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IIA IIA-CIA-Part1 Dumps

Essentials of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

Question 1

Tr» chiet audit executive (CAE) of large organization is preparing job descriptions to hire five new general internal audit staff, two new IT auditors and a senior auditer how is the CAE likely to describe IT requirements for me general internal audit statt positions?

Options:

A.

The candidate must be able to apply data analytics tolls methodologies

B.

The candidate must be able to evaluate IT governance and cybersecurity frameworks.

C.

The candidate must be able to understand IT-elated risk and general controls

D.

The candidate must be able to execute web servers, applications, and databases testing procedures.

Question 2

Which of the following demonstrates that the internal audit activity exercises due professional care?

Options:

A.

Supervisors provide feedback to internal auditors after workpapers are reviewed

B.

A self-assessment is conducted through the quality assurance and improvement program every five years

C.

Internal auditors are required to give absolute assurance of regulatory compliance

D.

The chief audit executive reports functionally to the board

Question 3

Which of the following is true regarding risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Impact and likelihood should be assessed together.

B.

Impact and likelihood should be given equal consideration by the internal auditor.

C.

Impact and likelihood should be measured using quantitative methods.

D.

Impact and likelihood should be used to determine risk response.

Question 4

The internal audit activity was denied access to expenditure and budget reports because they were considered to be confidential. This situation would result in which of the following limitations of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Independence

B.

Integrity

C.

objectivity

D.

Authority

Question 5

A chief audit executive (CAE) was asked by senior management to establish and manage a risk management function. A new chief risk officer was hired a year later to assume these responsibilities. As this function was included in the current annual audit plan, the CAE engaged an external resource for a risk management engagement. Which of the following potential threats to objectivity was the CAE likely addressing?

Options:

A.

Self-review threat.

B.

Advocacy threat.

C.

Familiarity threat.

D.

Personal relationship threat.

Question 6

During a review of the procurement function, an internal auditor identified an existing control for adding new vendors into the vendor contract system. Which of the following would best help the auditor determine the adequacy of the control's design?

Options:

A.

Flowchart of the vendor addition process.

B.

Independent confirmations sent to vendors.

C.

Analysis of the control's costs and benefits.

D.

Interview with management of the procurement function.

Question 7

The internal audit activity is responsible for conducting fraud investigations. A potential fraud instance was identified during an audit engagement. The chief audit executive appoints a lead investigate. Which of the following would most likely be the next step?

Options:

A.

Ask internal auditors to gather all relevant information evidence

B.

Identify and interview witnesses first potential suspects later.

C.

Conduct a fraud risk assessment to the most vulnerable areas.

D.

Determine me competencies needed and assess whatever team members have a conflict of interest.

Question 8

An organization is implementing a new cybersecurity policy and has established a committee to ensure stakeholder alignment across the organization's infrastructure, network, and security teams. The head of the committee has asked the chief audit executive if the internal audit activity could play a role in these efforts. According to HA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate response?

Options:

A.

It is not appropriate for the internal audit activity to play a role because its independence must be protected.

B.

The internal audit activity should not participate because there are no IT auditors on staff.

C.

The internal audit activity is knowledgeable about risk and therefore should prioritize the organization's responses and control activities for the committee.

D.

The internal audit activity may assist the committee and consult with management on the organization's responses and control activities.

Question 9

What is an appropriate first step in an internal auditor’s fraud risk assessment to evaluate how the organization manages such risk?

Options:

A.

Develop preventive and detective controls

B.

Identify potential fraud scenarios

C.

Assess the impact and likelihood of fraud risks

D.

Determine fraud risk responses

Question 10

The organization's chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an immediate assurance engagement following several product recalls. However, the internal audit staff does not have the required Knowledge and experience to adequately assess all the relevant processes and procedures. According to 11A guidance, which of the following actions should the CAE take under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Use the current available resources to conduct the review and exclude those procedures that can't currently be performed.

B.

Implement an accelerated training plan to provide the audit staff with the necessary skills and knowledge to conduct the engagement.

C.

Encourage management to accept the assessed risk until the internal audit activity is able to adequately review the area.

D.

Obtain assistance for the audit team from other internal assurance providers who possess the requisite expertise in the area.

Question 11

Which of the following statements is true regarding intangible assets?

Options:

A.

The amortization period of an intangible asset cannot exceed 20 years.

B.

The cost intangible assets with indefinite lives should be amortized.

C.

Intangible assets are categorized as having either a limited life or an indefinite life.

D.

Companies should record intangible assets at fair market value

Question 12

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates an impairment to internal audit independence?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor s denied access to partner information from management of me area under review

B.

The internal auditor tarts to disclose a potential conflict of interest relationship with management of the area under review

C.

The internal auditor concludes that controls operate effectively, although he did not gather supporting evidence

D.

The internal auditor was assigned to an assurance review of an area for which he previously had responsibilities

Question 13

Which of the following scenarios depicts an appropriate role for the internal audit activity to take regarding an organization's risk management process?

Options:

A.

Internal audit designs and implements the organization's controls to help manage risk.

B.

Internal audit sets the organization's risk tolerance and promotes awareness throughout the organization.

C.

Internal audit assesses whether the organization's risk management processes are effective.

D.

Internal audit is responsible for safeguarding the organization's assets and preventing loss from occurring.

Question 14

Which type(s) of assessments in an internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program requires ongoing monitoring to evaluate internal audit activity's efficiency and effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Neither internal nor external assessment

B.

internal assessment

C.

Both internal and external assessment

D.

External assessment

Question 15

Which of the following policies promotes internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the CEO

B.

The CAE s compensation is approved by the chief financial officer

C.

The CAF's appointment is determined by the CEO

D.

The CAE reports administratively to the chief operating officer

Question 16

According to MA guidance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Coaching management in responding to risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on management's behalf.

C.

Imposing risk management processes.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

Question 17

In order for an internal auditor to assess the opportunity for fraud to occur in an organization, which of the following does the auditor first need to understand?

Options:

A.

Fraud prevention.

B.

Fraud detection.

C.

Corporate culture.

D.

Forensic analysis techniques.

Question 18

Which of the following is a preventive control the organization could implement to mitigate fraudulent activity in the accounts payable department?

Options:

A.

Delivering fraud awareness training to employees in the department.

B.

Segregating duties between employees in the department.

C.

Requesting the internal audit activity perform an independent evaluation of fraud risk in the department.

D.

Requiring accounts payable employees to sign a code of conduct awareness confirmation.

Question 19

Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing a governance risk management and compliance framework within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fewer internal audits

B.

More effective interviews

C.

Automated risk management strategy tools

D.

Reduced assurance costs

Question 20

An internal auditor is assessing fraud risks and creating a fraud risk matrix for a particular branch location. Which of the following is most likely to be included in the matrix?

Options:

A.

Risks and relevant mitigating controls.

B.

Business processes and relevant fraud risks.

C.

Fraud scenarios and relevant risks.

D.

Opportunity, rationalization, and pressure to commit fraud.

Question 21

What is expected of internal auditors in regards to due professional care?

Options:

A.

Auditors perform assurance services without regard to cost

B.

Auditors perform assurance services effectively to identify all risks

C.

Auditors perform assurance services needed to achieve the engagement's objectives

D.

Auditors perform assurance services to guarantee all significant risks will be addressed

Question 22

Which of the following would best describe a control implemented to detect cash register disbursement fraud in a large retail store?

Options:

A.

Separate the duties of processing and authorizing refunds on merchandise

B.

Post signs in the register area prompting customers to ask for and examine their sales receipts

C.

Periodically count the cash in the register and compare it to the expected amount

D.

Use cash registers with internal tapes that are tamper proof and that require a manager to process voids or refunds

Question 23

The accounting department asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a review of suspicious transactions The CAE was an accounting manager for the organization six months ago How should she respond to the request?

Options:

A.

Decline, if it is consulting engagement because she recently worked in the organization s accounting department

B.

Accept, 11 is an assurance engagement, as she has been out of the department long enough to not impair objectivity.

C.

Inform the accounting department mat me engagement can take place m the future once she has been removed from accounting for a longer period of time.

D.

Accept, it is a consulting engagement with agreed-upon scope and services to be provided by me internal audit activity.

Question 24

Whch ol the following would show appropriate disclosure of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) documented in the personal file a critical conflict of interest involving an internal audit on a upcoming contracting engagement.

B.

The CAE discussed with the board an issue regarding the internal activity performing an IT engagement without proper skills and knowledge.

C.

The CAE met with the peer review team to discuss an internal auditor’s failure to meet the annual requirements for continuing professional education.

D.

The CAE revealed to revealed to operational manager that he failed to appropriately consider risks while he was developing the audit plan.

Question 25

Which of the following is true regarding the stakeholder theory of corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

An organization has a fiduciary duty to put shareholders' needs first

B.

Customers' needs are the primary responsibility of the organization

C.

Competitors are considered stakeholders of the organization

D.

Employees are the organization's best assets and primary responsibility

Question 26

Which of the following actions by an internal auditor would be the most relevant to determine the effectiveness of controls?

Options:

A.

Participate in a fraud risk-assessment session as an in-house facilitator.

B.

Send regular written updates to senior management on new control-related regulations.

C.

Lead a seminar on internal controls and provide numerous examples to the audience.

D.

Conduct a surprise inventory count at the raw materials warehouse.

Question 27

According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding an effective governance process?

Options:

A.

It stipulates that risk needs to be considered when making strategic decisions.

B.

It encourages strict segregation of the risk management and internal control processes.

C.

It relies on effective risk management when establishing the organization's risk appetite.

D.

It relies on the board to devise ways to communicate the effectiveness of internal controls.

Question 28

Which of the following actions would best help the internal audit activity promote continuous improvement in control effectiveness within the organization?

Options:

A.

Determining whether management measures and monitors the costs and benefits of controls.

B.

Providing training on controls and ongoing self-monitoring processes.

C.

Developing flowcharts to obtain information about control design adequacy.

D.

Identifying objectives and the risks involved in achieving them.

Question 29

An internal auditor notes that inventory counts are conducted on Mondays only and that all documentation is on paper as there are no computers in the underground warehouses. Also she notices that the person responsible for receiving the goods is the same one who distributes materials and spare parts Finally, she sees that spare parts are written off and taken by the heads of mining units to different underground locations to wait for their turn to be installed. Which of the described findings requires more consideration from a fraud risk perspective?

Options:

A.

The job responsibilities of the warehouse employee compromise segregation of duties

B.

Spare parts are written off before their actual usage and installation

C.

Warehouse management is conducted on paper and requires further investigation

D.

The inventory counts take place on specific days of the week for no apparent reason

Question 30

Who is held responsible for oversight of the organization's risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Operational management.

B.

Board of directors.

C.

Internal auditors.

D.

Head of risk management.

Question 31

Which of the following statements is correct regarding disclosure of conformance or Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal audit activity that has been in existence fewer than five years cannot Indicate that it is operating in conformance with the Standards because it has not yet undergone an external assessment.

B.

Once an external assessment validates conformance with the Standards, the internal audit activity may continue to use the statement until the next external assessment.

C.

If it has been more than five years since the last external assessment was conducted, the Internal audit activity must cease indicating that it operates in conformance with the Standards.

D.

The chief audit executive must disclose every instance of noncompliance with the Code of Ethics or the Standards.

Question 32

Which of the following actions should the organization's governing body perform to provide the most effective governance over the organization's culture?

Options:

A.

Coordinate control activities.

B.

Provide direction.

C.

Design key controls.

D.

Deliver assurance.

Question 33

What is the primary reason a chief audit executive should dedicate time and resources to support continuing professional development of internal audit staff?

Options:

A.

To ensure that internal audit staff maintains high overall job satisfaction.

B.

To ensure that internal audit staff acquired continuing professional education credits timely.

C.

To ensure that top risks are mitigated to an acceptance level.

D.

To ensure that internal audit staff have the competency to address high-priority risks.

Question 34

An organization’s board of directors has decided that the internal audit activity must have greater access to different pans of the organization in order to perform their assurance work effectively Which of !he following areas is the board seeking to improve by making this change?

Options:

A.

Internal audit authority.

B.

Internal audit reporting structure.

C.

Internal audit independence and objectivity.

D.

Internal audit interaction with the board

Question 35

Which of the following options describes the reason that conformance with The IIA's Code of Ethics is mandatory for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder confidence in the competence of the internal audit activity and of professional internal auditors.

B.

Ethical compliance is necessary for internal auditors and the internal audit activity to accept responsibility for providing g absolute assurance about the organization's risk management.

C.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder trust and confidence in the validity of the profession of internal auditing and the internal audit activity's findings.

D.

The internal audit activity's ethical compliance sets the tone for the ethical compliance by the organization's board, management, and employees.

Question 36

The collaborating style for conflict resolution, where the parties promote assertiveness and work together to develop a mutually beneficial solution, is best used in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Parties are confident of the solution and are ready to defend it.

B.

There is a high level of trust among the parties.

C.

Resolution is time sensitive and a quick decision is necessary.

D.

The issue is more important to one patty than the others.

Question 37

According to IIA guidance, which of the following training methods is considered most effective in assisting new entry-level internal auditors in achieving competence with internal audit practices in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Pursuance of an internal audit certification.

B.

Enrollment in internal audit practice webinars.

C.

Attendance of internal audit workshops.

D.

Involvement in a variety of audit assignments.

Question 38

During the closing meeting of a procurement audit, the business manager disagrees with the observation presented by the engagement supervisor and accuses the team of not understanding the procurement objectives The engagement supervisor blames the manager for impeding the audit What skillset should the chief audit executive utilize to manage this situation?

Options:

A.

The ability to negotiate

B.

The ability to use analytical tools

C.

The ability to foresee issues

D.

The ability to manage conflict

Question 39

During an audit engagement, a junior staff internal auditor begins to suspect a fraud may have occurred involving a friend of the engagement supervisor. He reports his concerns to the engagement supervisor, who disagrees with his suspicions and directs him to continue with the engagement as planned. Given the circumstance, what is the most appropriate action for the junior auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Document in the workpapers and expand testing.

B.

Continue with the engagement as planned, per the more senior auditor.

C.

Report the suspected fraud to law enforcement officials and seek financial restitution.

D.

Escalate the concern to the chief audit executive.

Question 40

During an audit of the purchasing department, an internal auditor identifies significant issues that could affect the organization's financial reporting. Management disagrees with the audit results. Which of the following responses best demonstrates the internal auditor has the necessary competencies related to professional Judgment and conflict management?

Options:

A.

The auditor maintains his convictions and continues to proceed with the review process despite management's concerns related to the results.

B.

The auditor bypasses management, discusses the results with the board, and seeks the board's input on how best to address the recommendations.

C.

The auditor consults with other members of the audit team, and together they develop alternative recommendations that management may be more likely to accept.

D.

The auditor meets with management to discuss the results and obtain a better understanding of the specific concerns.

Question 41

According to MA guidance, which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The IIA's Code of Ethics must exist outside of the charter to maintain independence.

B.

The charter must be approved by both senior management and the board.

C.

The nature of consulting services does not need to be defined in the Internal audit charter.

D.

The charter provides a framework for performing a broad range of value-added audit services.

Question 42

An organization's fraud policies and procedures dictate that the internal audit activity does not have primary responsibility for conducting fraud investigations and should, in fact, refrain from involvement in investigations. Which of the following activities would be considered acceptable for internal auditors to perform of this organization?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the effectiveness of fraud investigations

B.

Oversee and monitor senior management s approach to manage fraud risks

C.

Set the tone for fraud risk management within an organization

D.

Evaluate whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement due to fraud

Question 43

Senior management has requested that the internal audit activity review and amend policies where necessary when auditing the purchasing department. To which of the following would the chief audit executive most likely give primary consideration when responding to this request?

Options:

A.

Auditor competency.

B.

Internal audit independence.

C.

Auditor objectivity.

D.

Engagement scope.

Question 44

Which data analytics competency is critical for new internal auditors to possess in order to plan and perform internal audit engagements in conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Describe data analytics and the application of data analytics methods in internal auditing.

B.

Apply data analytics methods in internal auditing.

C.

Evaluate the use of data analytics in an internal audit.

D.

Understand the definition of data analytics only.

Question 45

When beginning an engagement to assess the effectiveness of the organization's newly revamped risk management processes, which of the following should internal auditors review first?

Options:

A.

Key risk disclosures in the annual report.

B.

Existing risk assessment and identification processes.

C.

Organizational strategy and business plans.

D.

Risk mitigation plans and risk responses.

Question 46

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities would typically be examined when using the maturity model approach for assessing an organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Monitor and review

B.

Performance measurement.

C.

Setting the context.

D.

Communication.

Question 47

An organization sells products through distributors. The organization's chief audit executive insists that the organization's code of conduct be applicable to their distributors as well. Which of the following risks would this mitigate?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Market manipulation

C.

intellectual property leakage

D.

Reputational damage

Question 48

The chief audit executive (CAE) has hired a new internal auditor who was immediately assigned to a procurement function audit. Because the new auditor's name is similar to that of the procurement manager, some staff members think the two are related, although they are not. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Take no action, as there is no impairment to independence.

B.

Remove the new internal auditor from the engagement team.

C.

Discuss the matter with the appropriate personnel to alleviate concerns.

D.

Closely supervise the new auditor and carefully review his work.

Question 49

What is the primary reason for establishing a continuing professional development program within an organization's internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To ensure all internal audit responsibilities can be met

B.

To ensure all audit staff members are capable of performing a quality self-assessment.

C.

To ensure that each auditor maintains responsibility for his own professional development.

D.

To attract the best and most talented candidates in the profession

Question 50

Management has implemented a segregation-of-duties policy for handling inventory. Which of the following fraud risks would be more concerning to an internal auditor following the implementation of this new policy?

Options:

A.

The risk of collusion between parties.

B.

The risk of falsified reconciliations.

C.

The risk of low-liquidity inventory.

D.

The risk of damages to the inventory.

Question 51

Which of the following scenarios violates The IIA's standard regarding internal audit independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports on the internal audit activity's day-to-day tasks and responsibilities to the CEO.

B.

An assessment of the risk management function is reviewed by an outside consulting firm because the CAE is temporarily fulfilling the role of risk manager.

C.

The CAE regularly meets with the organization's chief risk officer, who validates all reported audit findings and dictates which will be Included In the package to the audit committee.

D.

The internal audit activity will experience staffing shortages for the next six months due to planned and unplanned leaves of absence; therefore the CAE proposed including fewer audits in the annual audit plan compared to the previous financial year.

Question 52

Which of the following best demonstrates organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the CEO.

B.

The CAE's compensation is approved by the chief financial officer.

C.

The CAE's appointment Is determined by the CEO

D.

The CAE reports administratively to the chief operating officer.

Question 53

Which of the following best describes the differences between internal auditors and external auditors?

Options:

A.

External auditors are concerned about misstatements in the organization's financial statements, while internal auditors are concerned about fraudulent activities that could impact the organization’s financial statements

B.

External auditors are required to hold an accounting designation and are responsible for continuing their education, while internal auditors are required to hold an internal audit designation.

C.

External auditors focus on the accuracy and understandability of financial statements, while internal auditors help the organization accomplish its objectives by evaluating and improving the effectiveness of the control process.

D.

External auditors are not employees of the organization, while internal auditors are employees who have in-depth knowledge of the business, making their opinion more reliable to the board and senior management.

Question 54

Which of the following is most important for an internal auditor to consider when developing an approach for an audit engagement in a foreign country?

Options:

A.

Currency exchange rates, as they relate to internal audit-related expenses.

B.

Differences in typical working hours, compared to other countries.

C.

The effects of subtle language nuances on translations.

D.

Accepted practices that may be illegal in other countries.

Question 55

According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors' use of technology-based techniques?

Options:

A.

Auditors must consider using technology if it advances the engagement, even when implementation costs exceed the benefits.

B.

Auditors must considering using technology to reduce the organization's risk by detecting all instances of fraud.

C.

Auditors must consider using technology only when the Implementation cost does not exceed benefits.

D.

Auditors must consider using technology in a variety of engagements to ensure that their work is substantiated and infallible.

Question 56

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be included in an internal audit charter to help establish the authority of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Outline expectations for communicating the results of all aspects of the internal audit activity.

B.

Declare the internal audit activity’s accountability for safeguarding assets and confidentiality.

C.

Document the chief audit executive’s (CAE's) reporting line

D.

Document agreement between the CAE and the individual to whom the CAE reports

Question 57

Which of the following would be considered a primary control to reduce the risk associated with setting up duplicate vendors?

Options:

A.

Receipt of a signed and approved vendor setup form.

B.

Segregation of duties between setting up vendors and making vendor payments.

C.

System validation and edit checks on vendor identification number

D.

A vendor setup policy and procedure.

Question 58

According to IIA guidance, the nature and scope of assurance and consulting services to be offered must be clearly delineated in which of the following internal audit documents?

Options:

A.

The internal audit policies and procedures handbook.

B.

The internal audit charter.

C.

The internal audit mission statement.

D.

Each internal audit engagement letter.

Question 59

A technology company recently hired an entry-level internal auditor. To achieve conformance with the Standards, which of the following must the newly hired internal auditor possess?

Options:

A.

An understanding of fraud and fraud risk.

B.

IT audit expertise.

C.

Industry-specific knowledge

D.

At least one audit-related certification

Question 60

A chief audit executive assigned an internal auditor to perform an assurance engagement. The auditor concluded with a major audit finding based on hearsay evidence Which of the following competencies did the auditor appear to be lacking?

Options:

A.

Effective communication skills

B.

Risk-based assurance knowledge

C.

Demonstration of due professional care.

D.

Demonstration of ethical behavior

Question 61

An organization's operations management is aware of existing internal control deficiencies but they lack the competency to execute internal control measures. Which of the following actions if taken by the internal audit activity is appropriate to assist operating management in achieving continuous improvement on internal controls?

Options:

A.

Foster the importance of the control environment

B.

Provide training on controls and on self-monitoring processes

C.

Recommend installing an enterprisewide risk management system.

D.

Conduct more assurance assignments on high risk areas

Question 62

Which of the following represents a deficiency in the control environment?

Options:

A.

The sales department has failed to achieve targets for the last nine months.

B.

Employees report suspicious activity by calling the organization's ethics hotline.

C.

Hiring procedures do not include background checks for prospective job candidates.

D.

Management reports three potential ethics issues to the board of directors.

Question 63

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the quality assurance and improvement program (GAIP)?

Options:

A.

As the head of the organization, the CEO selects and appoints the external quality assessment team to perform the OAIP reviews.

B.

The chief audit executive determines the scope and frequency of both internal and external quality assessments based on the availability and capacity of resources in accordance with the annual internal audit plan.

C.

Minutes of meetings held with senior management and the board to discuss the scope and frequency of internal and external assessments support the OAIP reporting requirement.

D.

The internal audit activity needs to assess whether each engagement on the annual internal audit plan is conducted in conformance with the Standards.

Question 64

Which of the following is considered to be a threat to the internal auditor's objectivity?

Options:

A.

The auditor drafted the operational procedures of the area that she is currently auditing.

B.

The auditor received a bonus that was approved by the board of directors.

C.

The assigned auditor recommended operational procedures for the organization.

D.

The assigned auditor rotated out of the same business activity three years ago

Question 65

Which of the following situations presents the lowest risk of impairing an internal audit activity's independence?

Options:

A.

Senior management has the authority to terminate the chief audit executive

B.

Senior management has control over the internal audit activity's budget

C.

Senior management provides feedback on the scope of the internal audit plan.

D.

Senior management limits the internal audit activity's access to the board

Question 66

Which of the following would be the most effective in helping to detect fraud?

Options:

A.

Code of conduct.

B.

Exit interviews.

C.

Fraud awareness training

D.

Employee promotion policy.

Question 67

A newly hired internal auditor is performing an engagement that requires significant IT expertise that he does not possess. If the auditor does not alert the chief audit executive about his lack of expertise and decides to perform the engagement anyhow, which principle of the IIA's Code of Ethics would he violate?

Options:

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Competency.

C.

Effective communication

D.

Professionalism

Question 68

Which of the following is a limitation of detective internal controls in fraud management?

Options:

A.

Implementation costs tend to be higher than the expected benefits.

B.

They tend to be easy for fraudsters to circumvent.

C.

They are not designed to improve efficiency of operations.

D.

They are not effective in preventing fraud.

Question 69

Anew internal auditor suspects fraud is taking place. Which action should the new auditor take?

Options:

A.

Collect relevant audit evidence and begin working with management of the area to investigate the fraud.

B.

Inform the chief audit executive and meet with the suspect to determine whether the person committed fraud.

C.

Document supporting information and recommend an investigation to the appropriate audit management.

D.

Evaluate existing controls and implement new procedures to mitigate the opportunity for fraud.

Question 70

The results of an assessment of the adequacy of controls would be considered incomplete or misleading unless the internal auditor considers which of the following?

Options:

A.

Number of mitigating controls.

B.

Effectiveness of the control environment

C.

Use of computer-assisted auditing techniques.

D.

IT security controls

Question 71

A chief audit executive (CAE) has just joined an organization with an existing internal audit activity. Based on her review of the current organizational structure, the CAE determines that the internal audit activity lacks adequate independence. Which of the following actions is the CAE's best step to take next to move the internal audit activity toward organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Ensure the limitations are disclosed through communication with the board and senior management, so that the internal audit activity can continue operating under the same organizational structure.

B.

Request that the board restructure the reporting line of the internal audit activity to ensure the CAE has unrestricted access to the board.

C.

Rotate internal audit assignments among members of the internal audit activity to minimize the effects of the current structure.

D.

Train internal auditors about organizational independence and have them sign an acknowledgment of understanding.

Question 72

Senior management is eager to assess the organization's risks with regard to electricity sales processes, but the senior management team does not know where to start. How can the internal audit activity assist?

Options:

A.

Outsource the identification of best practices for risk management to an external third party.

B.

Perform an audit engagement to identify risk management practices deployed in electricity sales processes.

C.

Recommend reporting the lack of risk management to government authorities and request guidance.

D.

Facilitate a self-assessment workshop with the employees responsible for process execution.

Question 73

A chief audit executive has reported to the board that the internal audit activity is lacking financial accounting knowledge for specific audit projects. Upon approval from the board which of the following hiring approaches is best in this situation?

Options:

A.

An inbound rotational program

B.

A full-time permanent recruitment

C.

An outbound rotational program

D.

A guest auditor program

Question 74

An experienced internal auditor is planning an assurance engagement of the organization's sales activities. During process walkthroughs and interviews, many sales representatives expressed concerns about management's escalating demands to meet the organization's sales goals. According to the MA guidance, which of the following is the best application of due professional care in planning the engagement?

Options:

A.

Disregard the complaints because the information isn't reliable and isn't sufficient to support engagement conclusions and results.

B.

Consider the significance of the risks related to the complaints and develop appropriate assurance procedures in work programs.

C.

Disregard the complaints because using them would violate the confidentiality principle.

D.

Discuss management's needs and expectations related to including the complaints in the audit scope.

Question 75

An internal auditor has documented several instances in which management asked employees to ad against the policies and procedures. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Report the non-compliance cases to the board of directors.

B.

Recommend that management update its policies and procedures based on the circumstances.

C.

Investigate the rationale for management's actions.

D.

Recommend those employees to report the cases through the designed whistleblowing channel for the appropriate treatment.

Question 76

There is a growing perception that employees generally evade their responsibilities. What impact will an internal auditor most likely see during an engagement?

Options:

A.

Supervisors are likely to reduce their level of supervision and increase span of control.

B.

Employees are likely to be supervised closely and given little freedom.

C.

Peer employees are likely to trust one another, but distrust management.

D.

Employees are likely to join forces to accomplish their duties as teams.

Question 77

At a construction company, supervisors are entitled to bonus payments if there are no safety rule violations on their teams. There are several channels available for workers to report accidents and violations, and all reported violations are investigated. Bonus payment calculations are approved by managers and the head of safety. Which of the controls best addresses the risk that supervisors will conceal accidents on their teams in order to receive the bonus?

Options:

A.

The investigation of all reported violations

B.

The authorization process for bonus calculations

C.

The variety of reporting channels

D.

The presence of safety rules

Question 78

Which of the following is true about corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Social and environmental considerations are required parts of an organization's decision making

B.

The Global Reporting Initiative provides standards on required disclosures of CSR.

C.

CSR activities are overseen and managed by operational management.

D.

Internal auditors can provide assurance on reported sustainability results.

Question 79

An internal auditor is assessing how the organization processes financial transactions and whether written policies and procedures are followed. The auditor requested to meet with certain employees to understand their related roles and responsibilities. However the employees refuse to meet with the auditor claiming they are too busy. Which of the following responses would best demonstrate the auditor's conflict-resolution skills?

Options:

A.

The auditor considers the employees to be unresponsive and proceeds to document the actions and concerns as a scope limitation that can affect the engagement

B.

The auditor considers other options to determine whether the employees are processing financial transactions as required by the organization

C.

The auditor meets with senior management of the organization to discuss the employees' behavior and possible resolutions that would satisfy all parties

D.

The auditor meets with the department supervisor and staff to discuss the employees' actions in order to obtain an understands and potential resolution

Question 80

Which of the following is ultimately responsible for the continuing professional development of internal audit activity staff?

Options:

A.

Individual internal auditors.

B.

Chief audit executive.

C.

Board of directors.

D.

CEO.

Question 81

An external assessment was performed as part of the organization's quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following conclusions confirms that the internal audit activity is in conformance with the Standards'?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive is well qualified and has responsibilities over operational areas that the internal audit activity assesses.

B.

Periodic self-assessments are assigned to entry-level internal audit staff to support their continuing professional development.

C.

All audit workpapers are reviewed and signed by the engagement supervisor before the audit report is issued.

D.

Employees who rotate into the internal audit activity from other areas of the organization are assigned to audit areas where they previously worked, to take advantage of their operational expertise and experience.

Question 82

Which of the following should play a leading role in overseeing ihe ethical atmosphere of an organization?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity.

B.

Operating management.

C.

Senior management.

D.

Board of directors.

Question 83

Which of the following frauds is most likely to occur in the accounts payable function?

Options:

A.

Factitious vendors are entered into the system, possibly resulting in improper disbursements.

B.

Bad debt expense is intentionally omitted from the financial statements.

C.

Certain costs are capitalized, rather than expensed.

D.

A related party receives benefits not appropriate in an arm's-length transaction.

Question 84

The principle that "no action should be taken that may harm in some way the least fortunate people" is an expression of which of the following more general ethical principles?

Options:

A.

Utilitarian benefits.

B.

Personal virtues.

C.

Religious injunctions.

D.

Distributive justice.

Question 85

The chief audit executive (CAE) annually develops a budget and resource plan and submits it to the board for approval. This action best fulfills which of the following responsibilities of the CAE?

Options:

A.

The responsibility to maintain organizational independence.

B.

The responsibility to perform engagements with due professional care.

C.

The responsibility to communicate corrective action plans to the board.

D.

The responsibility to define the purpose of the internal audit activity.

Question 86

What is the best course of action when the internal audit activity does not have the knowledge necessary to perform a planned audit of the organization's new IT data backup process?

Options:

A.

Postpone the audit engagement to a later date.

B.

Recruit and hire a full-time staff auditor who is proficient in data backup processes.

C.

Change the plan from an assurance engagement to a consulting engagement.

D.

Provide data backup training to the engagement supervisor.

Question 87

During an audit of a foreign subsidiary an internal audit team discovered that products were sold to a prohibited country due to sanctions. What is the best course of action for the internal audit team?

Options:

A.

Include the facts m the engagement communications

B.

Inform me external auditors of the violation.

C.

Report the violation to the government regulators

D.

Consult with the legal department

Question 88

A global manufacturing company has three regional offices. The chief audit executive (CAE) is concerned about the cost of an upcoming external quality assessment of the internal audit activity. The last external assessment was performed six years ago. Recently, the internal audit staff at one of the regional offices performed an internal assessment. To ensure conformance with the Standards, what is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Request from the audit committee an additional budget and an extension so that the external assessment could be performed next year.

B.

Review the results of the internal assessment, identify weaknesses, and implement improvements at the remaining offices.

C.

Request the regional office that performed the internal assessment to perform an assessment of the remaining offices.

D.

Request that an external assessor validate the results of the internal assessment and review the remaining offices.

Question 89

Which of the following best illustrates the principle of due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity uses key performance indicators for all staff members after all audit engagements.

B.

The internal auditors provide assurance to third parties indicating that their work was properly supervised.

C.

The internal auditors demonstrate they have an understanding of engagement objectives and scope.

D.

The internal auditors are heavily involved in training and development to enhance their skills.

Question 90

Which risk management activity would cause the internal auditor to assume a management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Assessing management's acceptance of risk.

B.

Reviewing a cybersecurity risk report issued by management.

C.

Developing a list of emerging risks for management.

D.

Prioritizing risks for management.

Question 91

Which of the following is true regarding internal audit role's in The IIA's Three Lines Model?

Options:

A.

As internal control is part of risk management, the internal audit role in risk management implies reduced emphasis on internal control.

B.

Internal audit can blur the distinction between the second and the third lines as long as value is added.

C.

Internal audit cannot rely on other assurance providers when opining on the effectiveness of risk management.

D.

Internal audit should be aligned with first- and second-line functions through effective communication, cooperation, and collaboration.

Question 92

Which statement accurately describes the authority of the internal audit activity as outlined in the audit charter?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) shall report directly to the board and administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE shall provide senior management and the board with performance updates quarterly.

C.

The internal audit team shall have full access to the organization's records, physical property, and personnel required to conduct audit engagements.

D.

The internal audit activity shall maintain a quality assurance and improvement program in conformance with the Standards.

Question 93

An internal auditor creates a professional development plan to obtain more experience in the organization's environmental, social, and corporate governance initiatives. Which of the following would the auditor include in the plan to support these objectives?

Options:

A.

A plan to study for and obtain a certification in nonprofit management.

B.

A deadline within the individual development plan to meet the overall engagement objectives.

C.

A plan to perform a variety of engagements to develop general skills that could be used to assess environmental, social, and governance initiatives.

D.

A request to attend the organization's committee meeting that is focused on strategic community awareness.

Question 94

Which of the following would be most helpful to measure whether an internal audit activity successfully provides risk-based assurance?

Options:

A.

Percentage of highly significant risks covered by internal audit plan.

B.

Percentage of previously unknown risks identified per engagement.

C.

Percentage of internal audit staff skilled in alignment with the organization's structure and key risks.

D.

Percentage of observations made in assurance engagements compared to advisory engagements.

Question 95

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity's quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments rely solely on the review of completed audit engagements for demonstrated performance.

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for assessing the suitability and competence of an external assessor.

C.

QAIP results must first be discussed with the board and approval obtained for distribution to senior management.

D.

At the board's discretion, the frequency of external assessments can exceed the five-year guideline.

Question 96

What is the ultimate goal of establishing a robust risk management framework in an organization?

Options:

A.

To support the organization's risk culture, involving employees at all levels.

B.

To ensure that the organization attains a better financial position.

C.

To assist the organization in identifying and mitigating key risks.

D.

To facilitate the organization's achievement of business goals and objectives.

Question 97

Regarding the chief audit executive (CAE). which ot the following is considered an impairment to the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE reports administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE is asked to submit the liquidation of her travel allowances to human resources for approval.

C.

The CAE's supervisor is responsible for the risk management function.

D.

The CAE is asked to review new procedures before implementation.

Question 98

Which of the following best describes a consulting engagement rather an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Bank internal auditors review an activity checklist to determine that the loan officer followed proper procedures.

B.

The chief financial officer asks for the internal auditor's opinion regarding whether the new accounting pronouncements were properly and comprehensively adopted

C.

An internal auditor is assigned to assess whether a proposed new initiative to convert a customer service system would be cost effective.

D.

Senior management asks the internal audit activity to review compliance with customer data security regulations

Question 99

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Coaching management in responding to risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on management's behalf.

C.

Imposing risk management processes.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

Question 100

According to the Standards, in today's technology and business environments, how much computer and information systems-related knowledge and skills must an internal auditor have to be effective in fulfilling his job responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Auditors must have an IT specialty in at least one of their organization's key information technology systems.

B.

Auditors must be proficient in data analysis and computer assisted audit techniques for their organization.

C.

Auditors must understand their organization's integrated test facilities and generalized audit software.

D.

Auditors must understand their organization's IT governance, risk, and control processes.

Question 101

A chief audit executive (CAE) recruited a few new internal auditors to reduce the resource gaps identified in this year's internal audit plan. One of the new recruits has several years of experience with the organization. Ten months ago. she served as a senior supervisor in the finance department. However, for the past 10 months, she has been helping the organization with implementing a new IT system. What approach should the CAE take for the upcoming financial statement controls audit?

Options:

A.

Assign the new auditor to assist with conducting the fieldwork. but ensure that her work is reviewed by the CAE.

B.

Assign the new auditor to assist with developing the audit program, but ensure that the audit program is executed by other audit staff.

C.

Ensure that the new auditor's previous manager, and other close former coworkers, are excused during the audit.

D.

Ensure that the new auditor is responsible only for the supervisory review, but not the execution of the audit field work.

Question 102

The same internal auditor has audited the regional purchasing department annually for the last three years. The audits have shown several significant control deficiencies that have not been corrected by management. New management is in charge of this regional purchasing department, and it is time to audit the department again. What concerns should be considered prior to assigning the audit to the same auditor?

Options:

A.

Intimidation threats may compromise the auditor's objectivity due to multiple negative audit reports completed by the auditor.

B.

The auditor has reviewed the department annually for the last three years, leading to familiarity, which can impact the internal audit activity's independence.

C.

A negative cognitive bias may be in place that affects the employee's objectivity due to the recent audits with uncorrected control deficiencies.

D.

The auditor may have formed a cultural bias, as the department under review is in the auditor's geographic area.

Question 103

Which of the following is an indicator of ineffective third-party risk management?

Options:

A.

Sourcing of third parties does not follow public procurement law.

B.

Violations of service conditions trigger either fines or termination.

C.

Due diligence of third parties is conducted only after contract signing.

D.

The right-to-audit clause is limited by personal data protection regulations.

Question 104

Which of the following factors are commonly assessed to determine the magnitude of risk events?

Options:

A.

Tolerance and appetite

B.

Inherent and residual risk

C.

Cost and benefit

D.

Impact and likelihood

Question 105

Which of the following must be considered by the chief audit executive before writing the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors' level of competencies and skills.

B.

The manner in which the internal audit activity is viewed by the board.

C.

Evaluation of staff certifications and continued development.

D.

Effectiveness of the quality assurance and improvement program.

Question 106

During an assurance engagement internal auditors interview operational management to gather and evaluate information. Which approach is most important for internal auditors to be able to listen effectively to interviewees in the given situation?

Options:

A.

Make an audio recording of the interview

B.

Interrupt with questions during unclear statements

C.

Express interest by asking follow-up questions

D.

Avoid periods of silence

Question 107

Which of the following is true for consulting engagements'?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity must ensure management actions have been effectively implemented or risk accepted

B.

A work program for the engagement is not required but may be developed

C.

The nature of consulting services does not have to be in the internal audit charter

D.

Risks identified from the engagement must be considered when evaluating the organization's risk management processes

Question 108

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding proficiency?

Options:

A.

The globally accepted Certified Internal Auditor designation is mandatory at chief audit executive levels.

B.

Internal auditors are encouraged to obtain appropriate professional designations.

C.

Specialty designations are required for those who perform specialized audit and consulting work.

D.

Studies for professional designations are the preferred source of continuing professional education

Question 109

With regard to IT governance, which of the following is the most effective and appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Independently evaluate the skills and experience of potential chief information officer candidates to assess the best fit based on the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Evaluate the organization’s governance standards and assess IT-related activities to identify gaps and develop policies, ensuring alignment with the organization’s risk appetite.

C.

Assist management in interpreting complex IT-related privacy and security risk exposures and evaluating potential mitigation strategies.

D.

Assess whether governance activities are aligned with the organization's risk appetite and take into consideration emerging risks

Question 110

Which of the following best demonstrates the authority of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Suggesting alternatives to decision makers.

B.

Improving the integrity of information.

C.

Determining the scope of internal audit services

D.

Achieving engagement objectives.

Question 111

Recently an organization’s internal audit activity discovered ghost employees who receive payments Senior management decides to strengthen the internal control measures to address this Which of the following is considered an effective control to mitigate payments to ghost employees?

Options:

A.

Staff transfers are reviewed by the recruiting manager and approved by the head of human resources

B.

New staff requisition forms are authorized by operational management and acknowledged by the head of human resources

C.

Staff salary payments and accounting records are approved by the head of accounting and acknowledged by the head of human resources

D.

The staff salary payment list is reviewed by the head of payroll and endorsed by the head of human resources

Question 112

A whistleblower reveals to the chief audit executive (CAE) detailed allegations of potential fraud at the senior management level. Although the CAE has some experience in the area, she chooses to retain an external fraud expert to conduct the investigation. When asked by the director of finance to defend the expenditure, which of the following statements represents the CAE's best response?

Options:

A.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that to protect her independence, she needs to remain isolated from the investigation.

B.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that the internal audit activity must obtain competent assistance if needed.

C.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that to protect her objectivity, she needs to remain isolated from the investigation.

D.

The CAE describes the specifics of the allegation to underscore the importance of the situation and the need for expert investigation

Question 113

Which of the following are considered root causes of fraud?

Options:

A.

Rationalization and corruption

B.

Corruption and opportunity

C.

Opportunity and perceived need

D.

Perceived need and weak internal controls

Question 114

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions best demonstrates due professional care by an internal auditor when she discovers a number of fraud-related red flags during an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Conclude the engagement and inform management that fraud has occurred

B.

Perform further testing to verify the existence of fraud.

C.

Suspend the engagement and undertake a formal fraud investigation.

D.

Notify the board of the possible fraud immediately

Question 115

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is most critical to ensuring that an organization's risk management program remains effective over time?

Options:

A.

Ensuring a fully executed assurance role for the internal audit activity.

B.

Conducting risk evaluations that include ranking the relative importance of each risk.

C.

Establishing a risk management function and appointing a chief risk officer.

D.

Conducting a combination of ongoing risk reviews and individual evaluations.

Question 116

Which of the following statements about internal audit consulting engagements is true?

Options:

A.

The primary purpose of a consulting engagement is to assess evidence and provide conclusions.

B.

The internal audit activity determines the nature and scope of work for the specific consulting engagement

C.

Internal auditors may provide consulting services relating to operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

D.

It is not appropriate to communicate control issues identified during consulting engagements to the board

Question 117

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments. The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International

Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing ( Standards) Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee requires conformance with the Standards

Question 118

The internal audit activity audited an organization's risk management function multiple times, and the recommendations that were made remain unaddressed by the head of risk management. Which of the following would be the next step for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity should add value by implementing the recommendations on management's behalf.

B.

The chief audit executive (CAE) must discuss this matter with senior management and the board

C.

The CAE should determine which recommendations to implement based on the severity of the associated risks.

D.

The internal audit activity, led by the CAE. should assume responsibility for risk management function.

Question 119

Which of the following is the best example of a computer forensic audit activity?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor compared vendor addresses to employee home addresses.

B.

An internal auditor used analytical software to trace all disbursements processed on weekends.

C.

An internal auditor tried to circumvent the logical access controls of the purchasing system.

D.

An internal auditor recovered emails of an employee who was suspected of fraudulent activities

Question 120

Which of the following types of fraud tests would be most effective if an internal auditor was looking for possible fictitious vendors?

Options:

A.

Checking for invoice amounts that do not match that of the purchase order.

B.

Searching for identical invoice numbers and payment amounts.

C.

Running checks to uncover post office box addresses matching employee addresses.

D.

Comparing prices across vendors to see whether one vendor is unreasonably high.

Question 121

Which of the following is a consulting service the internal audit activity can perform with respect to the organization's risk management?

Options:

A.

Delivering assurance on the risk management system

B.

Facilitating risk assessment workshops

C.

Evaluating principal risk reporting

D.

Deciding on the appropriate risk response

Question 122

Which of the following internal control components has COSO identified as the most important?

Options:

A.

Information and communication

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Control activities

D.

Control environment

Question 123

Which of the following statements is true regarding control activities'?

Options:

A.

Control activities are defined by management through risk mitigation strategies

B.

Control activities should be defined for all business processes

C.

If two organizations have identical objectives and structures their control activities would be the same

D.

Organizations that are less regulated generally have more complex control activities than highly regulated organizations

Question 124

Which of the following best describes organizational governance processes?

Options:

A.

Processes employed by internal and external assurance providers to authorize, direct, and provide oversight to management to better enable the meeting of organizational objectives

B.

Processes employed by the board of directors to authorize and provide guidance and oversight to management to promote the achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Processes employed by the board of directors and senior management to mitigate risks to acceptable levels.

D.

Processes employed by risk owners to mitigate risks to acceptable levels within the organization's risk appetite

Question 125

An internal audit team analyzed the organization's value-at-risk model during an assurance engagement and suggested several useful improvements. Management was impressed by the internal audit team’s work and requested additional actions. Which of the following requested actions would impact internal audit independence most severely if fulfilled?

Options:

A.

Assess the effectiveness of the model at least semi-annually.

B.

Modify model inputs and suggest courses of action based on outcomes.

C.

Employ acquired experience to test other models used by the company.

D.

Validate whether model outputs serve the purpose stated by the model.

Question 126

Which of the following is a primary responsibility of senior management with respect to ethical violations?

Options:

A.

Senior management provides oversight for the organization's ethical climate.

B.

Senior management promotes an ethical culture in the organization.

C.

Senior management assesses the effectiveness of the organization’s ethical programs.

D.

Senior management reviews major ethical policies in the organization for compliance

Question 127

Which of the following is a greater consideration for internal auditors when they are performing a consulting engagement than when they are performing an assurance engagement'?

Options:

A.

The relative complexity of the engagement

B.

The cost of the engagement relative to its benefits

C.

The extent of work needed to achieve the engagement's objective

D.

The needs and expectations of the engagement client

Question 128

The chief audit executive of an organization assigns audit resources to undertake a consulting engagement requested by senior management the previous year, and a scheduled assurance audit of the procurement process Which of the following appropriately differentiates the two engagements?

Options:

A.

The details of assurance services are expected to be included in the risk-based audit plan; this is not the case for consulting services.

B.

The objectivity of assurance services is impaired when undertaken by internal auditors who have had recent prior responsibility in the area under review; this is not the case for consulting services

C.

The performance of assurance services may be outsourced for competency gaps: this is not the case for consulting services.

D.

The results of assurance services are required to be monitored; this is not the case for consulting services

Question 129

Which of the following is the first step in the process of identifying relevant fraud risk factors?

Options:

A.

Identifying preventive and detective controls

B.

Gathering information about the organization’s business activities to gain an understanding of fraud risks

C.

Engaging in strategic reasoning to anticipate the fraud scheme

D.

The use of brainstorming, management interviews, analytical procedures and review of prior frauds.

Question 130

Six months after an employee was transferred to the internal audit activity his former operating manager requested that he return to assist a project team with the evaluation of a new pricing module for the organization’s online ordering system According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor cannot be assigned to this project, as it has been fewer than 12 months since he was transferred from that department.

B.

Another internal auditor should be appointed to the engagement to preserve the independence of the internal audit activity

C.

The auditor cannot participate in the assignment, as providing an opinion would impair his objectivity

D.

The auditor may participate on the project, as the nature of the assignment is consulting

Question 131

An investment advisory firm purchased professional liability insurance to offer protection from lawsuits brought by customers claiming they received poor or erroneous advice. Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Mitigation.

B.

Acceptance

C.

Transfer.

D.

Avoidance

Question 132

Which of the following actions should the audit committee take to promote organizational independence for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Delegate final approval of the risk-based internal audit plan to the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

Approve the annual budget and resource plan for the internal audit activity.

C.

Assist the CAE with hiring objective and competent internal audit staff.

D.

Encourage the CAE to communicate and coordinate with the external auditor.

Question 133

Which of the following tools would be most useful to an internal auditor performing an assessment of the effectiveness of the organization's risk responses?

Options:

A.

Heat map.

B.

Risk and control matrix.

C.

Risk register.

D.

Process map.

Question 134

The chief audit executive of a large national retailer is reviewing the purpose and objectives of the organization's internal audit activity

Which of the following objectives is best aligned with The IIA's Mission of Internal Audit?

Options:

A.

To implement a quality assurance and improvement program

B.

To assess the effectiveness of internal controls over organizational assets

C.

To ensure internal auditors possess the competencies needed to perform their responsibilities

D.

To operate within the budget established by the board of directors

Question 135

Which of the following corporate social responsibility strategies is associated with responding to outside pressure by assuming additional responsibility?

Options:

A.

Accommodation.

B.

Reaction.

C.

Defense.

D.

Proaction.

Question 136

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is necessary for internal auditors to comply with the requirements for proficiency?

1. Sufficient consideration of current activities, trends, and emerging issues to effectively carry out their professional responsibilities.

2. Ability to provide relevant advice and recommendations to management and the board.

3. Understanding of key IT risks and controls and the ability to identify fraud using technology-based audit techniques.

4. Knowledge, skills, and other competencies necessary to perform individual responsibilities during the engagement.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

1, 2, and 3 only.

C.

1, 2, and 4 only.

D.

2, 3. and 4 only

Question 137

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive discusses the internal audit charter with senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

To provide guidance and solicit feedback on managing the internal audit activity as expected by various stakeholders.

B.

To provide an understanding of the Mission of Internal Audit and The IIA's mandatory guidance elements.

C.

To provide an update on the internal audit activity's quality of engagement supervision.

D.

To provide information on existing internal audit planning, changes to the internal audit plan, and the rationale for the changes

Question 138

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding ISO 31000?

Options:

A.

The key principles approach checks whether each element of the risk management process is in place.

B.

The framework is effective in addressing the organization's structure, size, and risk profile but not its culture objectives.

C.

The end point for improving an organization s approach to risk management should be a gap analysis that evaluates any changes.

D.

A combination of the three primary approaches to the framework generally yields the most information despite the complexity

Question 139

Management is installing security cameras to identify unauthorized physical access to the organization's warehouse. This is an example of which of the following types of controls?

Options:

A.

Detective controls.

B.

Key controls.

C.

Primary controls.

D.

Preventive controls

Question 140

The internal audit activity is performing an assessment of an organization's ethics program, and the engagement scope specifies a focus on the training program's design. According to IIA guidance, which of the following questions would be the most relevant?

1. Does the training include situations that require an ethical decision?

2. What percentage of employees have taken the training?

3. What are the results of the employee assessment of the organization's ethical climate?

4. Does the instructor provide feedback on the thought process to reach an ethical resolution?

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

Question 141

A series of incidents over the past year reveals several members of senior management possess a limited understanding of the concept and impact of fraud. Which of the following would be the most effective way to approach this issue?

Options:

A.

The board should ask the internal audit activity to perform additional assurance engagements.

B.

A comprehensive fraud risk assessment and management program should be carried out.

C.

The organization should conduct training sessions on fraud, which should be attended by senior management and staff.

D.

Anti-fraud and whistleblowing policies should be implemented and their importance should be clearly stated.

Question 142

Senior management has decided to adopt the key principles approach of the ISO 31000 risk management framework. According to IIA guidance, which of the following principles is most appropriate when implementing the risk management process in a dynamic agency?

Options:

A.

Everyone in the agency has a primary responsibility for identifying and managing risks as part of the risk management process.

B.

The risk management process, while evaluating risk, should develop a mechanism to rank the relative importance of each risk.

C.

The risk management process should be regularly reviewed and respond to changes in the environment, to remain relevant.

D.

The risk management process should use a formal technique to consider the consequence and likelihood of each risk.

Question 143

Management assessed the organization’s risk of expanding operations into a new, but volatile, region and began looking for a compatible local partner to manage sales and distribution. Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Avoidance.

B.

Acceptance.

C.

Reduction.

D.

Sharing

Question 144

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization's general attitude toward risk,

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management.

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization's general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept.

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms.

Question 145

In which of the following ways can a chief audit executive demonstrate to the board that the internal audit activity collectively possesses all of the skills needed to complete its annual goals?

Options:

A.

Involve board members in hiring activities and request advice.

B.

Require all internal audit staff to complete the same training course on a general audit subject,

C.

Require senior auditors to obtain a professional certification.

D.

Provide a competency assessment of the internal audit staff.

Question 146

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department. Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

Question 147

Which requirement should the chief audit executive consider when communicating results of the quality assurance and improvement program to the board of a large

organization?

Options:

A.

The internal assessment results should be discussed once every five years,

B.

The rating conclusions and the impact from results of the external assessment should be explained,

C.

The results of the external assessment should be discussed every seven years,

D.

The qualifications and independence of the internal assessment team should be discussed

Question 148

An internal audit activity includes in its audit reports the assertion that its work is performed in conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing ( Standards). A recent external quality assessment concluded that the internal audit activity had substantial deficiencies that impact its overall operations.

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action for issuing future audit reports?

Options:

A.

Refrain from indicating that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards until the chief audit executive confirms that the internal audit activity

has addressed all areas of nonconformance and the audit committee has been notified.

B.

Refrain from indicating that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards until another external assessment confirms that the significant areas of nonconformance have been addressed.

C.

Indicate that the internal audit activity operates in partial conformance with the Standards t as the internal audit activity has a quality assurance and improvement program in place to address deficiencies and has met the requirement for conducting an external assessment.

D.

Update and reissue previous audit reports, removing the assertion that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards, and distribute them to ail parties who received the original reports.

Question 149

In which of the following ways could stakeholders be engaged in corporate social responsibility efforts?

Options:

A.

Investigation of health and safety incidents.

B.

Auditing of controls and management systems.

C.

Communication of disclosures and external reporting,

D.

Involvement in focus groups and complaint management

Question 150

Which of the following would be considered a monitoring activity in organization wide risk management?

Options:

A.

Validate the results of management's self-assessment.

B.

Perform reviews of personnel.

C.

Maintain rigorous and comprehensive documentation.

D.

Obtain authorizations and signatures.

Question 151

After being assigned to an audit of the accounts payable process, an internal auditor privately notifies the chief audit executive that she is a finalist for an open manager position within the accounts payable department. Which of the following is the IIA Code of Ethics principle that the auditor upheld?

Options:

A.

Independence.

B.

Confidentiality.

C.

Objectivity.

D.

Competency

Question 152

The internal audit activity completed its analysis of sample transactions to determine occurrences of double billings According to If A guidance, which of the following best demonstrates that internal auditors exercised due professional care during the review?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors found no instances of double billing and concluded there were no significant risks in this area.

B.

Internal auditors documented the scope and methodology of the data testing.

C.

Internal auditors discussed with management how data is safeguarded.

D.

Internal auditors received formal performance feedback from the engagement supervisor.

Question 153

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization's board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company.

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Question 154

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the required elements of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments provide sufficient objectivity to provide evidence to the board that the internal audit activity understands the organization’s control processes.

B.

Quality assessments focus on the internal audit activity's structure, relationships with stakeholders, compliance with the Standards, and internal audit staff proficiency.

C.

In order to comply with the Standards, the internal audit activity must obtain an objective assessment of its processes and function at least once a year.

D.

Internal auditors completing internal assessments must demonstrate certification to perform quality assessments.

Question 155

Which of the following best describes the internal audit activity’s responsibility within a risk and control framework?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity constitutes the first line of defense in effective risk management.

B.

The internal audit activity provides direction regarding internal controls implementation.

C.

The internal audit activity verifies that management has met its responsibility for implementing effective controls.

D.

The internal audit activity implements the internal control framework and advises management regarding best practices.

Question 156

If the skills and competencies are not present within the internal audit activity to complete an ad-hoc assurance engagement, which of the following is an acceptable

resolution?

Options:

A.

Politely decline the engagement due to a lack of qualified staff available at the time.

B.

Complete the engagement as requested, with the best of the current staffs abilities.

C.

Consider using employees from other departments in the organization on the audit team.

D.

Change the scope of the testing to ensure that only available staff proficiencies are used

Question 157

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Results of internal assessments need to be reported to the board at least once every five years.

B.

The external assessor must present the findings from the external assessment to senior management and the board upon completion.

C.

Deficiencies within the internal audit activity must be reported to the board as soon as they are noted.

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring of the internal audit activity's performance must be reported to senior management and the board at least annually

Question 158

Which of the following best demonstrates that the internal audit activity is using due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity reports directly to the board on the engagements it performs.

B.

Internal auditors undertake the necessary training to complete their audit work.

C.

The completion of engagements is based on the assumption that fraudulent activities may exist.

D.

Internal auditors consider the use of technology-based audit and other data analysts techniques

Question 159

Which of the following is most likely to be considered a control weakness?

Options:

A.

Vendor invoice payment requests are accompanied by a purchase order and receiving report.

B.

Purchase orders are typed by the purchasing department using prenumbered forms.

C.

Buyers promptly update the official vendor listing as new supplier sources become known.

D.

Department managers initiate purchase requests that must be approved by the plant superintendent.

Question 160

While auditing an organization's credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditor's relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative's information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative is a customer.

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement.

Question 161

Applying ISO 31000, which of the following is part of the external context for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment method based on risk evaluation.

B.

Organizational culture, objectives, and processes.

C.

The regulatory and competitive environment

D.

The method of determining the risk level.

Question 162

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

Question 163

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

Options:

A.

A monitoring process,

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process.

Question 164

Which of the following activities is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud.

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud

Question 165

Upon joining the internal audit activity, each new auditor receives a copy of the audit handbook. Which of the following handbook policies has the greatest risk of compromising audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should obtain 80 hours of continuing professional education every two years, 20 of which should be audit-related, and the remainder may be operations-related.

B.

Internal auditors should rotate to other areas of the organization for nonaudit assignments to gain an understanding of the organization's operations.

C.

Internal auditors should have direct and unrestricted access to personnel and information throughout the organization and the governing board.

D.

Internal auditors should undergo annual performance appraisals conducted by the chief audit executive, who reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

Question 166

An engagement supervisor obtains facilities maintenance reports from a contractor during an audit of third-party services. Which of the following is the source of authority for the engagement supervisor to make such contact outside the organization?

Options:

A.

The policies and procedures of the internal audit activity.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter.

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The IIA's Code of Ethics.

Question 167

According to NA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

Options:

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment.

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

Question 168

Which of the following resources would be most effective for an organization that would like to improve how it informs stakeholders of its social responsibility performance?

Options:

A.

ISO 26000.

B.

Global Reporting Initiative.

C.

Open Compliance and Ethics Group.

D.

COSO’s enterprise risk management framework

Question 169

Which of the following should a general internal auditor be able to characterize as an IT-related risk?

Options:

A.

Computer servers are in a room that is accessible to all employees,

B.

An IT architect avoids taking vacations and sharing his workload with coworkers,

C.

Hours billed by IT developers exceed 24 hours daily.

D.

Audit logs are lacking in a system that processes personal data.

Question 170

Evidence discovered during the course of an engagement suggests that multiple incidents of fraud have occurred. There do not appear to be sufficient controls in place to prevent reoccurrence. Which of the following is the internal auditor's most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify management of the area under review and the other internal auditors involved in the engagement.

B.

Discuss the situation with the engagement supervisor to determine whether fraud investigation experts are required to investigate the matter properly.

C.

Fully document in the workpapers the evidence that has been discovered and recommend appropriate controls to address the fraud.

D.

Provide the evidence that was discovered to local law enforcement for possible prosecution of the suspected fraud.

Question 171

Which of the following most accurately describes the role of the board when it comes to organizational governance?

Options:

A.

Responsibility for outcome of the process.

B.

Responsibility to be involved in management of the organization.

C.

Responsibility to determine who is accountable for outcomes.

D.

Responsibility to identify risks in the organization’s business environment

Question 172

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The HAfs mandatory guidance on independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer.

B.

The board seeks senior management's recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.

C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit activity,

D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline

Question 173

While conducting an engagement in the procurement department, the internal auditor noticed that the department head’s travel reports showed minor travel expenses, and there were no charges for hotels, meals, or transportation. However, the auditor knew that the department head frequently traveled worldwide to meet with suppliers and visit their production sites. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should make a note of the issue for follow-up when employee travel expenses are audited.

B.

The auditor should analyze trends and changes among the organization’s suppliers over the past few years.

C.

The auditor should investigate whether there are any special arrangements regarding senior management travel.

D.

The auditor should analyze the list of destinations the department head visited to estimate typical costs.

Question 174

An internal auditor is performing testing to gather evidence regarding an organization’s inventory account balance and is mindful of the possibility that the sample used might support the conclusion that the recorded account balance is not materially misstated when, in fact, it is. The auditor's concern best describes which of the following risks?

Options:

A.

incorrect rejection risk

B.

Incorrect acceptance risk.

C.

Tolerable misstatement risk.

D.

Anticipated misstatement risk

Question 175

Which of the following would be the most effective fraud prevention control?

Options:

A.

Email alert sent to management for checks issued over $100,000.

B.

Installation of a video surveillance system in a warehouse prone to inventory loss.

C.

New hire training to explain fraud and employee misconduct.

D.

Daily report that identifies unsuccessful system log-in attempts

Question 176

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with IIA standards related to continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Retaining evidence of training in the form of continuing education credits

B.

Seeking guidance regarding internal audit best practices from The IIA

C.

Retaining supervisory reviews conducted on the basis of the development plan

D.

Giving consideration to certain areas of specialization as part of development planning

Question 177

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

Options:

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

Question 178

Which of the following would be considered advanced expertise which most internal auditors are not expected to possess'?

Options:

A.

The ability to evaluate fraud risk

B.

The ability to detect and investigate fraud

C.

The ability to assess risk management strategies

D.

The ability to create test databases

Question 179

Which of the following is most likely to impair the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

B.

The CAE oversees the effectiveness of the organization’s risk management function.

C.

The CAE reports functionally to the CEO.

D.

The CAE managed the finance department for the past five years.

Question 180

An automobile manufacturer will become one of the first in the industry to adopt a new inventory management software. Despite the system being new to the market, senior management believes that the benefits are great enough to offset the potential risks. Which of the following aspects of risk management does senior management’s decision best illustrate?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Inherent risk.

C.

Risk tolerance.

D.

Risk appetite.

Question 181

The largest risks facing an organization should be mitigated by which type of controls?

Options:

A.

Entity-level

B.

Activity-level

C.

Transaction-level

D.

Process-level

Question 182

Which of the following is most accurate concerning corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

A moral agent in an organization makes decisions that are based on the rules and regulations of the organization as they apply to human resources decisions

B.

The utilitarian approaching deciding on ethical dilemmas is concerned with choosing the simplest solution that will apply to the most people

C.

Ethics are not defined by laws but they are not a matter of free choice ethics are based on standards of conduct derived from shared principles and values

D.

The individualism approach to ethical decision making is focused on implementing a customized long-term outcome that is most beneficial for the entire organization

Question 183

Which of the following statements is true regarding management's use of judgement to design, implement, and conduct internal control?

Options:

A.

The use of judgment enhances management's ability to make better decisions about internal control, but cannot guarantee perfect outcomes.

B.

Introducing judgment generally diminishes management's ability to make good decisions about internal control.

C.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in areas such as specifying and using suitable accounting principles.

D.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in assessing whether components are present, functioning, and operating together

Question 184

Which of the following is an example of impairment to internal auditor independence or objectivity'?

Options:

A.

Assurance engagements for functions over which the chief audit executive (CAE) has responsibility are overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity

B.

Internal auditors provide consulting services relating to operations for which they had previous responsibilities

C.

Internal auditors provide consulting services relating to operations for which they have current responsibilities

D.

Consulting engagements for functions over which the CAE has responsibility are overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity

Question 185

Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for a chief audit executive to conduct an external assessment more frequently than five years?

Options:

A.

Significant changes in the organization's accounting policies or procedures would warrant timely analysis and feedback.

B.

More frequent external assessments can serve as an equivalent substitute for internal assessments.

C.

The parent organization's internal audit activity agreed to perform biennial reciprocal external assessments to provide greater assurance at a reduced cost.

D.

A change in senior management or internal audit leadership may change expectations and commitment to conformance.

Question 186

Which of the following statements is true regarding the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Reporting on the QAIP to the board should occur at least once every five years

B.

The responsibility for the selection of an external assessor rests with the board

C.

The qualifications of the assessors must be communicated to the board

D.

The reporting of outcomes of the QAIP can be delegated to senior audit staff

Question 187

A new company’s risk management function is developing its cybersecurity risk management program Which of the following actions should be the first priority when developing the program?

Options:

A.

Start building a cybersecurity culture and set the desired behavior using a bottom-up approach

B.

Determine the cybersecurity framework that will establish and report on the effectiveness of the program

C.

Define the cybersecurity risk appetite and perform a cost-benefit analysis of the program

D.

Raise cybersecurity awareness across various departments outside of the IT department

Question 188

According to NA guidance, which of the following actions by the chief audit executive would best ensure that internal auditors demonstrate due professional care?

Options:

A.

Developing policies and procedures for the internal audit activity.

B.

Ensuring the internal audit activity is not found fallible during audit engagements.

C.

Undertaking all engagements that management requests of the internal audit activity.

D.

Ensuring the internal audit activity reports functionally to the board of directors.

Question 189

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred Into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

B.

If it is a consulting engagement decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible

C.

If it is a consulting engagement accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

D.

If it is an assurance engagement accept the assignment becausethe chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor's previous role when this engagement was assigned

Question 190

An auditor for a large wholesaler is evaluating the controls over the approval and oversight of credit sales. Which of the following procedures would be a control weakness?

Options:

A.

The credit department is responsible for approving shipments to all customers

B.

The finance committee of the board of directors periodically reviews credit standards

C.

Customers who fail to meet credit requirements must pay cash for shipments upon delivery

D.

The sales department is responsible for determining the credit ratings of customers

Question 191

According to IIA guidance, which of the following most appropriately justifies the CEO’s decision that the internal audit activity shall be responsible for risk management and investigation at a multinational organization?

Options:

A.

The recommendation of the parent office external auditors.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The level of proficiency of the chief audit executive

Question 192

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is required of an internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity should refrain from conducting an assurance engagement for which it lacks the necessary competencies or skills

B.

The chief audit executive must decline a consulting engagement or obtain competent advice and assistance if internal auditors lack the necessary competencies or skills

C.

The audit committee should ensure that the internal audit activity continuously improves its knowledge and skills in order to fulfill its responsibilities

D.

In today's business climate which is dominated by technology and big data, it is imperative that each staff internal auditor has detailed knowledge about IT risks and technology-based audit techniques

Question 193

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true of the internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program?

1 Monitoring the internal audit activity’s performance must be ongoing

2 All aspects of the internal audit activity should be evaluated

3 The requirement for external assessments can be satisfied through self-assessments that are validated by an independent external party

4 The review of assurance services should be the primary focus

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

1 3 and 4

Question 194

In which of the following audits would the internal auditors most likely contribute to the assessment of organizational governance?

Options:

A.

An assessment of compliance of individual data protection procedures with data protection regulations

B.

An assessment of profit and loss generated by financial assets and instruments in the past quarter

C.

An assessment of the effectiveness of back-up procedures and execution of business recovery plans

D.

An assessment of performance management practices and establishment of key performance indicators

Question 195

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement.

Question 196

In the COSO internal control framework, which of the following components serves as the foundation for the other components?

Options:

A.

Control activities.

B.

Control environment.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Monitoring

Question 197

Which of the following specifications in an internal audit charter is the most important factor in the internal audit activity’s independence?

Options:

A.

Description of internal audit activity's responsibilities

B.

Definition of internal auditing

C.

Statement of internal audit activity's authority

D.

Description of internal audit activity's reporting structure

Question 198

Which of the following would be included in quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP) reporting?

Options:

A.

Descriptions of standardized work practices.

B.

Outcomes of internal audit key performance indicators.

C.

Conformance of individual engagements with the Standards,

D.

Annual summaries of consulting and audit engagements.

Question 199

Which of the following statements is true regarding organizational culture and an audit of the control environment?

Options:

A.

For multinational organizations it is important to ensure that the organizational culture is consistent at all locations

B.

Because the chief audit executive (CAE) is part of the organizational culture, external auditors should be engaged to evaluate the control environment

C.

If there are unresolved scope restrictions, the CAE should consider whether to pursue the audit and note the scope restrictions in the audit report

D.

Because it will create a conflict of interest relating to the control environment, senior management should not be consulted during the audit

Question 200

Which of the following actions should an organization take to detect an emerging risk of potential fraud?

Options:

A.

Adopt reward and recognition programs that promote good behaviors

B.

Undertake background checks for new employees as part of the hiring process

C.

Establish an anonymous platform for reporting suspected unethical behaviors

D.

Institute periodic educational training on expected ethical behaviors

Question 201

Which of the following is the best example of an ongoing independent monitoring activity?

Options:

A.

Management quality assurance activities

B.

Internal audit fraud prevention and detection activities

C.

Management and supervisory activities

D.

External audit quality assurance activities

Question 202

Which of the following describes a primary responsibility for the internal audit activity in helping management maintain effective controls?

Options:

A.

Promoting continuous evaluation

B.

Promoting continuous monitoring

C.

Promoting continuous improvement

D.

Promoting continuous reporting

Question 203

Which of the following statements is true regarding the independent peer review process undertaken to fulfill the requirement for an external quality assessment?

Options:

A.

Two individuals in the same internal audit activity may perform an independent peer review as long as they do not report to the same audit manager

B.

Individuals from a separate but related organization such as an affiliate may perform peer reviews

C.

Individuals working in separate internal audit activities may be considered independent as long as do not report to the same chief audit executive

D.

Peer reviews are generally less cost-effective than hiring an external quality assessor

Question 204

Which of the following statements is true regarding occupational fraud?

Options:

A.

An employee who diverts the organization's purchases for personal use is demonstrating asset misappropriation

B.

An employee who intentionally omits negative information in the financial statement disclosures is demonstrating an example of corruption

C.

An employee who made an error in estimating losses may have committed fraud even if the error was not intentional

D.

An employee who creates a denial of service in the organization’s computer systems is committing asset misappropriation

Question 205

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions is a chief audit executive required to take with regard to reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Report external assessments upon completion of such assessments

B.

Report external assessments at least annually

C.

Report ongoing monitoring quarterly

D.

Report post-engagement reviews at least once every five years

Question 206

Which of the following can be used to minimize employees’ resentment of controls?

Options:

A.

Making sure employees are exempt from participating in control creation

B.

Implementing controls without lengthy explanations of their purpose

C.

Developing general constricting controls rather than detailed ones

D.

Not using controls to achieve goals

Question 207

According to IIA guidance, which of the following threats to objectivity is described as familiarity'?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor is a close friend or relative of the manager or an employee of the audit client

B.

An internal auditor has a long-term business relationship with the audit client.

C.

An internal auditor has an economic stake in the performance of the organization

D.

An internal auditor is exposed to or perceived to be exposed to pressures from external parties