Winter Sale - Limited Time 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: top65certs

Free and Premium ACAMS CAMS Dumps Questions Answers

Page: 1 / 23
Total 313 questions

Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Question 1

In order to prevent financial crime risk, the implemented policies, controls, and procedures must:

Options:

A.

include sophisticated and automated controls that use the newest types of technology available (for example, artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning).

B.

be proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the firm, approved by senior management, and regularly reviewed

C.

be completed by the business and validated by an external firm (for example, an auditing or consulting firm)

D.

be created approved, and owned only by the First Line of Defense business team, and reviewed annually

Buy Now
Question 2

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

Question 3

A financial institution is exploring automation to assist investigators in reviewing flagged transactions. Currently, investigators spend a significant amount of time gathering data from multiple sources.

Which of the following automation features would be most effective in improving investigator efficiency?

Options:

A.

Pre-populated templates for SAR filing

B.

Integration of open-source tools to gather real-time intelligence

C.

Automated case prioritization based on risk scoring

D.

AI-powered dashboards summarizing flagged transactions

Question 4

Which statement best describes a key money laundering risk associated with virtual asset service providers (VASPs), cryptoassets, and related products?

Options:

A.

Cryptoassets can be transferred across borders quickly, but the volatility of their value still makes them less attractive for money laundering compared to traditional assets

B.

Mandatory reporting requirements have been implemented for certain types of crypto transactions, but gaps in regulation and enforcement still leave room for money laundering activities.

C.

The transparency of blockchain technology helps law enforcement trace transactions, but it can also provide criminals with ways to obscure their financial activities through complex layering techniques.

D.

The pseudonymous nature of transactions allows criminals to hide their identities while transferring large sums of money globally, making it difficult to trace the ultimate beneficial owner.

Question 5

An international bank is headquartered in Madrid, Spain with an office in New York City (NYC), US. The Madrid office is investigating a transaction originating from a customer of the NYC office and inquires whether the NYC office can share any relevant further information on the individual. Upon further research, the NYC office finds that they have filed a suspicious activity report (SAR) on the individual in the previous year.

Which factors need to be considered before sharing the requested information? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The foreign bank must always request approval by its national anti-financial crime authority to share any information cross-border.

B.

The bank should report this to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) and receive formal guidance before sharing the information.

C.

The bank should consider jurisdictional privacy requirements and its own policies and procedures to determine what information to share.

D.

The information should only be shared on a need-to-know basis.

Question 6

How should risk-related issues be addressed to ensure the effectiveness of the three lines of defense model?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the second line reviews, monitors, and escalates risk-related issues as needed to senior management while maintaining independent oversight from the third line

B.

Have senior management handle risk-related issues directly when possible because they are ultimately responsible for the organisation's overall risk management strategy

C.

Delegate some risk-related issues to the first line to avoid overwhelming the second line and to ensure operational efficiency

D.

Assign risk-related oversight duties to the third line to provide an independent review and address issues more effectively by avoiding conflicts of interest in the first and second lines

Question 7

Which of the following are potential financial crime-related red flags when obtaining client data? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

A client frequently submits financial statements much earlier than required appearing overly eager

B.

A client insists on using a personal bank account for business transactions despite being advised otherwise

C.

A new client shows a preference for minimal direct interaction and relies primarily on indirect communication methods, citing convenience or time constraints

D.

The client is a publicly listed company but very diversified

E.

The ultimate beneficial ownership is unclear

Question 8

An international bank is investigating a payment requested by one of its correspondent relationships that generated an alert in the automated transaction monitoring system. The payment originated from a corporation located in Hong Kong and the final beneficiary is an individual located in New York.

Which steps should the bank take first to address the alert? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Send a 314(b) request to the corporation's bank in Hong Kong

B.

Call the receiving individual to review identity verification documents

C.

Confirm that neither the beneficiary nor the originator are sanctioned parties

D.

Request supporting documents, including invoices and contracts to confirm the purpose of the payment

E.

Check for negative news in public sources on the sender and receiver

Question 9

Which of the following best describes one of the principal threats of proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Adversary governments using sophisticated attacks to threaten critical infrastructure and sectors, including finance, health care and energy

B.

Networks of individuals and entities exploiting financial systems to move funds that will be used to acquire weapons of mass destruction or their components

C.

Transnational criminal organizations expanding their engagement into more varied types of illicit activities, including human trafficking and corruption

D.

Networks of individuals and entities raising funds to further proliferate their ideological goals wholly or in part through unlawful acts of force or violence

Question 10

Which of the following are important AML controls for a compliance manager of a regulated asset management company in the European Union to implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inviting prospective customers for an onboarding interview

B.

Rejecting any politically exposed persons (PEPs) as customers

C.

Understanding the source and origin of assets

D.

Performing negative news checks of prospective customers

E.

Producing financial stability reports on interesting customers

Question 11

When making an independent determination on whether to close an account based on an internal Investigation, a financial institution (F1) should consider. (Select Five.)

Options:

A.

reputational risk.

B.

the customers personal relationships.

C.

the frequency of account activity

D.

the Fl's policies and procedures.

E.

the seriousness of the underlying conduct.

F.

correspondence with law enforcement

G.

the legal basis for closing the account.

Question 12

Which of the following is an important factor to consider when setting up an anti-financial crimes (AFC) compliance program governance structure?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the structure is reviewed by an outside auditor or consultant

B.

Establishing a system of internal controls commensurate with the institution’s size and complexity

C.

Designating a qualified board of directors to monitor day-to-day compliance

D.

Establishing clear roles and responsibilities for AFC risk escalations and issues

Question 13

A bank is preparing for a regulatory exam after a previous regulatory exam identified weaknesses in the bank's AML program. Since the last exam, the bank has improved the written AML program, hired an experienced AML compliance officer, and has taken actions to demonstrate a strong culture of compliance. The bank is now focused on getting through their transaction monitoring case backlog and completing enhancements to its sanctions screening program.

Which of the following are correct? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The bank is likely to face secondary sanctions from global financial institutions despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

B.

The bank may face civil or criminal penalties if it is unable to demonstrate sustained improvement in addressing the previous concerns.

C.

The bank may face the risk of regulatory orders to remediate its AML program despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

D.

The bank is protected from reputational risk arising from any regulatory action because regulatory orders must remain confidential.

E.

The regulatory agency may require the bank's board of directors to publicly share the actions taken to address the previous concerns in order to limit its reputational risk.

Question 14

Which of the following conditions contribute to a politically exposed person (PEP) posing greater risk than a typical high-risk bank customer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The family members and close associates of PEPs may be involved in illicit activities.

B.

PEPs are granted unlimited credit and financial immunity under international banking regulations.

C.

PEPs may exploit embassy activities to conceal bribery and corruption transactions.

D.

PEPs can have illegitimate fund sources but are legally protected from having their accounts closed for activities outside a bank's risk appetite.

Question 15

While gaming platforms are typically used for recreational purposes, they can potentially be used for terrorist financing through games in which players can:

Options:

A.

buy in-game items with virtual in-game currencies.

B.

exchange in-game items with other players.

C.

trade in-game items with other players that can be exchanged for fiat currency

D.

obtain in-game materials by performing in-game activities.

Question 16

Which of the following are included in the 11 Immediate Outcomes outlined in the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) methodology for assessing technical compliance with the FATF Recommendations and the effectiveness of AML/CFT/CPF systems during mutual evaluations? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

International cooperation provides actionable information to use against criminals

B.

Those convicted of money laundering offenses are denied access to basic banking services

C.

Money laundering offenses are investigated and criminally prosecuted

D.

Financial intelligence information is collected by authorities and shared with the FATF for further investigation

E.

Supervisors regulate financial institutions and non-bank financial institutions and their risk-based AML/CFT programs

Question 17

Which of the following AML/CFT arrangements should a bank have in place at minimum before opening for business? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Independent compliance testing

B.

Qualified and knowledgeable staff

C.

Third-party screening software

D.

An automated monitoring system

E.

Written policy and procedures

Question 18

An EU Trust and Company Service Provider analyst notices some unusual activity while looking through a customer's financial statements and detailed general ledger. The customer is in the business of importing and exporting machineries.

Which transaction indicator warrants further escalation to the compliance officer?

Options:

A.

The payment of company secretarial retainer fees to a foreign company in a tax-efficient jurisdiction

B.

The payment of virtual offices services overseas

C.

Inter-company loans from the holding company to the subsidiary company to finance the shipment of machinery

D.

The payment of consultancy fees to unrelated companies and service providers established in a foreign jurisdiction

Question 19

Which of the following is a critical consideration for private sector firms when sharing data and intelligence to combat financial crime?

Options:

A.

The preference of upper management regarding which teams should participate in the data-sharing initiative

B.

The cost of the data-sharing system and whether it its within the existing IT budget

C.

The potential return on investment (ROI) from the data shared versus the financial crime prevention effort

D.

Ensuring that the shared data complies with applicable data protection regulations while maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the information

Question 20

A risk-based approach (RBA) to anti-financial crimes (AFC) involves understanding and managing risks by:

Options:

A.

applying uniform controls to all customers, regardless of their risk profile

B.

allocating resources and implementing controls based on the level of identified risks

C.

prioritizing regulatory compliance over customer experience and operational efficiency

D.

relying on automated systems to detect and mitigate AFC risks

Question 21

Which is a key goal of the EU's Directives on money laundering?

Options:

A.

Address control of payments in EU countries to reduce money laundering.

B.

Build a network of financial institutions that work together to prevent money laundering across the EU.

C.

Establish a consistent regulatory environment across the EU to prevent money laundering.

D.

Allow member states to discuss the draft legislation with the cooperation of the EU financial intelligence units.

Question 22

A client advisor at a bank contacts a member of the compliance team for guidance on how to proceed with a client who wants to transfer US$250,000 from the sale of cryptoassets into their savings account at the bank.

What guidance should the compliance team provide?

Options:

A.

Advise further clarification is necessary, including which coins or tokens were sold and whether the crypto exchange conducts due diligence on its clients

B.

Advise that the transaction should be stopped because cryptoassets in general are not regulated and by definition pose an unacceptable AML risk for the bank

C.

Confirm to the advisor that the customer can proceed with the transaction if the client's KYC is up to date and a search on a public blockchain explorer does not provide any adverse media hits

D.

Confirm to the advisor that the customer can proceed with the transaction because clients are already correctly onboarded KYC is complete and the source of funds is transparent

Question 23

A real estate buyer purchases multiple high-value properties in cash through a series of transactions in a short period of time and without any clear economic justification.

Which of the following is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the real estate sector?

Options:

A.

The buyer is using high-value real estate transactions to obscure the origin of the funds.

B.

The buyer is quickly diversifying their investment portfolio through structuring payments in order to take advantage of the liquidity of cash transactions in real estate.

C.

The buyer is capitalizing on favorable market conditions and using cash purchases to outbid competitors in a competitive real estate market using insider information.

D.

The buyer is a real estate developer acquiring multiple properties for a potential redevelopment project with a business partner located in a high-risk jurisdiction.

Question 24

What is the first step in designing an effective controls framework using a risk-based approach?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk controls

B.

Assessing risk controls

C.

Ongoing risk monitoring

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

Question 25

A financial institution's (FI's) policy is to apply enhanced due diligence (EDD) for every new client to ensure the effectiveness of the program.

How should a consultant advise the FI's management team?

Options:

A.

Suggest the FI needs to implement a risk-based approach for EDD.

B.

Suggest the management team select the clients that are chosen for EDD.

C.

Suggest the management team ask the regulator for advice on EDD measures.

D.

Suggest EDD for 50% of the clients is appropriate.

Question 26

Using artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning-based techniques tn adverse media screening can: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

ensure that all adverse media sources are comprehensively analyzed without the need for human review.

B.

significantly reduce human errors arising from repetitive tasks by delivering consistent and highly accurate analysis.

C.

instantly identify intent behind media articles, allowing for more effective risk scoring.

D.

automate the process of identifying new information and distinguishing it from previously encountered data.

E.

cover multiple languages and scripts, surpassing the limitations of human linguistics.

Question 27

Which of the following best describes the use of fuzzy logic in customer screening systems?

Options:

A.

It produces outputs that include a range of intermediate possibilities between "Yes" and "No"

B.

It is an advanced analytics tool widely used to implement AFC controls

C.

It allows for a greater number of exact matches, reducing the need for manual review

D.

It is a new technique for enhancing the quality of alerts for review

Question 28

Which of the following is a common strategy employed by non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to combat money laundering?

Options:

A.

Helping Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) to analyze the suspicious activity reports (SARs)

B.

Directly prosecuting money launderers in court

C.

Providing financial assistance to governments to strengthen their anti-money laundering efforts

D.

Raising awareness about the issue of money laundering and its consequences

Question 29

The chief compliance officer at a global bank that operates in the US, EU, and other countries is responsible for navigating the US and EU regulations related to anti-money laundering (AML) and sanctions as well as any local regulations in the countries where it operates.

What should be the primary compliance concern of the bank?

Options:

A.

US anti-money laundering regulations are stricter than the EU AML Directives, making it easier for the global bank to be compliant in the EU

B.

US and EU regulations require the bank to build separate compliance teams, making it necessary to establish completely separate systems for US and EU operations

C.

The EU's sanctions regime is stricter than that of the US Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), so the bank must prioritize compliance with EU regulations over US laws and train the staff in Europe accordingly

D.

Balancing compliance with the US BSA and OFAC sanctions while ensuring adherence to EU AML directives and the GDPR, which complicates cross-border data sharing

Question 30

Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

increased reputation risk.

B.

inclusion on the UN Consolidated List.

C.

civil and criminal penalties

D.

delisting of public filing status.

Question 31

An agent of a wealthy individual residing in Country A, which is on the EU list of high-risk third jurisdictions, approaches a notary in Country B, which is in the EU. The agent wants to complete a disposal of assets recently acquired at auction by the wealthy individual through an offshore company. The agent also has a power of attorney to act on behalf of the offshore company issued by a respectable law firm from Country C, which is also in the EU. The agent asks the notary to proceed with the disposal as quickly as possible without paying any specific attention to related costs or taxes to be paid as a result of this transaction. The notary notices the intended transfer price is significantly lower than the one recorded at auction, but the agent does not want to discuss this matter and claims that it is not covered by the power of attorney.

Which red flags should the notary consider? (Select Two)

Options:

A.

The agent requested a disposal of assets at a lower price than recently acquired.

B.

The assets acquired through an auction were put in the name of an offshore company

C.

The agent acted on behalf of an individual residing in a country which is on the EU's list of high-risk jurisdictions

D.

The power of attorney was issued by a law firm in a different EU country from where the transaction took place.

Question 32

Which of the following scenarios warrants enhanced due diligence (EDD)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

An existing local league footballer trying to open a bank account with a bank in their local jurisdiction

B.

The current prime minister of a country trying to open a bank account in another country

C.

The former personal secretary to the minister of transport in a low-risk country 25 years ago opening a bank account at a bank in a neighboring low-risk country

D.

A bank located in a higher risk country trying to establish a correspondent-respondent banking relationship with a bank in a lower-risk country

E.

An individual with a current bank account who resides in one country becoming the ambassador of another country

Question 33

A legal instrument executed between two nations that governs cross-border information sharing is known as a:

Options:

A.

Memorandum of Agreement.

B.

Declaration of Understanding.

C.

Memorandum of Understanding.

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty.

E.

Request for Urgent Information.

Question 34

Unusual wire transfer transactions can include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

wire transfers in different currencies between accounts held at different banks for the same client.

B.

an incoming third-party wire transfer followed by the purchase of real estate in the client's name.

C.

an incoming wire transfer followed by the loan payment to a third party that is a business associate of the client.

D.

multiple wire transfers sent to counterparties associated with the client as per KYC documentation.

Question 35

The financial industry relies heavily on rules-based approaches to transaction monitoring to detect suspicious activities.

Scenario-based systems use technology and algorithms to identify: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

fraudulent identities involving stolen or manufactured identification.

B.

suspicious behavior involving a transaction that occurs at an unusual time of day.

C.

hidden beneficial owners.

D.

transaction patterns involving transactions that exceed a certain dollar amount.

E.

anomalies involving a transaction that occurs in a location far away from the customer's usual spending patterns.

Question 36

Red flags for potential money laundering in real estate include completing luxury real estate purchases. (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

using shell companies or trusts for privacy, lax planning, or asset protection.

B.

in the names of unrelated thud patties.

C.

using the proceeds from selling a prior property or liquidating investments to make an all-cash purchase

D.

using legal entities and intermediaries to protect the privacy of the purchasers.

E.

using loans backed by cash or certificates of deposit.

Question 37

There are three types of factors that can be used to authenticate someone ownership, knowledge, and inherent factors.

Which of the following factors falls under inherent factors?

Options:

A.

Challenge-response

B.

Fingerprint

C.

Security token

D.

Passphrase

Question 38

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is empowered to impose sanctions regimes against countries and terrorist organizations.

Which statements are true regarding sanctions imposed by the UNSC? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Attempts to circumvent or evade sanctions imposed by the UNSC can constitute a criminal offense if designated under local laws and regulations

B.

The UN can impose arms embargoes but cannot prohibit direct or indirect exports of other goods to specific countries

C.

Member countries of the United Nations are expected to implement and enforce sanctions imposed by the UNSC

D.

Direct breaches of sanctions imposed by the UNSC constitute a criminal offense in all member countries

Question 39

Which techniques are most commonly used in a rules-based approach to transaction monitoring for detecting suspicious activities? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using predefined rules to flag specific transaction patterns

B.

Randomly flagging transactions for further investigation

C.

Statistical tuning of monitoring scenarios to improve accuracy

D.

Using advanced machine learning models to detect outliers

E.

Setting transaction thresholds for automated alerts

Question 40

A financial crimes risk appetite statement describes:

Options:

A.

how an organization defines Its risk-based approach.

B.

how an organization determines its key risk and performance indicators.

C.

the level and type of risk the organization is willing to take to meet its objectives

D.

the purpose of an organization's financial crimes compliance program.

Question 41

An AML/CFT unit often compiles information about customer activity and product usage that might be of interest to other parts of the organization.

Before allowing the unit to communicate such information internally, the organization must review:

Options:

A.

Enterprise-wide risk assessments and the employee handbook for any limitations on sharing commercially sensitive customer data

B.

The risk rating of the customers to avoid sharing data relating to higher risk customers

C.

The organization's AML compliance policies to ensure that customer data can be easily shared internally and internationally

D.

Applicable data privacy laws in relevant jurisdictions and the organization's data security and privacy policies for any limitations

Question 42

Which of the below is a core function of a financial intelligence unit (FIU) as described in FATF Recommendation 29?

Options:

A.

Sponsoring the research and development of advanced technological surveillance tools to be used nationally

B.

Prosecuting significant cases of money laundering or terrorist financing falling under national jurisdiction

C.

Sharing real-time criminal intelligence gathered from national law enforcement agencies with the private sector

D.

Serving as a national center for the collection and analysis of suspicious activity

Question 43

Which external data source is most reliable for verifying beneficial ownership during onboarding?

Options:

A.

Adverse media databases

B.

Publicly available information on non-government data repositories

C.

Credit reference agencies

D.

Beneficial ownership registers available in country of incorporation of entity

Question 44

Reference data screening includes the screening of which types of datasets? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Types of payment messages

B.

Customers

C.

Third-party service providers

D.

Customer spouses

Question 45

Which of the following ate efficient approaches lo performing horizon scanning? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Subscribing lo a regulators' newsletter

B.

Using a specific provider for regulatory horizon scanning

C.

Regularly contacting the regulator to inquire about updates and future developments

D.

Relying on information and insights from peers and working groups

Question 46

An employee at a financial institution (FI) suspects that one of their co-workers is involved in a financial investment scam syndicate.

Which step should be taken next by the employee who has the suspicion?

Options:

A.

Conduct an open-source intelligence investigation using artificial intelligence tools to gain more information on the activities of the suspected employee

B.

Use the FI's whistleblowing channel to report the suspected employee

C.

Question their co-worker to determine if their suspicions are correct before reporting to the FI's Human Resources department

D.

Warn colleagues and customers of the FI that the employee's suspicious financial investment proposals could be a scam

E.

Report the suspected employee to the line manager of the FI to take the required action

Question 47

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

difficulty in tracking the originator, recipient, and source of transactions.

B.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers.

C.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system.

E.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

Question 48

Which of the following are key components of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inquiring about the source of wealth and source of funds

B.

Asking to provide a list of immediate family members

C.

Verifying the financial crime awareness of the client

D.

Collecting necessary documents to verify the veracity of information

Question 49

A prospective client walks into an accounting firm wanting to incorporate a company. The accountant feels uncomfortable after the meeting.

Which two of the accountant's observations warrant escalation to the compliance officer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The principal activities of the proposed company are importing and exporting new furniture

B.

The prospective client presents confusing details about the proposed business and has very little knowledge about the proposed business activity

C.

The prospective client is unable to provide information about the beneficial owners

D.

The prospective client exhibits confidence when speaking to the accountant when providing personal details

E.

The prospective client is able to provide source of funds and source of wealth documents

Question 50

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

Question 51

A sound AML compliance program requires a comprehensive governance framework that addresses key elements to ensure the integrity of the financial system.

Which element forms the starting point of an effective AML compliance program?

Options:

A.

Ongoing monitoring

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Suspicious activity reporting

E.

Customer due diligence

Question 52

When considering purchasing AFC tools from a vendor to implement into the customer lifecycle, which of the following measures should be taken during the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Ensuring the tools are compatible and integration with current systems is possible

B.

Assessing whether internal staff members can provide training on the tools

C.

Assessing the cost of implementation and cost of maintaining the tools

D.

Basing business requirements on the features offered by the vendor's tools

Question 53

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities, Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

B.

Exchange strategic information between FIUs and obliged entities

C.

Exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

Create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

Question 54

Which of the options below is an indicator of potential insider activity that may warrant escalation For further investigation?

Options:

A.

A relationship manager advocates for overriding the results of the company's client risk rating model that resulted in a client's high-risk rating.

B.

An If employee shares information about a firm's risk management framework with employees of other firms at an industry convention.

C.

An investigator does not complete the automated transaction monitoring system alerts assigned to them before the time required by company procedures.

D.

A relationship manager makes an exception to company policy and proceeds with onboarding a customer without documenting a passport for customer identification

Question 55

Which section of the USA PATRIOT Act relates to forfeiture of funds and allows for extraterritorial reach?

Options:

A.

Section 319(b)

B.

Section 314(b)

C.

Section 314(a)

D.

Section 319(a)

Question 56

The law enforcement agency (LEA) of a foreign jurisdiction contacts a financial institution (FI) regarding one of the FI's clients. The LEA advises that the client is currently wanted for prosecution as a result of a series of human trafficking charges.

What should the FI do? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inform local LEA and regulator of the request for awareness

B.

Close the client's accounts immediately to avoid any undue risk

C.

Review the client's activity, determine if suspicious activity exists, and report accordingly

D.

Advise the LEA that the government needs to be contacted for extradition

E.

Comply immediately with the foreign jurisdiction and turn over all client information

Question 57

Which activities would be considered money laundering red flags when reviewing the business operations of a money services business (MSB)? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A customer being hesitant to provide beneficiary name or address information when sending international wire transfers

B.

Cash-intensive businesses, such as convenience stores or restaurants, making large cash deposits

C.

A customer exchanging foreign currency from a higher-risk jurisdiction for domestic currency under the reporting threshold

D.

A customer using multiple accounts under different names to conduct transactions

E.

A customer completing frequent small-dollar international money transfers to their native country

Question 58

Based on the AML principles outlined by the Wolfsberg Group, what do private and correspondent banks have in common when monitoring for terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

Cash access from a pre-paid card increases the potential that the card will be used for money laundering purposes.

B.

Transaction monitoring examines the relationship between due diligence information and account closings.

C.

Account and transactional activity are monitored after the proper identification and verification of customers.

D.

Numbered or alternate name accounts will only be accepted if the bank has established the identity of the client and beneficial owner.

Question 59

The recently appointed senior money laundering reporting officer (MLRO) at a newly opened small digital bank has been instructed by the group chief compliance officer to implement an effective AML transaction monitoring system that can identify unusual and suspicious transactions.

What are important considerations for the project to select and implement the AML transaction monitoring system at the digital bank? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Whether the vendor has documented appropriate internal controls for designing system and data integration schema

B.

Whether the permissions and user access settings for reviewing, investigating, and reporting details of alerts generated by the system are commensurate with those in use at other banks

C.

Whether the monitoring system is adequate with respect to the bank's size, activities, complexity, and risks

D.

Whether the monitoring system can be configured to enable the bank to execute trend analysis of transaction activity and to identify unusual business relationships and transactions

Question 60

Which services provided by an accounting firm could be considered as higher risk from a financial crime perspective? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Forming a trust on behalf of a customer with a complex setup and acting as a nominee director

B.

Auditing a firm that provides payroll software to large corporate customers

C.

Preparing financial statements for a listed or a privately owned firm

D.

Providing tax advice to an international customer hoping to move their assets out of their home country

E.

Assisting an offshore corporation from a jurisdiction with no available beneficial owner information to buy property in the UK

Question 61

The role of FATF-style regional bodies (FSRBs) is to; (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

identify and address the current financial crime trends through the issuance of typologies originating in members outside of their FSRB's Jurisdiction.

B.

provide AM L/C FT technical assistance needed by members in their FSRB junsdiction.

C.

coordinate technical assistance for members in their FSRB jurisdiction

D.

set and amend the FATF 40 Recommendations for members in their FSRB jurisdiction.

E.

identify and address any gaps in the AML/CFT policies for members outside of their FSRB jurisdiction.

F.

offer mutual evaluation and follow-up processes for members in their FSRB Jurisdiction.

Question 62

The manager of a bank's KYC team discovers that a high-risk customer's activity was not reviewed last quarter as the bank's internal schedule required.

What should the KYC team manager do?

Options:

A.

Submit a referral to file a suspicious activity report (SAR)

B.

Evaluate the KYC review process to understand why the review did not occur as required and take corrective action as necessary

C.

Contact the customer's relationship manager to suspend account access until the periodic KYC review is completed

D.

Remove the customer from the bank's high-risk list

Question 63

In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.

Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries

B.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank's internal policies and procedures

C.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected

Question 64

What are the rules imposed by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) for legal entities and persons related to the US? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The head office of a foreign legal entity which has a branch in the US does not need to comply with OFAC rules.

B.

A foreign individual visiting the US for a short vacation is obligated to follow OFAC rules.

C.

Nationals of the US must comply with OFAC rules, regardless of where they are located in the world.

D.

Any foreign corporation is also penalized if it conducts transactions with sanctioned countries under OFAC rules.

E.

A subsidiary of a legal entity of the US, which is formally registered in a foreign country, is exempt from OFAC rules.

Question 65

The chief compliance officer (CCO) at a bank approved offering trade finance services to a company which is established within a country with a weak democratic system routinely reviews news on upcoming targeted economic sanction regulations in the EU, a major import partner for the country's production of crude oil.

Which of the following pieces of news would be of greatest concern?

Options:

A.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on refined oil products.

B.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on oil extraction equipment

C.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new export control regime for electronic equipment

D.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new import restriction regime for goods coming from countries that do not respect human rights

Question 66

An AML analyst at a financial institution is examining an alert generated by the automated transaction monitoring system to determine whether the alert should be escalated to the AML unit for further investigation or whether it can be archived as a false positive.

Which action might be reasonable for the AML analyst to take?

Options:

A.

Restrict the client's access to the account

B.

Request information from the relationship manager assigned to the account that caused the alert

C.

Perform below-the-line testing to ensure the automated monitoring system is operating effectively

D.

Send a request for information to the counterparty bank involved in the transaction that caused the alert

Question 67

Which ML/TF risks are associated with cryptoassets? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Devaluation

B.

Smart contract vulnerabilities

C.

Potential for anonymity

D.

Global reach

E.

High transaction fees

F.

Use to layer illicit funds

Question 68

A bank has joined a public-private partnership (PPP) to work with law enforcement and regulators on combating financial crime. However, the bank's data protection officer is concerned about sharing sensitive customer data, and the compliance officer is worried about potential delays in receiving useful information from the government.

Which of the following best describes a benefit of PPPs in fighting financial crime?

Options:

A.

PPPs improve financial crime detection and prevention by sharing intelligence between banks and law enforcement.

B.

PPPs help banks reduce compliance costs by automating information sharing.

C.

PPPs allow banks to manage their own suspicious activity report (SAR) filing process without the need to involve the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU).

D.

PPPs maximize the efficiency of the bank's compliance program by providing real-time intelligence from law enforcement.

Question 69

What are the roles of a government Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Disseminate analysis of suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports to foreign judicial systems to enhance their anti-money laundering and terrorist financing investigations and prosecutions

B.

Receive reports of suspicious transactions and suspicious activities from reporting institutions or obliged institutions

C.

Disseminate the analysis of suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports to local law enforcement agencies and foreign FIUs to combat money laundering

D.

Investigate and where appropriate prosecute all suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports received from reporting institutions or obliged institutions

E.

Analyze all suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports received from reporting institutions or obliged institutions

Question 70

A large financial institution (FI) is considering expanding business to an area of the world with weak AML laws. The risk-based assessment indicates that the location will increase the FI's risk appetite beyond the stated acceptable amount.

Which risk factors should be used to identify the priority of the FI?

Options:

A.

Cash-intensive businesses risks

B.

Unknown third-party risks

C.

Geographic risks

D.

Anonymous transactions risks

Question 71

Which statement is the most accurate describing who must comply with Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions?

Options:

A.

All US citizens and permanent residents while located in the US, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals within the United States

B.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities excluding their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

C.

All US citizens except those with dual nationality, US permanent residents, all US incorporated entities, and all individuals within the United States

D.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

Question 72

Which of the following best describes the degree of cooperation between regulatory authorities, law enforcement agencies, and Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) during money laundering investigations, including cross-border cases?

Options:

A.

Regulatory authorities primarily work independently but share information when requested by international law enforcement agencies.

B.

FIUs primarily handle reporting from financial institutions, while regulatory authorities and law enforcement agencies are limited to enforcing domestic AML laws without international cooperation.

C.

Law enforcement agencies and FIUs only cooperate during domestic investigations, leaving cross-border investigations to international organizations like INTERPOL.

D.

Regulatory authorities, law enforcement agencies, and FIUs share intelligence and coordinate efforts to streamline cross-border money laundering investigations, often through formal agreements.

Question 73

A customer frequently deposits large amounts of cash into an online gambling account and requests withdrawals shortly after with minimal gambling activity.

What is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the gambling and gaming industry?

Options:

A.

The customer is attempting to convert illicit funds into “clean” withdrawals

B.

The customer is attempting to avoid high fees by minimizing gambling activity

C.

The customer is testing the gaming platform’s payout system for potential fraud

D.

The customer is a high-risk gambler who regularly places large bets

Question 74

Which step should financial institutions take when complying with sanctions requirements?

Options:

A.

Change the risk profile to "high-risk" if an existing customer becomes a sanctioned entity and continue monitoring further transactions.

B.

Adopt automatic screening systems to detect designated persons and entities.

C.

Conduct enhanced due diligence for prohibited entities on the sanctions list.

D.

Freeze the funds or assets of designated persons and entities once this decision is approved by the board.

Question 75

Which of the following businesses require enhanced or additional scenarios for identifying anomalous transactions? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Companies operating in cash intense businesses not subject to licensing requirement

B.

Companies operating hospitals and health-care services

C.

Companies operating in cash intense businesses subject to licensing requirement

D.

Companies producing pharmaceutical products and medical devices, companies active in the mining industry

E.

Companies operating retail shops countrywide

Question 76

A customer of a financial Institution (Fl) complained that they had received multiple emails appearing to originate from the Fl urging them to click on a link or open a remittance attachment for confirmation. After opening the attachment, the customer later realized that funds had been systematically transferred out of their bank account without their knowledge

Which type of cybercrime is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Vishing

B.

Pharming

C.

SMSishing

D.

Spear phishing

Question 77

When the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) places a jurisdiction on the list of "jurisdictions under increased monitoring," also known as the "grey list," the jurisdiction:

Options:

A.

Accepts to participate in an off-cycle FATF mutual evaluation to be held within the next 12 months.

B.

Must pay a fine to be removed from the list before the next FATF plenary.

C.

Has committed to swiftly resolving the deficiencies identified in a FATF mutual evaluation.

D.

Poses a high money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing risk and must be restricted from accessing the international financial system.

Question 78

Which statement about the extraterritorial reach of US laws and legislation is accurate?

Options:

A.

The Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) extraterritorial reach requires that the Travel Rule be applied to all financial institutions globally, including all USD transactions

B.

The Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 (AML Act) extraterritorial reach covers all USD transactions throughout the global economy

C.

The Office of Foreign Assets Control's (OFAC's) economic and trade sanctions may pose extraterritorial risks for financial institutions and businesses outside of the US

D.

Section 319(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act extraterritorial reach permits the seizure of funds from a correspondent bank account in the US that have been opened and maintained for the foreign bank

Question 79

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

B.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

C.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

Question 80

Which red flags could indicate increased terror financing and money laundering risks related to cultural objects? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Engagement of third-party art advisors as representatives at art auctions

B.

High-quality single pieces of significant value sold on social media platforms

C.

Use of art and antiquity experts to verify an item's authenticity

D.

Paying fair market value or premium prices for valuable art, gems, or precious metals at auction

E.

Use of art storage facilities located in tax-free zones

Question 81

In the process of mutual evaluations and subsequent follow-ups used by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) to assess the quality of various jurisdictions' AML controls, the FATF:

Options:

A.

imposes economic sanctions on jurisdictions with lax AML controls to force them to strengthen their controls.

B.

conducts on-site inspections of financial institutions in jurisdictions with lax AML controls to identify deficiencies and recommend improvements.

C.

publishes annual reports ranking all member jurisdictions based on their self-assessment of AML controls.

D.

conducts a peer review process whereby member countries assess the AML controls of other jurisdictions and provide recommendations for improvement.

Question 82

Which of the following is a broader risk specific to casinos and gambling?

Options:

A.

Low thresholds for transactions

B.

Frequent use of cash

C.

Cross-border transactions

D.

Weak KYC policies and procedures

Question 83

Which line of defense would be tasked with interpreting new AML regulations and revising training for client-facing relationship managers?

Options:

A.

The first line

B.

The second line

C.

Senior management

D.

The third line

Question 84

Which characteristic of accountants is most attractive to those looking to launder funds using an accountant or accountancy firm?

Options:

A.

Accountants can prepare ledgers and spreadsheets, draft annual returns and make payments to government offices

B.

Accountants can advise on the structuring of companies as well as ensure compliance with local tax regulations

C.

Accountants are knowledgeable about financial management, including what to record over the course of the accounting year

D.

Accountants are able to create and structure companies, falsify accounts and manipulate financial statements

Question 85

The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) in a country has received a suspicious activity report (SAR) which involves significant suspicious fund transfers, not only within its jurisdiction but also in a foreign country. Further information is required from the foreign country to determine whether the matter needs to be referred for prosecution locally.

Which of the following statements is true in this scenario?

Options:

A.

It is against international laws on data protection to access information from foreign countries

B.

Sovereignty of nations means that information cannot be accessed from foreign countries

C.

Any information related to money laundering can be received from any organization at any time regardless of jurisdiction

D.

Countries that are members of the Egmont Group can request assistance for information from each other

Question 86

Which should be provided to the board of directors or designated specialized committee when preparing suspicious activity reports (SARs)?

Options:

A.

Statistical data regarding SARs filed during the reported period

B.

All possible details of SARs filed during the reported period

C.

Copies of all SARs filed during the reported period

D.

Names of all customers subject to SARs filed during the reported period

Question 87

What are the primary advantages of using open-source tools in financial crime investigations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Partial automation of data collection and analysis

B.

Cost-effective access to a wide range of data

C.

Real-time monitoring of selected transactions and data sources

D.

Ability to conduct investigations with minimal human oversight

E.

Enhanced ability to identity connections across various data sets

Question 88

To provide aid in investigating a cross-border money laundering case, a Financial Intelligence Unit (PIU) that is a member of the Egmont Group can:

Options:

A.

directly contact financial institutions in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

B.

directly contact other FlUs in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

C.

deputize its law enforcement investigators to assist in a material ongoing investigation in another country

D.

assist law enforcement in another country with a material ongoing investigation.

Question 89

Which of the below would be relevant money laundering red flags for life insurance companies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Paying premium several years in advance and terminating early for a refund

B.

Natural persons having more than one insurance policy

C.

High-premium life insurances that provide high payouts

D.

Regularly switching policies and accepting penalties

E.

Beneficiary payouts to elderly people

Question 90

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

Question 91

According to guidelines issued by Basel Committee on Banking Supervision relating to corporate governance principles for banks, what is the role of the board of directors in addressing an institution's AML oversight and governance?

Options:

A.

The board of directors should be responsible for overseeing the management of the bank's compliance risk but not involved in establishing a compliance policy that explains the processes by which compliance risks are to be identified and managed throughout the organization.

B.

The board of directors should establish a compliance function and approve the bank's policies for identifying, assessing, monitoring, reporting, and advising on compliance risk.

C.

The compliance function must have sufficient authority, stature, independence, and resources to be effective on its own and should not have access to the board of directors.

D.

The compliance function should report directly to the CEO concerning the bank's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and standards and only update the board of directors on the bank's efforts in managing compliance risk when required.

Question 92

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

Question 93

What is the primary purpose of a risk appetite statement (RAS) in an organization and how should it be effectively communicated and implemented?

Options:

A.

An RAS defines the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives and should be communicated clearly to all stakeholders with corresponding controls implemented

B.

An RAS is a detailed plan for managing operational risks and does not cover strategic or financial risks

C.

An RAS is a formal document meant for regulatory compliance that does not influence day-to-day risk management practices within the organization

D.

An RAS is used to outline the risk tolerance limits to external stakeholders and does not need to be communicated within the organization

Page: 1 / 23
Total 313 questions