8008 Exam Dumps : PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition

Historical Simulation VaR is conceptually very straightforward: actual prices as seen during the observation period (1 year, 2 years, or other) become the 'scenarios' forming the basis of the valuation of the portfolio. For each scenario, full revaluation is performed, and a P&L data set becomes available from which the desired loss quantile can be extracted.

Historical simulation is based upon actually seen prices over a selected historical period, therefore no distributional assumptions are required. The data is what the data is, and is the distribution. Statement I is therefore not correct.

It uses full revaluation for each historical scenario, therefore statement II is correct.

Since the prices are taken from actual historical observations, a correlation matrix is not required at all. Statement III is therefore incorrect (it would be true for Monte Carlo and parametric Var).

Historical simulation VaR suffers from the limitation that if enough representative data points are no available during the historical observation period from which the scenarios are drawn, the results would be inaccurate. This is likely to be the case for new products. Therefore Statement IV is incorrect.

Stress tests can cover known events, but since the future is unknown, and new events may be entirely different from what has happened in the past, they provide no assurance that an institution's worst case losses would be covered. Hence II is false.

Stress testing is required to be performed as part of Basel II, and therefore III is false.

Historical events do not have sharply defined start and end dates. Often, even after a crises ends, its after effects may continue to affect the markets for a long time. In such cases, it may be difficult to define the start and end of the crises. In many cases, the crises may persist for months or even years, making it difficult for the risk manager to identify a time period that covers the essence of the crises, and yet is focused enough to constitute a plausible scenario. Therefore IV is false too. Only I is true, and the correct answer is Choice 'b'.

It is not generally sufficient to ensure the adequacy of liquidity across a group - ie it is not appropriate to just add up the sources and needs for liquidity across multiple entities in a group. This is because there can be restrictions on transferring liquidity between entities, particularly when the entities are located across borders. In cases where transfers of liquidity are permitted, there may be settlement delays in transferring funds from one entity to another. Therefore both statements I and II are incorrect.

Wholesale funding sources refers to the temporary interbank funding sources that need to be rolled over on very short intervals, often as short as overnight. These are not stable sources for long term funding. Statement III is therefore false.

Statement IV is correct as funding diversification refers to diversification of both funding sources and the duration for which the amounts are borrowed, ie tenor diversity.

Statement IV is the only correct statement and therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer.