8008 Exam Dumps : PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition

Choice 'd' is correct because VaR is sub-additive in cases where correlation is less than one.

Specific VaR refers to the risk in the portfolio from security selection, ie the risk from holding the specific equities in the portfolio, while systematic risk refers to the market risk. Definitionally, specific risk and systematic risk are uncorrelated, ie their correlation is zero. Since their correlation is zero, combining them will produce a VaR number lower than their stand alone aggregate. Total risk includes both specific risk and systematic risk, and can be calculated taking into account the specific and systematic VaRs and their correlation.

All other answers are therefore incorrect.

When a default occurs, the proportion of the exposure represented by the recovery rate is recovered. For example, if the recovery rate is 40% for a loan, the actual loss in the event of a default would be $60 for a $100 loan. In other words, the loss given default = 1 - recovery rate. Hence Choice 'd' is the correct answer. All other choices are incorrect.

According to ISDA, a credit event is an event linked to the deteriorating credit worthiness of an underlying reference entity in a credit derivative. The occurrence of a credit event usually triggers full or partial termination of the transaction and a payment from protection seller to protection buyer. Credit events include

- bankruptcy,

- failure to pay,

- restructuring,

- obligation acceleration,

- obligation default and

- repudiation/moratorium.

A rating downgrade is not a credit event.