service outage

D.

Average time to recovery

Question 381

Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Human resources (HR)

C.

Risk management committee

D.

Audit committee

Question 382

The MAIN purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control:

Options:

A.

operates as intended.

B.

is being monitored.

C.

meets regulatory requirements.

D.

operates efficiently.

Question 383

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor's control environment?

Options:

A.

The report was provided directly from the vendor.

B.

The risk associated with multiple control gaps was accepted.

C.

The control owners disagreed with the auditor's recommendations.

D.

The controls had recurring noncompliance.

Question 384

The PRIMARY reason for prioritizing risk scenarios is to:

Options:

A.

provide an enterprise-wide view of risk

B.

support risk response tracking

C.

assign risk ownership

D.

facilitate risk response decisions.

Question 385

In order to determining a risk is under-controlled the risk practitioner will need to

Options:

A.

understand the risk tolerance

B.

monitor and evaluate IT performance

C.

identify risk management best practices

D.

determine the sufficiency of the IT risk budget

Question 386

Reviewing which of the following provides the BEST indication of an organizations risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk sharing strategy

B.

Risk transfer agreements

C.

Risk policies

D.

Risk assessments

Question 387

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

Question 388

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

Options:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

Question 389

Which of the following is MOST important to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider’s control environment is effective?

Options:

A.

Independent audit report

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

MOST important to update when an

D.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

Question 390

An organization's risk register contains a large volume of risk scenarios that senior management considers overwhelming. Which of the following would BEST help to improve the risk register?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the residual risk components

B.

Performing risk prioritization

C.

Validating the risk appetite level

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

Question 391

Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?

Options:

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

Question 392

Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk manager

C.

Control operator

D.

Risk treatment owner

Question 393

The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:

Options:

A.

risk scenarios.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk policy.

D.

risk appetite.

Question 394

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key performance indicator (KPI) to measure change management performance?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes implemented successfully

B.

Percentage of rejected change requests

C.

Number of after-hours emergency changes

D.

Number of change control requests

Question 395

Which of the following techniques is MOST helpful when quantifying the potential loss impact of cyber risk?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Security assessment

Question 396

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

Options:

A.

The organization's knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization's culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

Question 397

Which of the following is the MOST essential factor for managing risk in a highly dynamic environment?

Options:

A.

Ongoing sharing of information among industry peers

B.

Obtaining support from senior leadership

C.

Adhering to industry-recognized risk management standards

D.

Implementing detection and response measures

Question 398

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?

Options:

A.

Audit engagement letter

B.

Risk profile

C.

IT risk register

D.

Change control documentation

Question 399

A risk practitioner has been asked to assess the risk associated with a new critical application used by a financial process team that the risk practitioner was a member of two years ago. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this request?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment team may be overly confident of its ability to identify issues.

B.

The risk practitioner may be unfamiliar with recent application and process changes.

C.

The risk practitioner may still have access rights to the financial system.

D.

Participation in the risk assessment may constitute a conflict of interest.

Question 400

Risk mitigation procedures should include:

Options:

A.

buying an insurance policy.

B.

acceptance of exposures

C.

deployment of counter measures.

D.

enterprise architecture implementation.

Question 401

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

Question 402

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

Options:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

Question 403

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

B.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

C.

Determine the root cause of the control failures.

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

Question 404

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

Options:

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

Question 405

The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:

Options:

A.

encrypting the data

B.

including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract

C.

assessing the data classification scheme

D.

reviewing CSP access privileges

Question 406

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for measuring the security of a blockchain network?

Options:

A.

Number of active nodes

B.

Blockchain size in gigabytes

C.

Average transaction speed

D.

Number of validated transactions

Question 407

Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Administrative controls

C.

Technical controls

D.

Preventive controls

Question 408

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

Question 409

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

Question 410

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

Options:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

Question 411

Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?

Options:

A.

Risk policy requirements

B.

A risk register

C.

Control self-assessment

D.

Key performance Indicators

Question 412

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

Question 413

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

Options:

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

Question 414

An organization's Internet-facing server was successfully attacked because the server did not have the latest security patches. The risk associated with poor patch management had been documented in the risk register and accepted. Who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Server administrator

D.

Risk practitioner

Question 415

An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner's BEST course of action is to:

Options:

A.

identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring

B.

validate the CTO's decision with the business process owner

C.

update the risk register with the selected risk response

D.

recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.

Question 416

Who should be accountable for monitoring the control environment to ensure controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security monitoring operations

C.

Impacted data owner

D.

System owner

Question 417

Which of the following will BEST support management reporting on risk?

Options:

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Risk policy requirements

C.

A risk register

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 418

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party?

Options:

A.

Obtain objective assessment of the control environment.

B.

Ensure the risk profile is defined and communicated.

C.

Validate the threat management process.

D.

Obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors.

Question 419

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Systems log correlation analysis

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Monitoring of intrusion detection system (IDS) alerts

Question 420

An organization uses one centralized single sign-on (SSO) control to cover many applications. Which of the following is the BEST course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed?

Options:

A.

Initiate a retest of the full control

B.

Retest the control using the new application as the only sample.

C.

Review the corresponding change control documentation

D.

Re-evaluate the control during (he next assessment

Question 421

Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Best practices

D.

Desired risk level

Question 422

The BEST metric to monitor the risk associated with changes deployed to production is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

changes due to emergencies.

B.

changes that cause incidents.

C.

changes not requiring user acceptance testing.

D.

personnel that have rights to make changes in production.

Question 423

Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of compensating controls

B.

The enterprise's capacity to absorb loss

C.

The residual risk affected by preventive controls

D.

The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate

Question 424

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

Options:

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

Question 425

When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:

Options:

A.

evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.

C.

address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.

D.

determine which risk factors have high remediation costs

Question 426

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key risk indicator (KRI) for backup media that is recycled monthly?

Options:

A.

Time required for backup restoration testing

B.

Change in size of data backed up

C.

Successful completion of backup operations

D.

Percentage of failed restore tests

Question 427

Which of the following would BEST help secure online financial transactions from improper users?

Options:

A.

Review of log-in attempts

B.

multi-level authorization

C.

Periodic review of audit trails

D.

multi-factor authentication

Question 428

Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated

B.

Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register

C.

Communicating the register to key stakeholders

D.

Performing regular reviews and updates to the register

Question 429

A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reassess the risk profile.

B.

Modify the risk taxonomy.

C.

Increase the risk tolerance.

D.

Review the risk culture.

Question 430

Which of the following is the MOST reliable validation of a new control?

Options:

A.

Approval of the control by senior management

B.

Complete and accurate documentation of control objectives

C.

Control owner attestation of control effectiveness

D.

Internal audit review of control design

Question 431

The PRIMARY focus of an ongoing risk awareness program should be to:

Options:

A.

enable better risk-based decisions.

B.

define appropriate controls to mitigate risk.

C.

determine impact of risk scenarios.

D.

expand understanding of risk indicators.

Question 432

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?

Options:

A.

Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance

B.

Prioritization of risk action plans across departments

C.

Early detection of emerging threats

D.

Accurate measurement of loss impact

Question 433

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

Options:

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

Question 434

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

Question 435

A risk practitioner notices a risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization's cloud provider is assigned to the provider who should the risk scenario be reassigned to.

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Vendor manager

D.

Data owner

Question 436

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

Options:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

Question 437

Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?

Options:

A.

Assigning control ownership

B.

Assigning appropriate resources

C.

Assigning a quality control review

D.

Performing regular independent control reviews

Question 438

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Transfer the risk.

C.

Implement monitoring controls.

D.

Recalculate the risk.

Question 439

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified

Options:

A.

Estimate the residual risk.

B.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

C.

Design control improvements.

D.

Identify the risk owner.

Question 440

An organization wants to assess the maturity of its internal control environment. The FIRST step should be to:

Options:

A.

validate control process execution.

B.

determine if controls are effective.

C.

identify key process owners.

D.

conduct a baseline assessment.

Question 441

Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Risk scenario analysis

Question 442

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

Options:

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

Question 443

An organization is planning to acquire a new financial system. Which of the following stakeholders would provide the MOST relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Process owner

C.

Risk manager

D.

Internal auditor

Question 444

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Verify authorization by senior management.

B.

Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level

C.

Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime

D.

Update the risk response in the risk register.

Question 445

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

Question 446

A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?

Options:

A.

Business analyst

B.

Project sponsor

C.

IT project team

D.

IT project management office (PMO)

Question 447

Which of the following would be MOST useful when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan?

Options:

A.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Resource expenditure against budget

D.

An up-to-date risk register

Question 448

Which of the following can be used to assign a monetary value to risk?

Options:

A.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Business impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Inherent vulnerabilities

Question 449

Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?

Options:

A.

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept

B.

The effective management of risk and internal control environments

C.

Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives

D.

The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives

Question 450

An organization has been notified that a disgruntled, terminated IT administrator has tried to break into the corporate network. Which of the following discoveries should be of GREATEST concern to the organization?

Options:

A.

Authentication logs have been disabled.

B.

An external vulnerability scan has been detected.

C.

A brute force attack has been detected.

D.

An increase in support requests has been observed.

Question 451

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a selected risk treatment plan is effective?

Options:

A.

Identifying key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Evaluating the return on investment (ROI)

C.

Evaluating the residual risk level

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

Question 452

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions?

Options:

A.

Allocate sufficient funds for risk remediation.

B.

Promote risk and security awareness.

C.

Establish clear accountability for risk.

D.

Develop comprehensive policies and standards.

Question 453

Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities

B.

Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience

C.

Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite

D.

Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation

Question 454

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

Options:

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

Question 455

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the internal control environment

B.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

Question 456

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Encryption policy

B.

Organization risk profile

C.

Digital rights management policy

D.

Information classification policy

Question 457

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

Question 458

The results of a risk assessment reveal risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence. Which of the following would be the BEST action to address these scenarios?

Options:

A.

Assemble an incident response team.

B.

Create a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Develop a risk response plan.

D.

Initiate a business impact analysis (BIA).

Question 459

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

Options:

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

Question 460

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

Options:

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

Question 461

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

Options:

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 462

The MOST important measure of the effectiveness of risk management in project implementation is the percentage of projects:

Options:

A.

introduced into production without high-risk issues.

B.

having the risk register updated regularly.

C.

having key risk indicators (KRIs) established to measure risk.

D.

having an action plan to remediate overdue issues.

Question 463

The BEST way to validate that a risk treatment plan has been implemented effectively is by reviewing:

Options:

A.

results of a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

the original risk response plan.

C.

training program and user awareness documentation.

D.

a post-implementation risk and control self-assessment (RCSA).

Question 464

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

Question 465

When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?

Options:

A.

BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.

C.

BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.

D.

Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.

Question 466

An organization has granted a vendor access to its data in order to analyze customer behavior. Which of the following would be the MOST effective control to mitigate the risk of customer data leakage?

Options:

A.

Enforce criminal background checks.

B.

Mask customer data fields.

C.

Require vendor to sign a confidentiality agreement.

D.

Restrict access to customer data on a "need to know'' basis.

Question 467

Which of the following will MOST improve stakeholders' understanding of the effect of a potential threat?

Options:

A.

Establishing a risk management committee

B.

Updating the organization's risk register to reflect the new threat

C.

Communicating the results of the threat impact analysis

D.

Establishing metrics to assess the effectiveness of the responses

Question 468

An organization’s board of directors is concerned about recent data breaches in the news and wants to assess its exposure to similar scenarios. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the organization's existing data protection controls.

B.

Reassess the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the business.

C.

Evaluate the sensitivity of data that the business needs to handle.

D.

Review the organization’s data retention policy and regulatory requirements.

Question 469

Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?

Options:

A.

Calculating the cost

B.

Analyzing cost-effectiveness

C.

Determining the stakeholders

D.

Identifying the objectives

Question 470

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

Question 471

An organization has decided to implement an emerging technology and incorporate the new capabilities into its strategic business plan. Business operations for the technology will be outsourced. What will be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY role during the change?

Options:

A.

Managing third-party risk

B.

Developing risk scenarios

C.

Managing the threat landscape

D.

Updating risk appetite

Question 472

Who is PRIMARILY accountable for identifying risk on a daily basis and ensuring adherence to the organization's policies?

Options:

A.

Third line of defense

B.

Line of defense subject matter experts

C.

Second line of defense

D.

First line of defense

Question 473

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle?

Options:

A.

To deliver projects on time and on budget

B.

To assess inherent risk

C.

To include project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profit.

D.

To assess risk throughout the project

Question 474

Which key performance indicator (KPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of disaster recovery scenarios identified

B.

Percentage of employees involved in the disaster recovery exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within the recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within the recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 475

External auditors have found that management has not effectively monitored key security technologies that support regulatory objectives. Which type of indicator would BEST enable the organization to identify and correct this situation?

Options:

A.

Key Performance Indicator (KPI)

B.

Key Management Indicator (KMI)

C.

Key Risk Indicator (KRI)

D.

Key Control Indicator (KCI)

Question 476

Employees are repeatedly seen holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges. This behavior BEST represents:

Options:

A.

a threat.

B.

a vulnerability.

C.

an impact

D.

a control.

Question 477

Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:

Options:

A.

ratio of disabled to active user accounts.

B.

percentage of users with multiple user accounts.

C.

average number of access entitlements per user account.

D.

average time between user transfers and access updates.

Question 478

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?

Options:

A.

Inability to allocate resources efficiently

B.

Inability to identify the risk owner

C.

Inability to complete the risk register

D.

Inability to identify process experts

Question 479

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

Options:

A.

A management-approved risk dashboard

B.

A current control framework

C.

A regularly updated risk register

D.

Regularly updated risk management procedures

Question 480

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

Question 481

When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:

Options:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

regulatory guidelines

D.

control efficiency

Question 482

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

Question 483

Which of the following is the MOST important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure?

Options:

A.

Relevance to the business process

B.

Regulatory compliance requirements

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Comparison against best practice

Question 484

A risk practitioner is reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry. Which of the following information is MOST important to include to enable an informed response decision by key stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Methods of attack progression

B.

Losses incurred by industry peers

C.

Most recent antivirus scan reports

D.

Potential impact of events

Question 485

Within the risk management space, which of the following activities could be

delegated to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Risk oversight

B.

Control implementation

C.

Incident response

D.

User access reviews

Question 486

Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk map

D.

Risk events

Question 487

An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

Question 488

When implementing an IT risk management program, which of the following is the BEST time to evaluate current control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Before defining a framework

B.

During the risk assessment

C.

When evaluating risk response

D.

When updating the risk register

Question 489

The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:

Options:

A.

Identify new or emerging risk issues.

B.

Satisfy audit requirements.

C.

Survey and analyze historical risk data.

D.

Understand internal and external threat agents.

Question 490

Which of the following BEST protects organizational data within a production cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Data encryption

B.

Continuous log monitoring

C.

Right to audit

D.

Data obfuscation

Question 491

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

Question 492

Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?

Options:

A.

A robust risk aggregation tool set

B.

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities

C.

A well-established risk management committee

D.

Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures

Question 493

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

Question 494

Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) to protect personal information on corporate mobile endpoints?

Options:

A.

Percentage of endpoints that are not encrypted

B.

Number of endpoints not compliant with patching policy

C.

Ratio of undiscoverable endpoints to encrypted endpoints

D.

Percentage of endpoints with outdated antivirus signatures

Question 495

To drive effective risk management, it is MOST important that an organization's policy framework is:

Options:

A.

Approved by relevant stakeholders.

B.

Aligned to the functional business structure.

C.

Included in employee onboarding materials.

D.

Mapped to an industry-standard framework.

Question 496

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to update following a change in legislation requiring notification to individuals impacted by data breaches?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Policies and standards

D.

Risk appetite and tolerance

Question 497

Which of the following is the BEST measure of the effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process?

Options:

A.

Number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates

B.

Number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions

C.

Number of termination requests processed per reporting period

D.

Number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates

Question 498

Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?

Options:

A.

Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes

B.

Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations

C.

Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder

D.

Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior

Question 499

Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:

Options:

A.

risk register

B.

risk catalog

C.

risk scenario

D.

RACI matrix

Question 500

Which of the following is the MOST important update for keeping the risk register current?

Options:

A.

Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge

B.

Adding new risk assessment results annually

C.

Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided

D.

Changing risk owners due to employee turnover

Question 501

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

The KRIs' source data lacks integrity.

B.

The KRIs are not automated.

C.

The KRIs are not quantitative.

D.

The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis.

Question 502

Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?

Options:

A.

Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis

B.

Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.

C.

Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.

D.

Include information security control specifications in business cases.

Question 503

A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI.

B.

Notify management that KRIs are being effectively managed.

C.

Update the risk rating associated with the KRI In the risk register.

D.

Update the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI.

Question 504

Following an acquisition, the acquiring company's risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization's IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?

Options:

A.

Internal and external audit reports

B.

Risk disclosures in financial statements

C.

Risk assessment and risk register

D.

Business objectives and strategies

Question 505

Which of the following BEST ensures that the data feeds used by an organization are complete and accurate?

Options:

A.

Data is inspected and accepted by owners

B.

Best-in-class data mining technology is used

C.

Sources of data and attributes are known

D.

The project is run by an experienced team

Question 506

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to assess the risk associated with outsourcing IT processes?

Options:

A.

Review the vendor's penetration test results

B.

Review the contract and service level agreements (SLAs) periodically

C.

Benchmark industry peers using the same vendor services

D.

Analyze gaps between the current and future state

Question 507

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.

B.

Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.

C.

Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.

D.

Document the risk decision in the project risk register.

Question 508

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for a system administrator who suspects a colleague may be intentionally weakening a system's validation controls in order to pass through fraudulent transactions?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls to deter fraud attempts.

B.

Share the concern through a whistleblower communication channel.

C.

Monitor the activity to collect evidence.

D.

Determine whether the system environment has flaws that may motivate fraud attempts.

Question 509

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

Question 510

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

Options:

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

Question 511

A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?

Options:

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

Question 512

Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization's strategic planning?

Options:

A.

Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives

B.

Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics

C.

Regular organization-wide risk awareness training

D.

A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan

Question 513

The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:

Options:

A.

the third-party website manager

B.

the business process owner

C.

IT security

D.

the compliance manager

Question 514

Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Implementing control activities

B.

Monitoring control effectiveness

C.

Conducting control self-assessments

D.

Owning risk scenarios

Question 515

A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.

B.

Communicate to those who test and promote changes.

C.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.

D.

Assess the maturity of the change management process.

Question 516

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that risk management is important in project management?

Options:

A.

It helps identify and mitigate potential issues that could derail projects.

B.

It helps to ensure project acceptance by end users.

C.

It reduces the risk associated with potential project scope creep.

D.

It facilitates agreement and collaboration on project goals among stakeholders.

Question 517

An organization uses a web application hosted by a cloud service that is populated by data sent to the vendor via email on a monthly basis. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when analyzing the risk associated with the application?

Options:

A.

Whether the service provider's data center is located in the same country

B.

Whether the data sent by email has been encrypted

C.

Whether the data has been appropriately classified

D.

Whether the service provider contract allows right of onsite audit

Question 518

External penetration tests MUST include:

Options:

A.

use of consultants to ensure completeness.

B.

communications to users of the target systems.

C.

changes to target data to prove the attack was successful.

D.

advance approval from system owners.

Question 519

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

Options:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

Question 520

A new software package that could help mitigate risk in an organization has become available. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Review industry best practice.

D.

Review risk governance policies.

Question 521

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key procedure control gaps

B.

Business objectives

C.

Senior management's risk appetite

D.

Hypothetical scenarios

Question 522

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans?

Options:

A.

Risk policy review

B.

Business impact analysis (B1A)

C.

Control catalog

D.

Risk register

Question 523

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when periodically reviewing risk response action plans?

Options:

A.

The action plans have documented schedules

B.

The action plans treat the corresponding risk

C.

Budget has been allocated for the action plans

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are defined in the action plans

Exam Detail
Vendor: Isaca
Certification: Isaca Certification
Exam Code: CRISC
Last Update: Aug 26, 2025
CRISC Question Answers
Page: 1 / 131
Total 1745 questions