8008 Exam Dumps : PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition

Delta is non-linear with respect to prices for a number of securities such as bonds, options and other derivatives. It changes with changes in prices, and any hedge initially undertaken becomes quickly mismatched. Therefore delta hedges need to be managed quite actively and kept up-to-date. Therefore I is true.Primary risks comprise most of the risk in a position, and therefore portfolio managers are right to focus on them over secondary risks. Therefore II is true.The greater the hedge rebalance frequency, the lower is the hedge mismatch at any point in time, and therefore residual risks would be lower. However, rebalancing hedges requires rebalance trades to be done, and these involve transaction costs. Generally, a reasonable balance needs to be struck between the frequency of rebalances (a lower frequency increases residual risk, but this residual risk is not directionally biased) and the costs of rebalancing. III is correct.Vega risk is the risk arising due to changes in prices due to changes in volatility.  Options carry vega risk. Therefore any hedges against vega risks can only be obtained using other options positions.  (Vega risk may also be hedged using other volatility based products, eg an OTC volatility swap, or a VIX futures type product.)

Basel II requires financial institutions to compare their ex-ante VaR estimates to actual realized P&L. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer. A bank may use hypothetical P&L based upon constant positions to validate its model, but that is not required for Basel II.

GARCH is a mean reverting model of volatility, with a steady state mean that the model reverts to in the absence of market shocks. EWMA is not mean reverting and volatility under EWMA stays constant in the absence of shocks. Therefore statement I is correct.

Both EWMA and GARCH models are designed to address volatility clustering, which explains much of the non-normality of returns. When returns are standardized to the volatility calculations under either of these methods, the returns appear far closer to the normal distribution than non-standardized returns. (If it were not to, then there would have been no point in using these techniques.) Statement II is correct.

Steady state variance under GARCH is defined as ω / (1 - α - β), where α and β are the two parameters (called the reaction and persistence coefficient respectively). Clearly, it is affected by more than just the persistence coefficient, therefore statement III is not correct.

Sub-additivity is a very desired property in risk measures. It implies the sum of the parts is greater than the whole. In the case of risk measures, the whole is smaller than the sum of the parts due to diversification. Statement IV is true.

Therefore the correct answer is Choice 'c'