8008 Exam Dumps : PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition

It is not generally sufficient to ensure the adequacy of liquidity across a group - ie it is not appropriate to just add up the sources and needs for liquidity across multiple entities in a group. This is because there can be restrictions on transferring liquidity between entities, particularly when the entities are located across borders. In cases where transfers of liquidity are permitted, there may be settlement delays in transferring funds from one entity to another. Therefore both statements I and II are incorrect.

Wholesale funding sources refers to the temporary interbank funding sources that need to be rolled over on very short intervals, often as short as overnight. These are not stable sources for long term funding. Statement III is therefore false.

Statement IV is correct as funding diversification refers to diversification of both funding sources and the duration for which the amounts are borrowed, ie tenor diversity.

Statement IV is the only correct statement and therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer.

Delta is non-linear with respect to prices for a number of securities such as bonds, options and other derivatives. It changes with changes in prices, and any hedge initially undertaken becomes quickly mismatched. Therefore delta hedges need to be managed quite actively and kept up-to-date. Therefore I is true.Primary risks comprise most of the risk in a position, and therefore portfolio managers are right to focus on them over secondary risks. Therefore II is true.The greater the hedge rebalance frequency, the lower is the hedge mismatch at any point in time, and therefore residual risks would be lower. However, rebalancing hedges requires rebalance trades to be done, and these involve transaction costs. Generally, a reasonable balance needs to be struck between the frequency of rebalances (a lower frequency increases residual risk, but this residual risk is not directionally biased) and the costs of rebalancing. III is correct.Vega risk is the risk arising due to changes in prices due to changes in volatility.  Options carry vega risk. Therefore any hedges against vega risks can only be obtained using other options positions.  (Vega risk may also be hedged using other volatility based products, eg an OTC volatility swap, or a VIX futures type product.)

When two bonds that appear identical in every respect trade at different prices, the difference is often due to differences in liquidity between the two bonds (the less liquid bond will be cheaper and yield higher), and also due to the fact that ratings from the major rating agencies do not generally react to day to day changes in the market. The market's perception of the differences in the two credits will cause a divergence in the prices. This has been an extremely visible phenomenon during the credit crisis of 2007-2009, where fixed income security prices have changed sharply for many securities without any changes in external credit ratings.

Bonds carrying 'different market risk' is meaningless, and so is the difference in convexity (because the calculated convexity would be identical for similar bonds).

Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.