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Internal Audit Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is an indicator that the internal audit activity does not fully conform with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The quality assurance and improvement program identified several opportunities for the internal audit activity to make improvements.

B.

In lieu of an external assessment, the internal audit activity performed a self-assessment with independent external validation.

C.

During an internal quality assessment, it was identified that rotational auditors often perform consulting engagements for areas of the organization where they had previous responsibilities.

D.

External assessments are performed every five years by a competent internal audit team from the organization ' s parent company.

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Question 2

An external assessment was performed as part of the organization ' s quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following conclusions confirms that the internal audit activity is in conformance with the Standards ' ?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive is well qualified and has responsibilities over operational areas that the internal audit activity assesses.

B.

Periodic self-assessments are assigned to entry-level internal audit staff to support their continuing professional development.

C.

All audit workpapers are reviewed and signed by the engagement supervisor before the audit report is issued.

D.

Employees who rotate into the internal audit activity from other areas of the organization are assigned to audit areas where they previously worked, to take advantage of their operational expertise and experience.

Question 3

Which of the following statements best describes a functional difference between external auditors and internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors evaluate past achievements to understand whether controls are operating effectively, and external auditors focus on the accuracy of financial reporting.

B.

Internal auditors provide assurance about the sufficiency of controls to manage risks. Including risks of failure to achieve future goals, and external auditors evaluate the accuracy and understandability of financial reporting.

C.

internal auditors are always employed by the organization, rather than outsourced, and external auditors are never employed by the organization but contracted independently.

D.

Internal auditors are most directly concerned with the detection of fraud, while external auditors are most directly concerned with the prevention of fraud.

Question 4

At a conference, an interna! auditor presented a new computer-assisted audit technique developed by his organization. The presentation included sample data derived from performing audit engagements for the organization. Travel costs were paid by the conference organizers, and the trip was approved by the chief audit executive (CAE).

However, neither management nor the CAE was aware that the internal auditor would be making a presentation based on work completed for the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is most relevant regarding the actions of the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor did not violate the standard of objectivity because the presentation had no impact on the organization.

B.

The auditor violated the principle of confidentiality by disclosing information about the organization without approval.

C.

The auditor should have obtained permission before using the material, but did not violate the IIA Code of Ethics or Standards,

D.

The auditor breached the conflict of interest standard by accepting payment for travel costs

Question 5

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of an organization ' s risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance may or may not align with risk appetite depending on whether the assessment is quantitative or qualitative

B.

Risk is assessed on both an inherent and a residual basis

C.

The framework addresses four organizational objective categories strategic, historical, operational, and investment

D.

External risks and internal opportunities are omitted from the risk assessment scope

Question 6

An internal auditor argued that the organization’s insurance coverage is inadequate and recommended a particular insurance agency that could evaluate and provide alternative insurance products. The owner of the insurance agency is a close friend of the auditor.

Which statement is true regarding this recommendation?

Options:

A.

There is a potential violation of objectivity.

B.

There is a potential violation of independence.

C.

The recommendation is acceptable as long as it adds value to the organization.

D.

The recommendation is acceptable as long as the auditor is not involved in decision-making.

Question 7

Which of the following best demonstrates the application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

An engagement supervisor requests that the employment of a process owner be terminated due to a significant control failure.

B.

An audit lead establishes internal audit manuals to guide the internal audit activity on now to undertake audit engagements.

C.

An audit manager provides a guarantee to senior management that internal controls relating to an audited process operate effectively.

D.

An organization ' s internal audit activity operates under a direct reporting structure to tie audit committee of the board

Question 8

Which of the following offers the best evidence that the internal audit activity has achieved organizational independence?

Options:

A.

An independent third party has assessed the organization ' s system of internal controls to be adequate and effective,

B.

The chief audit executive reports both functionally and administratively to the CEO.

C.

The internal audit charter is drafted properly and approved by the appropriate parties.

D.

The mission statement and strategy of the internal audit activity demonstrates alignment to organizational objectives.

Question 9

An organization is competing with other organizations in biotechnology agriculture. There is urgency to be the first to develop crops that are climate resilient and easy to grow in developing markets to address food insecurity. Critics of the industry believe that the competitive nature of the culture could do more harm than good in addressing food insecurity.

Which of the following could be a concern that impacts the organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Senior management stresses the importance of delivering quality and safe products supported by government approval in biotechnology agriculture.

B.

Senior management establishes formal communications of the organization’s effort to become the market leader in the ethical development of biotechnology agriculture.

C.

Senior management ensures that incentives are available for employees who help increase the organization’s market share in biotechnology agriculture.

D.

Senior management works with employees to ensure that the organization’s efforts with biotechnology agriculture align with developing markets.

Question 10

An internal audit activity is taking steps to promote professional development among the staff, and is in the process of implementing a mentorship program. According to HA guidance, which of the following is important for a successful mentorship program?

Options:

A.

It is best if the mentor is the chief audit executive.

B.

Mentor meeting documentation should be retained in personnel files.

C.

It should target both new hires and highly experienced staff.

D.

Meetings with mentors should be formal and scheduled.

Question 11

Which of the following will help the chief audit executive (CAE) of a large organization ensure that the independence of the internal audit function is maintained?

Options:

A.

The board is required to approve the salary package for all audit staff.

B.

The internal audit charter is approved by the CAE.

C.

The internal audit budget and resource plan are approved by the board.

D.

The decision regarding the appointment or termination of the CAE belongs to the CEO.

Question 12

Which of the following best describes organizational governance processes?

Options:

A.

Processes employed by internal and external assurance providers to authorize, direct, and provide oversight to management to better enable the meeting of organizational objectives

B.

Processes employed by the board of directors to authorize and provide guidance and oversight to management to promote the achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Processes employed by the board of directors and senior management to mitigate risks to acceptable levels.

D.

Processes employed by risk owners to mitigate risks to acceptable levels within the organization ' s risk appetite

Question 13

Which of the following situations undermines the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity is responsible for the company ' s risk management function and its head manager reports to the chief audit executive

B.

A senior member of the internal audit activity once worked in the corporate finance department

C.

The organization ' s CEO reviews the internal audit activity ' s annual budget per the organization’s policies and procedures

D.

The internal audit activity often uses management ' s risk profile to build its own risk profile for annual planning

Question 14

For a high-risk observation, which is the best approach to follow when management takes an aggressive, uncompromising position in opposition to the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The parties should work together to develop a mutually beneficial solution.

B.

The internal audit activity should share the observation with other business units to get their opinions.

C.

The internal audit activity should discuss with senior management, and if still not resolved, discuss with the board.

D.

The internal audit activity should accommodate management ' s position, since the relationship is more important than the fight.

Question 15

A whistle blower notified internal audit of a conflict of interest between an organization ' s employee and a major supplier. Which of the following steps should be undertaken first?

Options:

A.

Interview the employee identified by the whistleblower.

B.

Attain an understanding of the employee ' s role, responsibilities, and relationship with the supplier.

C.

Notify senior management, the board, and the external auditor about the alleged fraud

D.

Review all the orders issued to the supplier to investigate potential fraud.

Question 16

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The IIA ' s Code of Ethics must exist outside of the charter to maintain independence.

B.

The charter must be approved by both senior management and the board.

C.

The nature of consulting services does not need to be defined in the internal audit charter.

D.

The charter provides a framework for performing a broad range of value-added audit services.

Question 17

Which of the following practices, applied by the chief audit executive {CAE), most likely indicates an effective continuing professional educational program for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE tasks internal auditors with coordinating assurance activities with other providers across the organization.

B.

The CAE encourages auditors to volunteer to support research work of the local professional institute.

C.

The CAE requires auditors to periodically attest to the profession ' s Code of Ethics.

D.

The CAE reminds auditors to ensure workpapers are completed for audit engagements.

Question 18

The internal audit activity completed its analysis of sample transactions to determine occurrences of double billings According to If A guidance, which of the following best demonstrates that internal auditors exercised due professional care during the review?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors found no instances of double billing and concluded there were no significant risks in this area.

B.

Internal auditors documented the scope and methodology of the data testing.

C.

Internal auditors discussed with management how data is safeguarded.

D.

Internal auditors received formal performance feedback from the engagement supervisor.

Question 19

Which of the following engagements would be considered an appropriate consulting service?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity of a commercial bank routinely performs branch audits for compliance with regulations.

B.

The internal audit activity participates in a cosourcing arrangement with an IT audit firm to test information systems security.

C.

The internal audit activity facilitates biannual training of the risk management team in risk identification methodologies.

D.

The internal audit activity partners with external auditors annually to complete fieldwork required as a part of the external audit exercise.

Question 20

The internal auditor of a small manufacturer noted that the accounting department has insufficient staff to achieve proper segregation of duties. What type of controls would the auditor likely recommend to management to specifically address this problem?

Options:

A.

Entity-level.

B.

Preventive.

C.

Directive.

D.

Compensating.

Question 21

Management assessed the organization’s risk of expanding operations into a new, but volatile, region and began looking for a compatible local partner to manage sales and distribution. Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Avoidance.

B.

Acceptance.

C.

Reduction.

D.

Sharing

Question 22

An auditor for a large wholesaler is evaluating the controls over the approval and oversight of credit sales. Which of the following procedures would be a control weakness?

Options:

A.

The credit department is responsible for approving shipments to all customers

B.

The finance committee of the board of directors periodically reviews credit standards

C.

Customers who fail to meet credit requirements must pay cash for shipments upon delivery

D.

The sales department is responsible for determining the credit ratings of customers

Question 23

The internal audit activity is responsible for conducting fraud investigations. A potential fraud instance was identified during an audit engagement. The chief audit executive appoints a lead investigate. Which of the following would most likely be the next step?

Options:

A.

Ask internal auditors to gather all relevant information evidence

B.

Identify and interview witnesses first potential suspects later.

C.

Conduct a fraud risk assessment to the most vulnerable areas.

D.

Determine me competencies needed and assess whatever team members have a conflict of interest.

Question 24

During a procurement process audit the internal audit activity undertakes a fraud risk assessment and considers a range of possible fraud scenarios within the process. Which of the following scenarios constitutes a pressure to commit fraud?

Options:

A.

An employee believes his poor compensation package justifies engaging in unethical behavior.

B.

The head of the department is the only signatory to purchase orders issued to third party contractors.

C.

Some employees strongly believe monetary gifts from vendors is a means of saving for life after employment.

D.

One of the employees was found to have an obsession with expensive jewelry

Question 25

Which of the following should catch the internal auditor ' s attention as a potential red flag for fraud?

Options:

A.

The accounting unit keeps detailed records and preserves supporting documentation in excess of company requirements

B.

One of the subsidiaries has more bank accounts than any other comparable subsidiary

C.

The same external audit firm has been with the company for three years without rotation

D.

The arithmetic median tenure of employees working at production facilities is 15 years

Question 26

Which principle of the HA Code of Ethics focuses on continuing education and professional development?

Options:

A.

Due professional care

B.

Professionalism

C.

Proficiency

D.

Competency

Question 27

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates how the chief audit executive may ensure that due professional care is applied?

Options:

A.

Establish policies and procedures concerning the engagement process

B.

Develop a strategy for recruiting assigning, and training staff

C.

Outsource complex engagements to an external service provider

D.

Base the auditor evaluation process on the number of observations

Question 28

Which of the following activities best ensures that internal auditors grow professionally in alignment with current industry trends to meet the expectations of primary stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Deploying self-assessments against a competency benchmark.

B.

Acquiring memberships in professional organizations.

C.

Developing professional succession plans.

D.

Obtaining subscriptions to professional journals in their area of interest.

Question 29

An organization ' s board has approved an expansion plan into a new market. The board acknowledged that if the expansion is not successful, the organization would encounter large monetary losses consisting of legal fees, research and development costs, rent expenses, and labor fees. Which of the following has the board approved?

Options:

A.

The risk response.

B.

The risk tolerance.

C.

The residual risk.

D.

The inherent risk.

Question 30

Senior management is eager to assess the organization ' s risks with regard to electricity sales processes, but the senior management team does not know where to start. How can the internal audit activity assist?

Options:

A.

Outsource the identification of best practices for risk management to an external third party.

B.

Perform an audit engagement to identify risk management practices deployed in electricity sales processes.

C.

Recommend reporting the lack of risk management to government authorities and request guidance.

D.

Facilitate a self-assessment workshop with the employees responsible for process execution.

Question 31

Which of the following should be implemented to promote independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors do not review an area where they previously worked

B.

The internal audit charter is reviewed and updated annually

C.

The chief audit executive reports functionally to the board

D.

Management does not influence the consulting services provided by the internal audit activity

Question 32

The collaborating style for conflict resolution, where the parties promote assertiveness and work together to develop a mutually beneficial solution, is best used in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Parties are confident of the solution and are ready to defend it.

B.

There is a high level of trust among the parties.

C.

Resolution is time sensitive and a quick decision is necessary.

D.

The issue is more important to one patty than the others.

Question 33

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates due professional care?

Options:

A.

Staffing audit engagements with internal auditors who possess professional designations.

B.

Relying on prior audit work to save planning time and costs.

C.

Performing assurance procedures to guarantee all significant risks are identified.

D.

Assessing the cost of assurance in relation to the potential benefits.

Question 34

A snow removal company is conducting a scenario planning exercise where participating employees consider the potential impacts of a significant reduction in annual snowfall for the coming winter. Which of the following best describes this type of risk?

Options:

A.

Residual.

B.

Net.

C.

Inherent.

D.

Accepted.

Question 35

Which of the following is most likely to result in the impairment of independence for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) has a dual reporting relationship within the organization.

B.

The CAE performs an audit of a functional area that is also under the CAE ' s oversight.

C.

The CAE has unrestricted access to information throughout the organization and to the board.

D.

The board is involved in decisions to hire or remove the CAE and in drafting and approving an internal audit charter.

Question 36

Which of the following best illustrates the application of due professional care during an audit of the procurement department?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor began checking purchase requisitions for proper authorizations. He stopped when he discovered an instance of noncompliance. and he concluded the controls were ineffective.

B.

The internal auditor discovered an instance where management did not follow the standard bidding processes. The auditor assessed the validity of management’sreasons for deviating from standard practice and the supporting documentation, and determined that the deviation was acceptable.

C.

The internal auditor selected a sample of purchase orders with amounts greater than S5.000, the threshold at which the organization requires a bidding process. The auditor obtained documentation of the bidding process for each purchase order in the sample.

D.

The internal auditor analyzed bidding documents provided by management. Management indicated that the documents were purchase orders issued to a sole-source vendor Based on the analysis and management ' s declaration, the internal auditor determined that the procurement process was effective.

Question 37

An internal auditor of a real estate organization wants to stay informed of current regulations on real estate investments.

Which of the following is likely the best option?

Options:

A.

Participate in an annual conference titled “Housing and Commercial Investments: Updated Government Amendments.”

B.

Review a professional organization’s report of the prior year titled “Real Estate and Latest Business Requirements.”

C.

Read a doctoral thesis published two years ago on the topic of real estate investments, governance, and business risks.

D.

Review policies and procedures contained in last year’s audit.

Question 38

Which of the following is the best reason why the engagement supervisor should take care in explaining to local management the criteria that will be used to measure the effectiveness of the control environment?

Options:

A.

The assessment will cover soft controls and company values.

B.

The assessment will focus on the policy for a particular process.

C.

The assessment will lack a defined scope

D.

The assessment will probably uncover fraud risks.

Question 39

According to MA guidance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Coaching management in responding to risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on management ' s behalf.

C.

Imposing risk management processes.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

Question 40

According to IIA guidance, which of the following most appropriately justifies the CEO’s decision that the internal audit activity shall be responsible for risk management and investigation at a multinational organization?

Options:

A.

The recommendation of the parent office external auditors.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The level of proficiency of the chief audit executive

Question 41

Which of the following is an example of impairment to internal auditor independence or objectivity ' ?

Options:

A.

Assurance engagements for functions over which the chief audit executive (CAE) has responsibility are overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity

B.

Internal auditors provide consulting services relating to operations for which they had previous responsibilities

C.

Internal auditors provide consulting services relating to operations for which they have current responsibilities

D.

Consulting engagements for functions over which the CAE has responsibility are overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity

Question 42

An internal auditor assessed the controls within his organization ' s payroll process and suspects that erroneous payments may have been made to a fraudulent bank account. What is the best course of action for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Speak to the payroll manager so he may investigate the auditor ' s observations.

B.

Continue to investigate the payments to confirm the accuracy of the observations, and determine whether further fraudulent payments have been made.

C.

Stop the audit and report the findings to senior management immediately.

D.

Escalate the concern to the engagement supervisor.

Question 43

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) started analyzing the organization ' s policies in an attempt to customize them to address internal audit specifics. Which of the following organizationwide practices is most likely to be acceptable to the CAE?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors1performance evaluation is primarily based on both client satisfaction surveys and cost savings identified from the audits.

B.

Standard training for each employee, including internal auditors, is 10 hours per year.

C.

To enhance efficiency, internal auditors should not be rotated regularly among engagements.

D.

Hiring practices include requiring potential auditors to disclose any significant stock ownership in the organization.

Question 44

What is an appropriate first step in an internal auditor’s fraud risk assessment to evaluate how the organization manages such risk?

Options:

A.

Develop preventive and detective controls

B.

Identify potential fraud scenarios

C.

Assess the impact and likelihood of fraud risks

D.

Determine fraud risk responses

Question 45

How should the internal audit activity promote continuous improvement of organizational controls?

Options:

A.

By assessing implementation of controls m individual processes during audit engagements

B.

By identifying the most significant business processes and designing effective controls for those processes

C.

By implementing an internationally accepted internal control framework across the organization

D.

By facilitating control self-assessment sessions for managers responsible for business processes

Question 46

During an audit of a foreign subsidiary an internal audit team discovered that products were sold to a prohibited country due to sanctions. What is the best course of action for the internal audit team?

Options:

A.

Include the facts m the engagement communications

B.

Inform me external auditors of the violation.

C.

Report the violation to the government regulators

D.

Consult with the legal department

Question 47

The level of authority for the internal audit activity is granted by which of the following?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive.

B.

The internal audit charter.

C.

The International Professional Practices Framework.

D.

The IIA ' s Code of Ethics.

Question 48

Which of the following demonstrates that the internal audit activity exercises due professional care?

Options:

A.

Supervisors provide feedback to internal auditors after workpapers are reviewed

B.

A self-assessment is conducted through the quality assurance and improvement program every five years

C.

Internal auditors are required to give absolute assurance of regulatory compliance

D.

The chief audit executive reports functionally to the board

Question 49

According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors ' use of technology-based techniques?

Options:

A.

Auditors must consider using technology if it advances the engagement, even when implementation costs exceed the benefits.

B.

Auditors must considering using technology to reduce the organization ' s risk by detecting all instances of fraud.

C.

Auditors must consider using technology only when the Implementation cost does not exceed benefits.

D.

Auditors must consider using technology in a variety of engagements to ensure that their work is substantiated and infallible.

Question 50

Which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

The QAIP scope includes assurance work performed by the internal audit activity but not consulting work.

B.

The QAIP verifies conformance with the Definition of Internal Auditing, Code of Ethics, and Standards.

C.

QAIP reports are for internal use primarily and typically are not shared with members outside of the internal audit activity.

D.

QAIPs make a distinction between fully outsourced internal audit activities and in-house internal audit teams, as a different set of criteria is applied for each.

Question 51

Which of the following corporate social responsibility strategies is associated with responding to outside pressure by assuming additional responsibility?

Options:

A.

Accommodation.

B.

Reaction.

C.

Defense.

D.

Proaction.

Question 52

Which of the following statements is true regarding reporting results of the quality assurance and improvement program to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments must be reported to the board at least every five years

B.

If supported by assessment results, reporting provides assurance that internal auditors demonstrate conformance with the Code of Ethics

C.

Following the reporting the board must give the internal audit activity five years to correct any deviations

D.

A report, including the results of both internal and external assessments must be provided to the board annually

Question 53

Which type(s) of assessments in an internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program requires ongoing monitoring to evaluate internal audit activity ' s efficiency and effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Neither internal nor external assessment

B.

internal assessment

C.

Both internal and external assessment

D.

External assessment

Question 54

Which of the following types of engagements is most appropriate for a less mature organization’s risk management assessment?

Options:

A.

Assurance.

B.

Model-based.

C.

Advisory.

D.

Informal.

Question 55

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions best demonstrates due professional care by an internal auditor when she discovers a number of fraud-related red flags during an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Conclude the engagement and inform management that fraud has occurred

B.

Perform further testing to verify the existence of fraud.

C.

Suspend the engagement and undertake a formal fraud investigation.

D.

Notify the board of the possible fraud immediately

Question 56

According to IIA guidance, an internal audit charter should detail which of the following?

Options:

A.

The objectives and goals of management

B.

The process used by the CAE to manage the organization ' s internal controls

C.

The nature of services that the internal audit activity will provide to external third parties

D.

The responsibilities of the audit committee

Question 57

Which of the following tests would most likely help discover a fictitious invoice?

Options:

A.

Compare vendor addresses to employee addresses.

B.

Match cancelled checks to invoices.

C.

Search for duplicate payment amounts.

D.

Check employee bank records against invoice amounts.

Question 58

Which of the following would be a red flag for potential issues in the control environment?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties during preparation of the financial statements

B.

Compensation structures that are based on commissions

C.

A low rate of turnover in key financial positions

D.

The presence of a whistleblower policy and fraud hotlinea

Question 59

An internal auditor at a multinational organization is reviewing the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk management framework. In this scenario, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor should consider local cultures and customs in various regions when assessing control effectiveness.

B.

Regardless of their location, employees at all levels share responsibility for designing effective controls to mitigate risks.

C.

To achieve an effective internal control environment, the organization ' s risk management plan must be documented and communicated to all levels throughout each region.

D.

Setting clear objectives is a precondition to effectively identifying, assessing, and responding to the organization ' s risks.

Question 60

During the closing meeting of a procurement audit, the business manager disagrees with the observation presented by the engagement supervisor and accuses the team of not understanding the procurement objectives The engagement supervisor blames the manager for impeding the audit What skillset should the chief audit executive utilize to manage this situation?

Options:

A.

The ability to negotiate

B.

The ability to use analytical tools

C.

The ability to foresee issues

D.

The ability to manage conflict

Question 61

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is necessary for internal auditors to comply with the requirements for proficiency?

1. Sufficient consideration of current activities, trends, and emerging issues to effectively carry out their professional responsibilities.

2. Ability to provide relevant advice and recommendations to management and the board.

3. Understanding of key IT risks and controls and the ability to identify fraud using technology-based audit techniques.

4. Knowledge, skills, and other competencies necessary to perform individual responsibilities during the engagement.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

1, 2, and 3 only.

C.

1, 2, and 4 only.

D.

2, 3. and 4 only

Question 62

An internal auditor of a small manufacturing organization helps with a fraud investigation of accounts payable. The auditor notes that the accounts payable manager is very friendly and trusting with accounts payable staff, so the manager rarely checks the staff’s work.

Which component of the fraud triangle is most relevant in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Pressure.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Objectives.

Question 63

Which of the following is an example of an impairment to an internal auditor ' s independence?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor delays reporting material financial statement audit findings until after his parents sell all of their stock in the company

B.

Following the restructuring of the organization, the internal audit activity now reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

A new member of the internal audit activity, who was the accounts payable supervisor for two years, is asked to consult on the implementation of a new accounts payable system

D.

Believing there must be errors in a given balance sheet account the internal auditor decides to expand his testing

Question 64

An organization’s senior management decided to outsource the payroll function. A few payroll service providers are currently under review.

Which of the following engagements, if performed by the internal audit function, would best assure that senior management has performed comprehensive due diligence when choosing the service provider?

Options:

A.

Review conduct and ethical values.

B.

Review a third-party risk assessment.

C.

Review existing payroll operations.

D.

Review service level agreement compliance.

Question 65

Which of the following best describes the internal audit activity ' s contribution to the implementation of the risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Internal audit identifies key risk areas during assurance reviews and provides audit findings.

B.

Internal audit assists with the prioritization of identified risks.

C.

Internal audit participates in setting the risk appetite.

D.

Internal audit takes part in the design of risk mitigation measures.

Question 66

Which of the following would a chief audit executive most likely use to identify a need for improvement in a staff internal auditor ' s business acumen?

Options:

A.

A quality assessment review.

B.

An internal audit client survey.

C.

A control self-assessment.

D.

A peer review of the internal audit activity.

Question 67

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate to help a new internal auditor understand the nature and positioning of the internal audit activity within his organization?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter.

B.

Examples of internal audit reports.

C.

The internal audit policy and procedures manual.

D.

The IIA’s International Professional Practices Framework.

Question 68

What should the chief audit executive do when the internal audit activity is found to be in nonconformance with the Code of Ethics or the Standards?

Options:

A.

Assign competent staff to the area under audit to remediate the nonconformance.

B.

Determine how the deviation impacted the overall scope of the internal audit activity.

C.

Meet with the board to gam an understanding of the board ' s expectations.

D.

Communicate the matter to the board at the time of the next external assessment.

Question 69

Which of the following is a detective control?

Options:

A.

An organization requires certain employees who occupy sensitive positions to sign attestation to the code of conduct on an annual basis.

B.

A compliance specialist carries out quarterly reviews of an organization ' s compliance with regulatory requirements.

C.

A front desk officer in an organization requires that visitors are identified by the host before access is granted.

D.

An internal audit activity deploys audit management policies and procedures for team members.

Question 70

Which of the following is a responsibility of the internal audit activity as it relates to risk and risk management?

Options:

A.

Evaluating and suggesting improvements to the risk management process.

B.

Establishing the organization ' s risk appetite.

C.

Determining whether the risk attitude is aligned with shareholder interests.

D.

Ensuring an adequate risk management system is in place.

Question 71

An organization recently hired a manager for a newly established operations department. The manager requests the internal audit function to establish appropriate internal controls and processes for the management of operations.

How should the chief audit executive respond?

Options:

A.

Assist the manager in establishing relevant processes and controls since it is important to achieve organizational objectives.

B.

Reject the request from the manager since the manager is not allowed to delegate responsibility to the internal audit function.

C.

Assist the manager in establishing relevant processes and controls, but clarify that determining the risk appetite is the manager’s responsibility.

D.

Reject the request from the manager since it may impair the independence of the internal audit function.

Question 72

A chief audit executive has decided to use the process element approach to evaluate the organization’s risk management process.

According to IIA guidance, which of the following provides evidence that the risk evaluation element is in place?

Options:

A.

The organization has made a decision with regard to risk avoidance, risk sharing, and application of controls to manage risk.

B.

The organization has developed a mechanism to rank the relative importance of each risk in order to establish a risk treatment priority.

C.

The organization has developed a formal technique that considers the consequences and likelihood of each risk.

D.

The organization has established a formal process that considers the source of risk, areas of impact, and potential events.

Question 73

Which of the following would be addressed in the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

Expertise requirements for internal auditors

B.

Functional and administrative reporting lines for the chief audit executive

C.

Audit engagements to be completed in the next fiscal year

D.

Budget requirements for each engagement

Question 74

Which of the following scenarios would most significantly restrict the areas where internal audit could perform assurance services?

Options:

A.

Regulators mandate specific audit engagements to be included in the audit plan.

B.

The internal audit activity reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the CEO and functionally to the audit committee.

D.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

Question 75

According to NA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

Options:

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment.

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

Question 76

The CEO has delegated several responsibilities to the internal audit activity. Which of the following directives should concern the chief audit executive the most?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors shall perform engagement-level risk assessments

B.

Internal auditors shall perform risk management activities.

C.

Internal auditors shall perform risk-based engagements

D.

Internal auditors shall perform organization wide risk assessments

Question 77

Which of the following is true about corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Social and environmental considerations are required parts of an organization ' s decision making

B.

The Global Reporting Initiative provides standards on required disclosures of CSR.

C.

CSR activities are overseen and managed by operational management.

D.

Internal auditors can provide assurance on reported sustainability results.

Question 78

Which of the following statements best demonstrates application of due professional care during an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The engagement detected irregularities and noncompliance instances.

B.

The engagement supervisor had no significant comments in the supervisory review.

C.

The audit procedures were systematically planned, executed, and documented.

D.

The engagement objectives were designed to assist the engagement client.

Question 79

An internal audit activity uses a rotational program to recruit high-performing staff members from other parts of the organization One of these individuals is nearing the end of her four-year internal audit rotation The chief audit executive assigned her to an assurance engagement in the business area she will be going into when she leaves the internal audit activity Which of the following statements is

true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

Accepting the assignment is a violation of internal audit independence

B.

Accepting the assignment will improve competencies and develop relationships that will be needed in her next assignment

C.

Accepting the assignment creates the appearance of an impairment to her professional judgment and detectivity

D.

Accepting the assignment on the assurance engagement would be a breach of due professional care

Question 80

Which of the following statements is true regarding a key difference between assurance and consulting services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

When conducting a consulting engagement, the nature and scope of the engagement are determined by the internal audit activity.

B.

Three parties are participants in assurance services, while consulting engagements generally involve two parties.

C.

An assurance engagement has two participants, while consulting engagements generally involve three parties.

D.

When conducting an assurance engagement, the engagement objectives, scope, and techniques are agreed with the area under review.

Question 81

Which of the following actions by the internal auditor best addresses the effectiveness of a control?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the control creates delays in business processes or duplication of effort.

B.

Determine whether the control design is appropriate and operating as intended.

C.

Determine whether the degree of effort required to perform the control is reasonable.

D.

Determine whether the cost of the control is appropriate for the significance of the risk it addresses.

Question 82

Senior management has decided to adopt the key principles approach of the ISO 31000 risk management framework. According to IIA guidance, which of the following principles is most appropriate when implementing the risk management process in a dynamic agency?

Options:

A.

Everyone in the agency has a primary responsibility for identifying and managing risks as part of the risk management process.

B.

The risk management process, while evaluating risk, should develop a mechanism to rank the relative importance of each risk.

C.

The risk management process should be regularly reviewed and respond to changes in the environment, to remain relevant.

D.

The risk management process should use a formal technique to consider the consequence and likelihood of each risk.

Question 83

Which of the following would best illustrate to the chief audit executive that due professional care was exercised by internal auditors during an engagement?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors gave assurance that no irregularities existed.

B.

Internal auditors had the knowledge and skills needed.

C.

Internal auditors assigned were sufficient and appropriate.

D.

Internal auditors considered the use of data analysis techniques.

Question 84

Which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot provide consulting services related to operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

B.

The nature of consulting services to be performed by internal auditors must be defined in the internal audit charter

C.

If internal auditors have potential impairments to objectivity related to the proposed consulting engagement, the engagement must be declined.

D.

If internal auditors lack the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform the consulting engagement, the engagement can proceed with proper disclosures.

Question 85

An internal auditor extended the scope of testing for a disbursements engagement following a fraud risk assessment Despite the investment of additional audit resources no significant issues were found Unfortunately a major payment fraud was discovered several

months later According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the internal auditor ' s application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Due professional care was not applied because no additional work should have been performed unless there was actual evidence of fraud

B.

Due professional care was not applied because the extended scope resulted in no issues being identified, while fraud actually existed

C.

Due professional care was applied as the internal auditor modified the scope based on reasonable judgment, despite the additional cost of resources

D.

Due professional care was applied as the cost of audit resources should not be a determining factor in the degree of testing undertaken

Question 86

Which of the following is an indicator of ineffective third-party risk management?

Options:

A.

Sourcing of third parties does not follow public procurement law.

B.

Violations of service conditions trigger either fines or termination.

C.

Due diligence of third parties is conducted only after contract signing.

D.

The right-to-audit clause is limited by personal data protection regulations.

Question 87

Which control is meant to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

A whistleblower hotline for reporting fraud anonymously.

B.

A periodic presentation to the entire organization to elevate fraud resilience culture.

C.

A year-end reconciliation of significant accounts and general ledgers.

D.

A review of exceptions approved by management for alignment with delegated authority.

Question 88

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors must exercise due professional care to Insure that all significant risks will be identified,

B.

Internal auditors must apply the care and skill expected of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor

C.

Due professional care requires the internal auditor to conduct extensive examinations and verifications to ensure fraud does not exist,

D.

Due professional care is displayed during a consulting engagement when the internal auditor focuses on potential benefits of the engagement rather than the cost.

Question 89

A series of incidents over the past year reveals several members of senior management possess a limited understanding of the concept and impact of fraud. Which of the following would be the most effective way to approach this issue?

Options:

A.

The board should ask the internal audit activity to perform additional assurance engagements.

B.

A comprehensive fraud risk assessment and management program should be carried out.

C.

The organization should conduct training sessions on fraud, which should be attended by senior management and staff.

D.

Anti-fraud and whistleblowing policies should be implemented and their importance should be clearly stated.

Question 90

The chief audit executive (CAE) annually develops a budget and resource plan and submits it to the board for approval. This action best fulfills which of the following responsibilities of the CAE?

Options:

A.

The responsibility to maintain organizational independence.

B.

The responsibility to perform engagements with due professional care.

C.

The responsibility to communicate corrective action plans to the board.

D.

The responsibility to define the purpose of the internal audit activity.

Question 91

An internal auditor for a manufacturing company is asked by a separate consulting company to work for them on an as-needed basis outside of his normal working hours to develop policies and procedures for a customer of the consulting company. The two companies are not competitors.

If the auditor agrees to take on the additional work, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

This would not be a violation of The IIA’s standards of ethics and professionalism.

B.

This would constitute a breach of confidentiality, as the auditor has knowledge of the policies and procedures of the manufacturing company obtained in the course of his work.

C.

This would constitute an integrity issue because the auditor is still employed by the manufacturing company.

D.

This would be an impairment to objectivity because auditors cannot assume operational responsibilities, such as creating corporate processes and procedures.

Question 92

Which of the following would the chief audit executive be required to disclose in the communication of quality assessment results to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

The cost and frequency of both internal and external assessments.

B.

Any assumptions made by the assessment team

C.

A potential conflict of interest of the assessment team.

D.

The assessment team’s execution plan of relevant procedures.

Question 93

According to HA guidance, which of the following would best support the internal auditor ' s conclusion that the organization ' s risk management processes are effective?

Options:

A.

The organization has identified all applicable operational and financial risks.

B.

The organization has documented its strategic and business objectives.

C.

The organization has selected risk responses aligned with its risk appetite.

D.

The organization has documented risk information pertinent to its business.

Question 94

An internal auditor was completely honest with operational management when delivering unfavorable audit results. Which of the following best describes the IIA Code of Ethics principle that the auditor demonstrated?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Objectivity

C.

Competency

D.

Transparency

Question 95

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a large organization has been asked by the board to assume responsibility for risk management and compliance operations, both of which are distinct departments within the organization and are subject to periodic audits by the internal audit activity In regards to future audits of these functions which of the following approaches would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be overseen by a competent external assurance provider

B.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be overseen by a senior audit manager within the internal audit activity other than the CAE

C.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be conducted by internal auditors under the supervision of management from both functions

D.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be earned out by a team of the most experienced auditors overseen by the CAE

Question 96

Which of the following situations best describes an internal auditor who may have violated the IIA Code of Ethics principle of confidentiality?

Options:

A.

The auditor intentionally omitted from his resume that he was fired from his previous job for fraud allegations,

B.

The auditor decided not to notify her supervisor that her brother-in-law was responsible for the project the auditor was expected to evaluate.

C.

The auditor asked the audit client to copy requested files to her personal unencrypted memory stick because it was faster and more convenient.

D.

The auditor was assigned to analyze the organization ' s incentive program and spent long hours reviewing other employees’ bonuses,

Question 97

The internal audit activity conducted an organization wide risk assessment. One of the most significant risks identified is associated with the oil price market. The chief audit executive (CAE) is considering including in the annual audit plan an assessment of the effectiveness of oil price risk management. The manager responsible commented that the assessment was not needed, as market risks were regularly addressed by the financial risk committee. If the CAE decides to include this activity in the annual audit plan anyway, how should it be recorded?

Options:

A.

A consulting engagement independent of the financial risk committee ' s review.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

An assurance engagement.

D.

A joint consulting engagement with input from the financial risk committee.

Question 98

The internal audit activity is undergoing a self-assessment as part of its quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following observations must be addressed in order for the internal audit activity to achieve conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter does not identify which audit services are outsourced.

B.

The internal audit charter has not been reviewed by the legal department.

C.

The internal audit charter has not been approved by the board within the past year.

D.

The internal audit charter does not describe the authority of the internal audit activity.

Question 99

Which of the following describes an advisory service?

Options:

A.

Engagement results include conclusions, recommendations, and independent opinion based on an objective assessment of evidence.

B.

Internal auditors determine engagement objectives, scope, and the assessment techniques to be used.

C.

Internal auditors provided the assessment services requested by the engagement client.

D.

The parties involved in the engagement process are the internal auditor, the owner of the assessed activity, and the user of the engagement results.

Question 100

With regard to the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program, which of the following topics would the chief audit executive include on the quarterly board meeting agenda?

Options:

A.

The scope and frequency of both internal and external quality assessments.

B.

The list of audit engagements that will be assessed during the year.

C.

The number and qualifications of internal audit staff members assigned to perform internal assessments during the year.

D.

The compensation structure of the qualified assessment team.

Question 101

Senior management requested that the internal audit function conduct an advisory engagement to evaluate the design and implementation of the project for setting up a new accounting system.

Which approach should the auditors perform that relates only to an advisory engagement?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with senior management to define the objective and scope of the engagement rather than completing a risk assessment.

B.

Identify the criteria to be used to evaluate the aspects of the activity under review defined in the engagement objectives.

C.

Include in the engagement conclusions the auditors’ judgment regarding the effectiveness of governance, risk management, and control processes.

D.

Identify the types and quantity of resources necessary to achieve the engagement objectives.

Question 102

Which of the following strategies for professional development best demonstrates an internal auditor’s competency ' ?

Options:

A.

Completed education credits

B.

Membership in professional organizations

C.

Subscriptions to sources of relevant professional information

D.

Professional development and training plans

Question 103

When taken by a chief audit executive, which of the following actions would be most likely to prevent division management from exaggerating sales reports?

1. Announcing a series of internal audit engagements focusing on compliance with corporate sales-reporting policies.

2. Asking the president and the board to issue a statement of corporate policy stressing the importance of accurate management

reporting and the negative consequences of intentional misreporting.

3. Setting up a hotline for employees to report fraudulent behavior anonymously,

4. Assisting the controller in developing and monitoring a series of business process indicators, which are historically correlated with, but independent of sales.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 104

When would on-the-job training be more effective?

Options:

A.

When participants already have a certain degree of experience and knowledge.

B.

When it makes up the largest part of the training budget.

C.

When it includes ongoing feedback and coaching from experienced team members.

D.

When it is standardized for the whole entire staff.

Question 105

Which of the following best describes a responsibility of the board of directors with regard to risk management throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

Monitor the organization ' s overall risk activities in relation to its risk appetite and other risk criteria.

B.

Guide the integration of risk management with other business planning and management activities.

C.

Review the portfolio of risk of the organization in relation to its risk appetite.

D.

Assume responsibility for the effectiveness and success of the risk management framework

Question 106

Which of the following scenarios would cause a chief audit executive (CAE) to immediately discontinue using any statements that would indicate conformance with the Standards in an audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity used a risk-based approach to create the internal audit plan.

B.

The engagement supervisor considered requests from senior management regarding engagements to include in the internal audit plan.

C.

The CAE only accepted engagements that the internal audit activity collectively had the knowledge to perform.

D.

The area under review restricted the internal audit activity ' s ability to access records, impacting the audit results.

Question 107

Which of the following is a greater consideration for internal auditors when they are performing a consulting engagement than when they are performing an assurance engagement ' ?

Options:

A.

The relative complexity of the engagement

B.

The cost of the engagement relative to its benefits

C.

The extent of work needed to achieve the engagement ' s objective

D.

The needs and expectations of the engagement client

Question 108

Management is installing security cameras to identify unauthorized physical access to the organization ' s warehouse. This is an example of which of the following types of controls?

Options:

A.

Detective controls.

B.

Key controls.

C.

Primary controls.

D.

Preventive controls

Question 109

According to the Standards, in today ' s technology and business environments, how much computer and information systems-related knowledge and skills must an internal auditor have to be effective in fulfilling his job responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Auditors must have an IT specialty in at least one of their organization ' s key information technology systems.

B.

Auditors must be proficient in data analysis and computer assisted audit techniques for their organization.

C.

Auditors must understand their organization ' s integrated test facilities and generalized audit software.

D.

Auditors must understand their organization ' s IT governance, risk, and control processes.

Question 110

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Coaching management in responding to risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on management’s behalf.

C.

Imposing risk management processes.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

Question 111

The CEO of an organization expresses his opinion clearly and confidently, and others in the organization do not dare to challenge his opinion. In fact, members of the senior management team communicate support for the CEO’s viewpoints even when they personally disagree.

Which of the following cultural success factors seems to be missing in this organization?

Options:

A.

Open dialogue.

B.

Clear communication.

C.

Positive incentives.

D.

Code of conduct.

Question 112

An internal auditor interviews for a position within the organization’s IT department while simultaneously conducting an audit of the area’s ability to manage the organization’s user network accounts.

This presents a conflict of which of the following principles?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Objectivity.

C.

Competency.

D.

Integrity.

Question 113

The internal audit function is auditing the organization’s procurement process. In planning for the engagement, a fraud risk was identified for payments to employee-owned vendors.

Which of the following procedures would most likely identify this situation?

Options:

A.

Agreeing on approval documentation for payments to vendors.

B.

Interviewing procurement staff to understand the vendor management process.

C.

Performing data analytics to identify vendor payments to an employee address.

D.

Ensuring changes to the vendor master file are reviewed and approved.

Question 114

The same internal auditor has audited the regional purchasing department annually for the last three years. The audits have shown several significant control deficiencies that have not been corrected by management. New management is in charge of this regional purchasing department, and it is time to audit the department again. What concerns should be considered prior to assigning the audit to the same auditor?

Options:

A.

Intimidation threats may compromise the auditor ' s objectivity due to multiple negative audit reports completed by the auditor.

B.

The auditor has reviewed the department annually for the last three years, leading to familiarity, which can impact the internal audit activity ' s independence.

C.

A negative cognitive bias may be in place that affects the employee ' s objectivity due to the recent audits with uncorrected control deficiencies.

D.

The auditor may have formed a cultural bias, as the department under review is in the auditor ' s geographic area.

Question 115

Which should the internal auditor first consider when assessing fraud risks during an engagement?

Options:

A.

Compare the organizations fraud strategies with the industry ' s strategies.

B.

Review any related prior fraud investigations.

C.

Investigate any related fraud allegations.

D.

Communicate any suspicious fraud activities to management.

Question 116

Which of the following is an example of an entity-level control pertaining to the finance area of an organization ' ?

Options:

A.

Key account reconciliation such as bank reconciliation

B.

Segregation of duties between posting and reviewing journal entnes

C.

A signing authority matrix for spending approvals

D.

The establishment of a finance and audit committee

Question 117

Which of the following would provide the best support for internal auditors to meet their continuing professional development requirements?

Options:

A.

Access to online internal audit and business skills courses.

B.

Records of self-assessment reports completed by the internal audit staff.

C.

Cosourcing arrangements with external providers on specific engagements.

D.

Performance reviews comparing internal auditors ' achievements against specified goals.

Question 118

The chief audit executive of a large national retailer is reviewing the purpose and objectives of the organization ' s internal audit activity

Which of the following objectives is best aligned with The IIA ' s Mission of Internal Audit?

Options:

A.

To implement a quality assurance and improvement program

B.

To assess the effectiveness of internal controls over organizational assets

C.

To ensure internal auditors possess the competencies needed to perform their responsibilities

D.

To operate within the budget established by the board of directors

Question 119

Which of the following conditions classifies an engagement as a consulting service provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor assigned to the engagement previously worked in the area under review and lacks objectivity.

B.

The internal audit engagement will involve providing an opinion on the effectiveness of controls.

C.

The internal auditor assigned to the engagement was specifically requested by management of the area under review.

D.

he internal audit engagement involves only two parties: the internal auditor and the engagement client.

Question 120

Which of the following best describes the approach the internal audit activity should take to assess and make appropriate recommendations to improve the organization?

Options:

A.

To evaluate an organization s governance processes for making strategic and operational decisions eternal auditors should review the organization s policies and processes related to staff compensation

B.

To determine how an organization provides oversight of its risk management and control activities internal auditors should review board meeting minutes and the board policy manual

C.

To assess how an organization promotes ethics and values both internally and among its external business partners, internal auditors should review the organization ' s related objectives programs and activities

D.

To evaluate how an organization ensures effective performance management and accountability internal auditors should review previously conducted risk assessments

Question 121

An electric company hires several independent contractors to trim trees that are in close proximity to electricity lines. Which of the following would be the most effective control to mitigate the risk of contractors submitting fraudulent invoices regarding work completed?

Options:

A.

Require contractors to submit completed and signed work acceptance sheets

B.

Utilize unmanned drones to conduct regular flights and photo shoots over the areas where work is performed

C.

Reconcile invoices and work acceptance sheets submitted by contractors

D.

Compare actual payments to contractors with budgeted values and analyze discrepancies

Question 122

A new board member, who is unfamiliar with internal auditing, asks the chief audit executive about the purpose of the internal audit function.

Which explanation is accurate?

Options:

A.

To identify problems faced by the organization.

B.

To strengthen the organization through independent and objective engagements.

C.

To ensure that the organization meets its goals and objectives.

D.

To enhance the identification, detection, and elimination of fraud.

Question 123

Which of the following statements is true regarding organizational independence of the internal audit activity (IAA)?

Options:

A.

Reporting to a higher level within the organization reduces the potential scope of engagements that can be undertaken by the IAA.

B.

The benefit of the IAA ' s organizational independence is realized primarily via reduced costs for the external auditor.

C.

Independence is impaired when the scope of the IAA is subject to changes required by senior management.

D.

Inadequate organizational independence can result in the chief audit executive being able to fire staff without consulting the audit committee.

Question 124

A new chief audit executive wants to develop a formal internal control framework for her organization. She uses globally accepted frameworks as a guide. Which of the following would she likely find critical in creating the new framework for her organization?

Options:

A.

Independent assessments.

B.

Continuous monitoring.

C.

Business continuity and backups.

D.

Organization wide objectives.

Question 125

An organization is implementing a new cybersecurity policy and has established a committee to ensure stakeholder alignment across the organization ' s infrastructure, network, and security teams. The head of the committee has asked the chief audit executive if the internal audit activity could play a role in these efforts. According to HA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate response?

Options:

A.

It is not appropriate for the internal audit activity to play a role because its independence must be protected.

B.

The internal audit activity should not participate because there are no IT auditors on staff.

C.

The internal audit activity is knowledgeable about risk and therefore should prioritize the organization ' s responses and control activities for the committee.

D.

The internal audit activity may assist the committee and consult with management on the organization ' s responses and control activities.

Question 126

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Consulting engagements typically involve four or five parties: the internal audit activity, engagement client, senior management, board, and sometimes the external auditor.

B.

The scope of a consulting engagement is determined by either the engagement supervisor or chief audit executive, and it is finalized prior to beginning fieldwork.

C.

According to the Standards, internal auditors are permitted to carry out certain management functions during a consulting engagement.

D.

A preliminary risk assessment may not be needed for consulting engagements, because the expectations and objectives of the engagement are determined by the engagement client.

Question 127

An engagement supervisor noticed that a newly hired internal auditor struggles with large data samples because he appears reluctant to apply available spreadsheet statistical functions and tends to perform testing of transactions manually In which of the following areas does the internal auditor most likely need training?

Options:

A.

Critical thinking.

B.

International Professional Practices Framework

C.

Professional ethics

D.

Business acumen

Question 128

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates a rationalization as the root cause of potential fraud?

Options:

A.

Managers who have been with the organization for several decades become aware that newly hired, younger managers are being moved more quickly into senior positions.

B.

The controller at a nationwide manufacturing company recently opted to no longer require two-week mandatory vacations for accounting staff.

C.

Security cameras that monitor cash handling at the register are not functioning.

D.

The organization is slowly phasing out three mature products that produce the highest commissions for the sales staff

Question 129

A telecommunications organization is planning to cease operations in one or the markets in which it operates due to increasing volatility and uncertainties. Which of the following risk management techniques is the organization selecting?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance.

B.

Risk avoidance.

C.

Risk sharing.

D.

Risk reduction.

Question 130

During a payroll audit, the internal auditor discovered that several individuals who have the same position classification as he are earning a significantly higher salary. The auditor noted the names and amounts of each, and he planned to prepare a request to the chief audit executive for a salary increase based on this information. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was violated in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Competency.

B.

Objectivity,

C.

Integrity.

D.

Confidentiality

Question 131

The head of human resources notified the internal audit activity that a key account manager was fired because he did not register a large number of contracts with clients As a result the organization was unaware of its duties and would suffer some financial loss Which of the following should be expected from a competent internal auditor who is analyzing this situation?

Options:

A.

The ability to apply forensic methods to obtain legally admissible evidence

B.

The ability to conduct admission-seeking interviews with potential suspects

C.

The ability to evaluate whether such attributes as intent and personal gain were present

D.

The ability to retrieve concealed or deleted information from the former employee ' s laptop

Question 132

According to the Standards, which of the following demonstrates the proficiency of an internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Each internal auditor must hold one or more certifications in the area of fraud and seek out continuing professional development related to fraud detection and fraud investigation.

B.

Each internal auditor must have sufficient knowledge of IT risks and controls, and be able to evaluate the risk of fraud and the manner in which it is managed by the organization.

C.

Each internal auditor on the engagement team must possess the same level of knowledge, skills, and other competencies as other auditors on the engagement team.

D.

Each internal auditor must be paired, by the chief audit executive, with an individual who possesses the knowledge, skills, or other competencies required to complete the audit.

Question 133

The chief audit executive (CAE) has decided to outsource an audit of the organization ' s cloud governance in the annual audit plan. Why would the CAE outsource this audit?

Options:

A.

Lack of internal audit staff proficiency.

B.

Lack of audit planning.

C.

Lack of internal assessments.

D.

Lack of due professional care.

Question 134

Senior management has requested that the internal audit activity review and amend policies where necessary when auditing the purchasing department. To which of the following would the chief audit executive most likely give primary consideration when responding to this request?

Options:

A.

Auditor competency.

B.

Internal audit independence.

C.

Auditor objectivity.

D.

Engagement scope.

Question 135

Which of the following actions, if taken by a chief audit executive, aligns with a successful continuing professional development program?

Options:

A.

Adoption of a collaborative initiative with the organization’s human resources function to identify potential talent for the internal audit function.

B.

Introduction of a challenge that encourages internal auditors to volunteer with their respective professional bodies on advocacy.

C.

Implementation of biannual reporting to the board on the freedom of the internal audit function from undue influence from senior management.

D.

Deployment of an electronic platform for disclosing potential impairments to the objectivity of individual internal auditors.

Question 136

A manufacturing organization ' s chief audit executive (CAE) was approached by the head of security from one of the manufacturer ' s third party suppliers The head of security requested internal audit records from a recent audit engagement involving the third-party supplier The head of security believed those records contained information that would enable to identify employees of the third-party supplier who may be involved m fraudulent activities What is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Obtain approval from the manufacturer ' s audit committee regarding the release of audit records

B.

Release the records but first remove all data regarding the manufacturing organization s internal actions and procedures

C.

Deny access to the records as the third party supplier s security learn should be able to investigate then own employees.

D.

Consult with the manufacturer ' s senior management to determine whether releasing tie records would be appropriate

Question 137

During an assurance engagement internal auditors interview operational management to gather and evaluate information. Which approach is most important for internal auditors to be able to listen effectively to interviewees in the given situation?

Options:

A.

Make an audio recording of the interview

B.

Interrupt with questions during unclear statements

C.

Express interest by asking follow-up questions

D.

Avoid periods of silence

Question 138

Which of the following statements is true regarding consulting and assurance engagements performed by the internal audit activity ' ?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, the auditor must independently and objectively select the criteria for evaluation

B.

For a consulting engagement, internal auditors and management jointly agree on the adequate criteria needed to evaluate governance, risk management, and controls. This is not true of assurance engagements

C.

Engagement planning and fieldwork are similar for both types of engagements (there are no major differences) although the reporting process is different depending on which service is provided

D.

For a consulting engagement objectives must address governance risk management and control processes to the extent agreed upon with the client. This is not true of assurance engagements

Question 139

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a new internal audit activity is creating an internal audit charter According to IIA guidance, which of the following terms is most likely to

be included in the charter?

Options:

A.

Senior management will be present whenever the CAE interacts with the board, to ensure effective communication among all three parties.

B.

Internal auditors will advise on the design of control policies and procedures in any area where the organization does not possess the requisite expertise,

C.

Internal auditors will demonstrate competence, concern, and the dedication expected of a professional,

D.

Internal auditors will receive performance-based compensation, including bonuses for reporting more than a stipulated number of observations.

Question 140

An organization allows the same individuals to physical access inventory and purchase new assets when supplies are depleted. Which of the following would best help the organization manage the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Accounting personnel should regularly perform reconciliation between invoices and purchase orders

B.

Accounting personnel should conduct a periodic inventory count and reconcile inventory movements

C.

internal auditors should review Vie frequency and volume of purchased assets to detect trends in the inventory levels

D.

Management should established a policy requiring new inventory asset purchases to be made on serialized order forms with copies retained

Question 141

Which of the following is the primary reason that the quality assurance and improvement program should be detailed in the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

To justify training costs in the internal audit function’s annual budget.

B.

To demonstrate the intent to fulfill responsibilities with proficiency and due professional care.

C.

To conform with mandatory IIA guidance regarding internal audit charters.

D.

To describe the significance of internal audit independence and the activities promoting it.

Question 142

In which of the following ways can a whistleblower hotline serve as a prevent

Options:

A.

active control? 3

B.

Third parties who operate the hotline ensure anonymity for whistle blowers. D Whistleblower tips help discover wrongdoings and violations of the code of conduct.Potential perpetrators of fraud know that their actions can be reported easily.

C.

Better investigation protocols are triggered by the whistleblower hotline.

Question 143

Which of the following is most important for an internal auditor to consider when developing an approach for an audit engagement in a foreign country?

Options:

A.

Currency exchange rates, as they relate to internal audit-related expenses.

B.

Differences in typical working hours, compared to other countries.

C.

The effects of subtle language nuances on translations.

D.

Accepted practices that may be illegal in other countries.

Question 144

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with the Standards relating to continuing professional development of internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Regulatory approval from an accrediting agency.

B.

Self-assessments against a competency framework.

C.

Approval and signoff from the board of directors.

D.

A review by external auditors on an annual basis

Question 145

An internal auditor is reviewing the results of an employee survey at a mining company. Which of the following would alert the auditor to a potential ethics issue?

Options:

A.

Women account for 20% of the total number of employees in the company.

B.

Thirty percent of employees feel confident in raising concerns without a fear of retaliation.

C.

Most employees believe that transparent and fair decision-making forms the basis of business ethics.

D.

Employees with longer work experience believe that they deserve more privileges than new hires.

Question 146

Which of the following preventative controls would be most effective for organizations facing business disruptions and respective financial losses?

Options:

A.

Develop a business continuity plan for contingent situations,

B.

Insure the organization against financial losses.

C.

Rely on third-party cloud solution providers for the organization ' s systems.

D.

Hedge company assets via purchasing derivatives.

Question 147

According to The IIA’s Code of Ethics, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

When an internal auditor releases required information to a regulator, resulting in a significant loss through fines and penalties for the organization, he fails to add value.

B.

When an internal auditor limits the scope of the audit engagement after learning that management is hiding relevant information, he demonstrates integrity.

C.

When an internal auditor disagrees with the treatment received by workers in the organization’s foreign subsidiary and alters the audit program to highlight the issue, the fails to demonstrate objectivity.

D.

When an internal auditor continues with an audit engagement, despite the audit client’s claims that the work performed is unnecessary and redundant, he fails to demonstrate competency.

Question 148

In which scenario might it be considered problematic for the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide assurance services over the payroll function?

Options:

A.

The CAE previously undertook a consulting assignment in that area to improve processes,

B.

A couple of years ago, the CAE performed accounting functions for the payroll department.

C.

Prior to becoming the CAE, the CAE was the payroll manager.

D.

The assurance review was initiated following issues identified during a consulting assignment requested by management.

Question 149

An internal audit function within a commercial bank performs an annual audit of the bank’s anti-money laundering compliance program as required by anti-money laundering regulations. This report is submitted to regulators annually as proof that the audit was performed.

Which of the following concepts is illustrated in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assurance services.

B.

Independence.

C.

Objectivity.

D.

Advisory services.

Question 150

Which of the following functions does an internal audit charter serve?

Options:

A.

It provides a formal, written agreement with management and the board regarding the organization’s internal audit function.

B.

It provides all internal auditors with unlimited access to records, personnel, and physical property.

C.

It provides senior management with formal criteria for periodic assessments of the adequacy of the internal audit function’s purpose, authority, and responsibility.

D.

It provides the internal audit function with the authority to perform any fraud investigation engagement that can enhance or protect the value of the organization.

Question 151

An internal audit team received the following feedback from operational management via a post-engagement survey " Management agrees with all audit findings However, the audit team did not consider our input on the best way to resolve the issues”

This feedback is an indication that the internal audit activity may need to improve which of the following interpersonal skills?

Options:

A.

Leadership

B.

Conflict management

C.

Communication

D.

Influence

Question 152

The organization s procurement manager asks the internal auditor to deliver training to the procurement team on the organization’s third-party risk management process. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor should reject the request it she previously worked in the procurement area to maintain objectivity

B.

The internal auditor should reject the request if the internal audit team does not have the requisite expertise.

C.

The internal auditor should accept the request and in fact she may assume some management responsibilities temporarily if the result is a relevant training benefit

D.

The internal auditor may accept the request only if she defines the scope to ensure conformance with the Code of Ethics

Question 153

Due to toe increased operational responsibility of the CEO. The chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization currently reports to the chief financial officer (CFO). What is the likely imped of such a situation?

Options:

A.

There may be limitation m the scope of engagements that can be undertaken

B.

The CPO could provide expert advice when auditing areas under his purview

C.

The internal audit activity is adequately positioned when the CAE reports to a member of executive management

D.

The expense of finance staff can be catted upon during an audit of finance-related areas

Question 154

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding mentoring programs designed to assist internal auditors with their professional development?

Options:

A.

The mentor must have a higher position in the organization than the mentee

B.

An auditor s supervisor is best positioned to serve as the auditor ' s mentor

C.

Meetings between a mentor and a mentee should be formal and well documented

D.

Auditors at the same level may be assigned different mentors and some auditors may have no mentor

Question 155

To assure that the technical proficiency of internal auditors is appropriate for the audit engagements to be performed, a chief audit executive should:

Options:

A.

Consider the scope of work and level of responsibility when establishing criteria for education and experience in filling internal audit positions.

B.

Ensure that each newly hired auditor is qualified in all of the disciplines needed to accomplish the department’s audit mission.

C.

Oversee a training program that matches the actual training provided with the interests of individual auditors.

D.

Require all of the audit staff to pursue a minimum number of continuing professional education hours each year

Question 156

Which of the following organizations has reached the most mature level of corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

An organization that is able to provide goods and services society needs and thus maximizes profit to its owners.

B.

An organization that ensures compliance to legal frameworks of the countries in which it operates and sells its products.

C.

An organization that is willing to make contributions not mandated by law or economics and expects no payback.

D.

An organization that requires its decision makers to act with equity, fairness, and respect for the rights of individuals.

Question 157

Which of the following situations demonstrates that management opted to transfer the risk instead of reducing it?

Options:

A.

Management decided to stop the import of raw materials from a politically unstable country.

B.

Management decided to outsource server and data center management function.

C.

Management decided to sell all shares of the foreign business unit of the company.

D.

Management decided to set lower authorization limits for international transactions.

Question 158

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible. Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes wifi provide depth and add more value.,

B.

If it is a consulting engagement, decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible.

C.

If it is a consulting engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value.

D.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because the chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor ' s previous role when this engagement was assigned.

Question 159

An employee accepts cash payments from customers and does not record the sale. This is an example of which of the following types of fraud?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation.

B.

Skimming

C.

Corruption.

D.

Lapping.

Question 160

In which of the following scenarios would it be appropriate for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards?

Options:

A.

It A new internal audit activity was formed four years ago. An external assessment was never performed, but successive internal assessments were performed and support the conclusion that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards

B.

An internal self-assessment completed yesterday found that the internal audit activity did not conform with the Standards when carrying out its work. However, the preceding independent external assessment supports the conclusion that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

C.

To reduce costs, the CAE excluded the use of external assessors from the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program for the past seven years.However, the CAE concluded that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards because all internal assessments over the period have supported this conclusion.

D.

The results of the last external assessment of the internal audit activity, performed a little over five years ago, indicated that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards. The most recent internal assessment performed within the past year also indicates conformance.

Question 161

Which of the following would be the best choice for a continuing professional development requirement for a newly created internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Require all internal auditors to create a training plan based on a competency self-assessment.

B.

Require internal auditors to complete all of their training through webinars, to increase efficiency and avoid traveling

C.

Require all internal auditors to become a member of The Institute of Internal Auditors.

D.

Require internal auditors to create a training plan based on their areas of interest

Question 162

Who is responsible for setting the risk appetite?

Options:

A.

External auditors.

B.

Chief risk officer.

C.

Operations management.

D.

Board of directors.

Question 163

During a review of employee benefits, a staff internal auditor observed an ambiguity in the incentive compensation policy. If reported, it could negatively impact the internal auditor ' s compensation. Which of the following would encourage the internal auditor to be objective in his work?

Options:

A.

Periodic reinforcement of the internal audit activity ' s code of ethics disclosure practices.

B.

External assessments of the internal audit activity every five years.

C.

Audit committee review of every engagement report at the conclusion of the audit.

D.

Internal audit charter approved by the board.

Question 164

An internal audit team was assigned to review the organization ' s information security protocol. After fieldwork was completed, an internal auditor identified an error in the review of security access. The error could affect the overall results of the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Proceed with addressing the error and report any corrections to the engagement supervisor during the scheduled exit meeting.

B.

Issue the audit report to senior management on schedule but include a disclaimer about the error.

C.

Proceed with the scheduled closing of the engagement without consideration of the identified error.

D.

Inform the engagement supervisor of the error and allow the supervisor to determine the appropriate action to take.

Question 165

When testing a sample of payroll records during an engagement, an internal auditor suspects mat fraud has been committed. What should be the next step?

Options:

A.

The auditor should increase the sample size to determine the extent ol the fraud.

B.

The suspicions should be communicated to the chief audit executive.

C.

The testing should be completed with the results reported in the final audit report.

D.

A fraud investigator should examine the evidence and report back to the auditor.

Question 166

Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing a governance, risk management, and compliance framework within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fewer internal audits.

B.

More effective interviews.

C.

Automated risk management strategy tools.

D.

Reduced assurance costs.

Question 167

Which of the following would be most helpful to measure whether an internal audit activity successfully provides risk-based assurance?

Options:

A.

Percentage of highly significant risks covered by internal audit plan.

B.

Percentage of previously unknown risks identified per engagement.

C.

Percentage of internal audit staff skilled in alignment with the organization ' s structure and key risks.

D.

Percentage of observations made in assurance engagements compared to advisory engagements.

Question 168

Which of the following offers the feast evidence that the internal audit activity has achieved organizational independence?

Options:

A.

An independent third party has assessed the organization ' s system of internal controls to be adequate and effective.

B.

The chief audit executive reports both functionally and administratively to the CEO.

C.

The internal audit charter is drafted properly and approved by the appropriate parties.

D.

The mission statement and strategy of the internal audit activity demonstrates alignment to organizational objectives.

Question 169

During an audit engagement, a junior staff internal auditor begins to suspect a fraud may have occurred involving a friend of the engagement supervisor. He reports his concerns to the engagement supervisor, who disagrees with his suspicions and directs him to continue with the engagement as planned. Given the circumstance, what is the most appropriate action for the junior auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Document in the workpapers and expand testing.

B.

Continue with the engagement as planned, per the more senior auditor.

C.

Report the suspected fraud to law enforcement officials and seek financial restitution.

D.

Escalate the concern to the chief audit executive.

Question 170

According to NA guidance, which of the following provides the best evidence of conformance with the Standards with respect to the proficiency required of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Discussions with the chief audit executive.

B.

A listing of employee profiles and certifications.

C.

Inquiry of external auditors.

D.

Validation by human resources.

Question 171

Which of the following is an example of risk monitoring to ensure a system is performing as intended?

Options:

A.

Checking the progress of risk treatment plans

B.

Considering the consequence and likelihood of risks

C.

Documenting the risks and their areas of impact

D.

Communicating to management about risks

Question 172

According to MA guidance, which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The IIA ' s Code of Ethics must exist outside of the charter to maintain independence.

B.

The charter must be approved by both senior management and the board.

C.

The nature of consulting services does not need to be defined in the Internal audit charter.

D.

The charter provides a framework for performing a broad range of value-added audit services.

Question 173

What is the best course of action when the internal audit activity does not have the knowledge necessary to perform a planned audit of the organization ' s new IT data backup process?

Options:

A.

Postpone the audit engagement to a later date.

B.

Recruit and hire a full-time staff auditor who is proficient in data backup processes.

C.

Change the plan from an assurance engagement to a consulting engagement.

D.

Provide data backup training to the engagement supervisor.

Question 174

Which of the following scenarios represents an impairment to the independence of the internal audit function?

Options:

A.

The audit manager is a close relative of the organization’s chief operating officer.

B.

The internal audit function’s budget is reviewed and approved by management.

C.

The internal auditor performing an engagement in accounts payable advises on the implementation of accounts payable software and its controls design.

D.

Staff internal auditors are offered stock options, rather than cash, as bonuses.

Question 175

What is expected of internal auditors in regards to due professional care?

Options:

A.

Auditors perform assurance services without regard to cost

B.

Auditors perform assurance services effectively to identify all risks

C.

Auditors perform assurance services needed to achieve the engagement ' s objectives

D.

Auditors perform assurance services to guarantee all significant risks will be addressed

Question 176

Management of an area under review is aggressive, upset, and questioning the knowledge and experience of the organization ' s internal auditors, as the audit results highlight critical findings. The relationship between the internal audit activity and management has continued to degenerate. as previous audit reports also showed a large number of issues. What would be the best strategy for working through the current audit results while also attempting to repair the relationship with management?

Options:

A.

Take an accommodating approach and change the overall rating of the audit report.

B.

Take a compromising approach by modifying the tone of the report, while maintaining the critical findings.

C.

Take an assertive approach and be persistent in attempting to convince the director.

D.

Take an assisting approach and offer to assist with the implementation of action plans.

Question 177

The largest risks facing an organization should be mitigated by which type of controls?

Options:

A.

Entity-level

B.

Activity-level

C.

Transaction-level

D.

Process-level

Question 178

Which of the following is an example of an application control?

Options:

A.

Employees in the data center must always wear identification badges

B.

Operating system updates must be installed within 48 hours.

C.

A two stage authentication process must be used to access customer information

D.

System backup and recovery testing must be done monthly

Question 179

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership.

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting.

Question 180

Which of the following policies promotes internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the CEO

B.

The CAE s compensation is approved by the chief financial officer

C.

The CAF ' s appointment is determined by the CEO

D.

The CAE reports administratively to the chief operating officer

Question 181

With regard to governance, which of the following is a board-level responsibility rather than a management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Obtaining assurance on external financial, regulatory, and internal audits.

B.

Complying with laws, regulations, and codes.

C.

Assigning authority and responsibilities organization wide.

D.

Monitoring and measuring performance.

Question 182

An existing Internal audit charter is currently under review for revision. Who is responsible for assuring that all required components are included?

Options:

A.

The audit committee.

B.

The head of legal and compliance.

C.

The chief audit executive.

D.

Senior management.

Question 183

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding a consulting engagement involving an organization ' s new payroll system?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor and engagement client established an understanding that the scope would include the new payroll system project.

B.

The payroll system engagement was scheduled as a result of internal audit ' s risk-based annual planning process.

C.

The internal auditor concluded that the engagement objectives would include assessing the effectiveness of the payroll process controls.

D.

The internal auditor acknowledged the engagement client’s satisfactory performance in the final engagement results that were communicated to senior management and the board.

Question 184

Which of the following best describes a consulting engagement rather than an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Bank internal auditors review an activity checklist to determine that the loan officer followed proper procedures.

B.

The chief financial officer asks for the internal auditor ' s opinion regarding whether the new accounting pronouncements were properly and comprehensively adopted.

C.

An internal auditor is assigned to assess whether a proposed new initiative to convert a customer service system would be cost-effective.

D.

Senior management asks the internal audit activity to review compliance with customer data security regulations.

Question 185

During fieldwork, an internal auditor located a significant internal control issue. Without identifying the origins of the issue, the auditor concluded the engagement and included the issue in the final audit report. To enhance audit quality, which of the following skills should the internal auditor improve?

Options:

A.

Business acumen.

B.

Critical thinking.

C.

Communication.

D.

Audit report writing.

Question 186

The management at a national consumer goods organization implements a fair work and pay practice as well as a policy to treat employees equitably and consistently.

Which common characteristics of fraud will the practice and policy most likely reduce?

Options:

A.

Pressure or incentive.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Commitment.

Question 187

Which of the following best describes the Standards requirement for collective proficiency of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity must have auditors on staff who collectively possess all of the competencies required to fulfill the internal audit plan,

B.

All internal auditors on staff should possess the knowledge, skills, and competencies needed to perform any assurance engagement on the audit plan.

C.

The internal audit activity must possess or obtain the competencies needed to carry out their professional responsibilities, including providing relevant advice and recommendations.

D.

Internal auditors collectively are responsible for ensuring that the internal audit activity has the competencies required to fulfill the internal audit plan.

Question 188

A manufacturer of power tools is experiencing regular fluctuations in the price of electrical power which is having a serious impact on the bottom line. Which of the following would be the most effective risk strategy to reduce the impact of these fluctuations?

Options:

A.

Use an average cost for power to smooth the bottom line.

B.

Analyze the amount of power used to produce each power tool.

C.

Review the current process to identify opportunities to reduce power usage.

D.

Use a forward contract for bulk power purchases

Question 189

According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding an effective governance process?

Options:

A.

It stipulates that risk needs to be considered when making strategic decisions.

B.

It encourages strict segregation of the risk management and internal control processes.

C.

It relies on effective risk management when establishing the organization ' s risk appetite.

D.

It relies on the board to devise ways to communicate the effectiveness of internal controls.

Question 190

A new chief audit executive realized that the internal audit charter has not been updated in five years and only includes the Core Principles for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing, the Code of Ethics, and the Standards. What mandatory component is missing?

Options:

A.

Statement of Independence.

B.

Operating Procedures of Internal Auditing.

C.

Definition of Internal Auditing.

D.

Attestation of Quality Assurance.

Question 191

Applying ISO 31000, which of the following is part of the external context for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment method based on risk evaluation.

B.

Organizational culture, objectives, and processes.

C.

The regulatory and competitive environment

D.

The method of determining the risk level.

Question 192

An audit engagement required that an internal auditor, using available tools, test a transaction population for a period The auditor decided to test a sample of transactions rather than the full population.

Results of the audit were reported as satisfactory to management. Subsequent to the audit report, fraud was discovered in the area audited and was found to include transactions that were in the relevant transaction population not tested by the auditor. The auditor later disclosed that he decided to test a sample because it was representative of the population and facilitated quicker testing. Which of the following skills below, if improved, would most likely have prevented this situation?

Options:

A.

Objectivity

B.

Critical thinking.

C.

Empathy.

D.

Communication

Question 193

The internal audit activity is asked to provide consulting services regarding the risks related to implementing a proposed new Inventory management system. Which of the following would be a key consideration of the internal audit activity in accepting this engagement?

Options:

A.

Ask the inventory manager to determine whether the work planned would be sufficient to meet the consulting engagement objectives.

B.

Ensure that the method used to communicate the results of the consulting engagement is consistent with the board ' s preferred method.

C.

Determine whether the benefits to be derived from the requested assessment would exceed the cost of providing the consulting service.

D.

Use email and telephone conversations to convey the results of the engagement, as these may prove to be the most efficient methods for communicating.

Question 194

Which of the following statements best represents the duo professional care that is required of internal auditor’s?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should perform assurance procedures to ensure that all significant risks are identified.

B.

Internal auditor should not perform consulting engagements for operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

C.

Internal auditors should consider the cost of assurance in relation to the potential benefits.

D.

Internal auditors should device internal audit programs to confirm that the results are accurate.

Question 195

Which of the following describes a primary responsibility for the internal audit activity in helping management maintain effective controls?

Options:

A.

Promoting continuous evaluation

B.

Promoting continuous monitoring

C.

Promoting continuous improvement

D.

Promoting continuous reporting

Question 196

Which of the following drivers of fraud is directly controllable by an organization?

Options:

A.

Pressure

B.

Rationalization

C.

Opportunity

D.

Incentive

Question 197

Which of the following would best describe a control implemented to detect cash register disbursement fraud in a large retail store?

Options:

A.

Separate the duties of processing and authorizing refunds on merchandise

B.

Post signs in the register area prompting customers to ask for and examine their sales receipts

C.

Periodically count the cash in the register and compare it to the expected amount

D.

Use cash registers with internal tapes that are tamper proof and that require a manager to process voids or refunds

Question 198

According to the IIA Code of Ethics, which of the following best describes the conduct of an internal auditor who demonstrates the principle of competency?

Options:

A.

The auditor is prudent in the use and protection of information acquired in the course of his work.

B.

The auditor does not accept anything that may impair or be presumed to impair his professional judgment.

C.

The auditor does not perform services in a particular area when he lacks skills in that area.

D.

The auditor performs work with honesty, diligence, and responsibility.

Question 199

Which of the following best describes a purpose for the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter authorizes the internal audit activity ' s reporting structure and clearly defines the roles of each internal auditor.

B.

The internal audit charter defines the roles and responsibilities of the chief audit executive, board of directors, and senior management.

C.

The internal audit charter authorizes access to records, personnel, and physical properties relevant to the performance of audit engagements.

D.

The internal audit charter defines the criteria by which the internal audit activity ' s performance will be evaluated

Question 200

In which of the following scenarios is the internal auditor in conformance with The IIA ' s Code of Ethics and the Standards?

Options:

A.

The auditor testifies in front of a jury about an organization ' s fraudulent financial practices after receiving a subpoena

B.

Management has agreed to remedy a significant control deficiency, so the auditor excludes the deficiency from the engagement report

C.

The chief audit executive declines an assurance engagement in IT because the internal audit activity is not proficient in IT

D.

The auditor communicates an audit opinion on fraud risk during an audit engagement’s preliminary fraud risk assessment

Question 201

The results of an assessment of the adequacy of controls would be considered incomplete or misleading unless the internal auditor considers which of the following?

Options:

A.

Number of mitigating controls.

B.

Effectiveness of the control environment

C.

Use of computer-assisted auditing techniques.

D.

IT security controls

Question 202

Which of the following best demonstrates the authority of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Suggesting alternatives to decision makers.

B.

Improving the integrity of information.

C.

Determining the scope of internal audit services

D.

Achieving engagement objectives.

Question 203

Who is ultimately responsible for the organization’s daily execution of governance processes?

Options:

A.

The board.

B.

The internal audit function.

C.

Management.

D.

The risk committee.

Question 204

Which of the following actions is the internal audit activity best positioned within the organization to perform?

Options:

A.

Determine organizational risk tolerances

B.

Monitor the organization ' s risk mitigations

C.

Determine the likelihood and impact of risks

D.

Advise the board on risk management issues

Question 205

Which of the following would best preserve the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter is approved by the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

The CAE reports functionally to the CEO.

C.

The CAE ' s internal audit plan is endorsed by the board.

D.

The chief financial officer determines the appointment of the CAE.

Question 206

Which of the following documents most directly describes the guidelines for and importance of the objectivity of internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Internal audit quality assessments.

B.

Internal audit charter.

C.

Internal audit plan.

D.

Internal audit reporting.

Question 207

The accounting department asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a review of suspicious transactions The CAE was an accounting manager for the organization six months ago How should she respond to the request?

Options:

A.

Decline, if it is consulting engagement because she recently worked in the organization s accounting department

B.

Accept, 11 is an assurance engagement, as she has been out of the department long enough to not impair objectivity.

C.

Inform the accounting department mat me engagement can take place m the future once she has been removed from accounting for a longer period of time.

D.

Accept, it is a consulting engagement with agreed-upon scope and services to be provided by me internal audit activity.

Question 208

Management has implemented a segregation-of-duties policy for handling inventory. Which of the following fraud risks would be more concerning to an internal auditor following the implementation of this new policy?

Options:

A.

The risk of collusion between parties.

B.

The risk of falsified reconciliations.

C.

The risk of low-liquidity inventory.

D.

The risk of damages to the inventory.

Question 209

An internal auditor was offered expensive tickets to a sporting event by the manager of an area that she was currently auditing. The auditor politely declined. Which of the following fundamental principles of the MA Code of Ethics did she display?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Independence.

C.

Competency.

D.

Objectivity

Question 210

A risk assessment showed that the cost of addressing a particular risk in the organization ' s human resources department is greater than the perceived benefit. Which risk response approach should the organization take in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Reduce the risk.

B.

Transfer the risk.

C.

Accept the risk.

D.

Share the risk.

Question 211

Which of the following statements about internal audit consulting engagements is true?

Options:

A.

The primary purpose of a consulting engagement is to assess evidence and provide conclusions.

B.

The internal audit activity determines the nature and scope of work for the specific consulting engagement

C.

Internal auditors may provide consulting services relating to operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

D.

It is not appropriate to communicate control issues identified during consulting engagements to the board

Question 212

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit charier?

Options:

A.

The charier should be revised and re-approved whenever a new chief audit executive (CAE) is appointed or at the request of the board

B.

The charier should be re-approved every five years, in conjunction with the external quality assessment

C.

The charier can be revised at the discretion of the CAE whenever 4 is determined that its content no longer supports the achievement of objectives

D.

The charier should be reviewed and resubmitted for board approval annually together with the audit plan

Question 213

An organization is conducting a fraud risk assessment as part ol its risk management program. Which of the following steps is the organization most likely to perform first?

Options:

A.

Identify relevant fraud risk factors.

B.

Identify potential fraud schemes.

C.

Identify existing controls for preventing and detecting fraud.

D.

Identify red flags by conducting data analysis.

Question 214

Which of the following activities is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud.

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud

Question 215

Which of the following measures could directly improve the general understanding of fraud risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Request that the internal audit function conduct regular fraud risk assessments.

B.

Include fraud risk in the organization wide risk management program.

C.

Formalize fraud reporting mechanisms.

D.

Provide education about tactics used by fraudsters.

Question 216

Which of the following is a primary responsibility of senior management with respect to ethical violations?

Options:

A.

Senior management provides oversight for the organization ' s ethical climate.

B.

Senior management promotes an ethical culture in the organization.

C.

Senior management assesses the effectiveness of the organization’s ethical programs.

D.

Senior management reviews major ethical policies in the organization for compliance

Question 217

Which of the following is an indicator that an organization ' s risk management processes are effective?

Options:

A.

Departmental objectives are managed by department heads and are independent of the organization ' s mission.

B.

Organization wide mechanisms exist to enable the identification and assessment of all significant risks.

C.

Department heads have the autonomy to determine risk responses that fall outside of the organizations risk appetite

D.

Relevant risk information is captured and communicated primarily between management and the board

Question 218

When performing an audit of the risk management process an auditor makes the observations listed below. Which poses the greatest risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

The identified risks have not undergone a detailed review to ensure completeness in the past two years.

B.

The controls in place to mitigate the risks are not tested on an annual basis to confirm operating effectiveness.

C.

The process in place to identify and evaluate new risks to the organization is informal and poorly documented.

D.

The identified risks have not been ranked to establish their importance and risk management priority.

Question 219

The chief audit executive (CAE) has hired a new internal auditor who was immediately assigned to a procurement function audit. Because the new auditor ' s name is similar to that of the procurement manager, some staff members think the two are related, although they are not. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Take no action, as there is no impairment to independence.

B.

Remove the new internal auditor from the engagement team.

C.

Discuss the matter with the appropriate personnel to alleviate concerns.

D.

Closely supervise the new auditor and carefully review his work.

Question 220

Which of the following skills is critical for assessing corporate social responsibility through a self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Assessment skills

B.

Assurance skills

C.

Interviewing skills

D.

Facilitation skills

Question 221

An organization uses hedging to address foreign currency risk.

Which of the following best describes this risk strategy?

Options:

A.

Avoidance.

B.

Acceptance.

C.

Reduction.

D.

Sharing.

Question 222

Which of the following is the first step in the process of identifying relevant fraud risk factors?

Options:

A.

Identifying preventive and detective controls

B.

Gathering information about the organization’s business activities to gain an understanding of fraud risks

C.

Engaging in strategic reasoning to anticipate the fraud scheme

D.

The use of brainstorming, management interviews, analytical procedures and review of prior frauds.

Question 223

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

Options:

A.

The nature of consulting services typically is not included in the charter.

B.

The chief audit executive must formally review the charter at least once a year

C.

The nature of assurances provided to parties outside of the organization typically is not included in the charter.

D.

The charter typically defines the internal audit activity ' s position within the organization.

Question 224

What should be the first step for a newly hired chief audit executive to build and maintain the proficiency of the internal audit activity ' ?

Options:

A.

Incorporate the basic criteria of internal audit competency into job descriptions

B.

Complete a periodic skills assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

Develop a competency or skill assessment tool.

D.

Perform benchmarking with competitors to learn what other firms are doing related to this topic

Question 225

According to IIA guidance, which policy, established by the chief audit executive, would most likely ensure internal audits are conducted with due professional care?

Options:

A.

The initial review of workpapers should be conducted after the final engagement report is issued.

B.

Independent internal assessments of the internal audit activity should be performed by entry-level staff as part of on-the-job training.

C.

Internal audit staff should be informed regularly of changes to policies and procedures.

D.

Training documents should be destroyed at the end of the year to create space for the next year ' s training documents.

Question 226

Which of the following survey questions would be most effective to identify ethics violations within the organization?

Options:

A.

Are the performance targets in your department realistic and attainable?

B.

Do your coworkers have the knowledge, skills, and training needed to perform their job duties?

C.

Does your supervisor comply with laws and regulations affecting the organization?

D.

Do you have sufficient resources, tools, and time to accomplish your work objectives?

Question 227

Which of the following written documents typically offers the best evidence that internal auditors exercise due professional care in conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Internal audit charter.

B.

Workpaper.

C.

Audit report.

D.

Code of ethics.

Question 228

An internal auditor has suspicions that some fictitious vendors have been created in the organization ' s computer system. Which of the following would be the best technique to detect this fraud?

Options:

A.

Review for duplicate invoice numbers, duplicate dates, and duplicate amounts

B.

Run checks to find matches between vendor and employee addresses

C.

Check for recurring requests for refunds where invoices are paid twice

D.

Review for unexplained increases in inventory

Question 229

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor reviews a tender inviting vendors to submit bids to supply financial services software to the organization. She suspects that the tender was tailored for the bidder who eventually won the contract. What should the auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Review payments made for the financial services software.

B.

Confront a procurement specialist with the suspicion.

C.

Submit an anonymous tip to the whistleblower hotline.

D.

Analyze technical terms and conditions of the tender.

Question 230

What is the ultimate goal of establishing a robust risk management framework in an organization?

Options:

A.

To support the organization ' s risk culture, involving employees at all levels.

B.

To ensure that the organization attains a better financial position.

C.

To assist the organization in identifying and mitigating key risks.

D.

To facilitate the organization ' s achievement of business goals and objectives.

Question 231

Which of the following statements is true with regard to services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

For consulting engagements, internal auditors do not need to be alert to control issues.

B.

Assurance and consulting services have similar objectives.

C.

Internal auditors may not perform assurance and consulting roles at the same time.

D.

Both assurance and consulting engagements require a final engagement report

Question 232

An internal auditor identified an inefficiency in a control and made recommendations to strengthen the control environment, but senior management was reluctant to adopt the recommendations because there were concerns regarding staff acceptance of the change of processes. Consequently, the auditor agreed to remove the observation from the audit report.

Which of the following competencies does the auditor lack?

Options:

A.

Connectivity.

B.

Strategic thinking.

C.

Influence.

D.

Collaboration.

Question 233

Which of the following is an example of the chief audit executive (CAE) demonstrating due professional care?

Options:

A.

The CAE relies on CAEs in other organizations to understand how due professional care should be executed in her internal audit activity

B.

The CAE meets with the board of directors on a quarterly basis to provide a status update.

C.

The CAE assesses the audit staff ' s knowledge and skills annually to determine whether additional resources are needed to fulfill the internal audit plan.

D.

The CAE provides absolute assurance to line management during each eternal audit engagement

Question 234

Which of the following is the best way for an internal auditor to demonstrate due professional care?

Options:

A.

Conduct an audit to the same extent that another prudent auditor would under similar circumstances

B.

Seek feedback from the engagement supervisor during the engagement

C.

Execute internal audit work in such a manner as to provide absolute assurance of compliance

D.

Request and receive client feedback surveys during the engagement

Question 235

While auditing an organization ' s credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditor ' s relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative ' s information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative is a customer.

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement.

Question 236

An internal auditor notes that inventory counts are conducted on Mondays only and that all documentation is on paper as there are no computers in the underground warehouses. Also she notices that the person responsible for receiving the goods is the same one who distributes materials and spare parts Finally, she sees that spare parts are written off and taken by the heads of mining units to different underground locations to wait for their turn to be installed. Which of the described findings requires more consideration from a fraud risk perspective?

Options:

A.

The job responsibilities of the warehouse employee compromise segregation of duties

B.

Spare parts are written off before their actual usage and installation

C.

Warehouse management is conducted on paper and requires further investigation

D.

The inventory counts take place on specific days of the week for no apparent reason

Question 237

According to MA guidance, which of the following best describes how often the chief audit executive should review the quality assurance and improvement program of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Whenever the business objectives of the organization change

B.

Just prior to an external assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

At the completion of each engagement.

D.

Progressively on a day-to-day basis

Question 238

Which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments must be performed by the chief audit executive.

B.

An internal assessment must be performed at least once every five years.

C.

It Is permissible to share the results of the QAIP with the organization ' s external auditors.

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring must be validated annually by an independent external assessor.

Question 239

In terms of governance, which of the following best characterizes the relationship between senior management, the board, and owners or investors?

Options:

A.

Accountability.

B.

Integrity.

C.

Independence.

D.

Risk management.

Question 240

Which statement is correct about effective internal auditing?

Options:

A.

It requires that senior management and the board establish reporting responsibilities for the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

It aligns with the Global Internal Audit Standards as the exclusive authoritative guide when performing engagements.

C.

It involves communication with the board and senior management on a continuous basis to ensure engagements are relevant.

D.

It allows the CAE to plan engagements that meet the organization’s strategies and objectives.

Question 241

A chief audit executive (CAE) was asked by senior management to establish and manage a risk management function. A new chief risk officer was hired a year later to assume these responsibilities. As this function was included in the current annual audit plan, the CAE engaged an external resource for a risk management engagement. Which of the following potential threats to objectivity was the CAE likely addressing?

Options:

A.

Self-review threat.

B.

Advocacy threat.

C.

Familiarity threat.

D.

Personal relationship threat.

Question 242

Which of the following would be the most effective in helping to detect fraud?

Options:

A.

Code of conduct.

B.

Exit interviews.

C.

Fraud awareness training

D.

Employee promotion policy.

Question 243

A chief audit executive (CAE) has just joined an organization with an existing internal audit activity. Based on her review of the current organizational structure, the CAE determines that the internal audit activity lacks adequate independence. Which of the following actions is the CAE ' s best step to take next to move the internal audit activity toward organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Ensure the limitations are disclosed through communication with the board and senior management, so that the internal audit activity can continue operating under the same organizational structure.

B.

Request that the board restructure the reporting line of the internal audit activity to ensure the CAE has unrestricted access to the board.

C.

Rotate internal audit assignments among members of the internal audit activity to minimize the effects of the current structure.

D.

Train internal auditors about organizational independence and have them sign an acknowledgment of understanding.

Question 244

Which of the following resources would be most effective for an organization that would like to improve how it informs stakeholders of its social responsibility performance?

Options:

A.

ISO 26000.

B.

Global Reporting Initiative.

C.

Open Compliance and Ethics Group.

D.

COSO’s enterprise risk management framework

Question 245

Which of the following would most likely be classified as a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Examining the internal control effectiveness of the marketing department

B.

Assessing the adequacy of the IT system ' s business process design

C.

Facilitating a self assessment of the organizations business risk and control identification

D.

Reviewing the application controls in the human resources system

Question 246

An accounts payable clerk who has access to the vendor master file replaced the payment details of a legitimate vendor with those of a friend before processing the payment through the organization ' s cashier. Immediately afterward, he restored the original vendor information. Which of the following controls could have prevented this fraud?

Options:

A.

Approval of master file change requests by the accounts payable supervisor

B.

Comparison of the check register to original invoices.

C.

Segregation of duties between accounts payable and the cashier.

D.

Frequent issuance of account statements sent to the vendors.

Question 247

An internal audit team was assigned to review the organization’s information security protocol After fieldwork was completed an internal auditor identified an error in the review of security access The error could affect the overall results of the engagement Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Proceed with addressing the error and report any corrections to the engagement supervisor during the scheduled exit meeting

B.

Issue the audit report to senior management on schedule but include a disclaimer about the error

C.

Proceed with the scheduled closing of the engagement without consideration of the identified error

D.

Inform the engagement supervisor of the error and allow the supervisor to determine the appropriate action to take

Question 248

Which control feature should an internal auditor review if critical computer hardware is missing from the IT department?

Options:

A.

The surveillance camera video recordings for abnormalities.

B.

The level of access to the production environment.

C.

The IT department’s implementation of background checks on employees.

D.

The adequacy of the system development and project management protocols.

Question 249

Which of the following statements is true regarding control activities ' ?

Options:

A.

Control activities are defined by management through risk mitigation strategies

B.

Control activities should be defined for all business processes

C.

If two organizations have identical objectives and structures their control activities would be the same

D.

Organizations that are less regulated generally have more complex control activities than highly regulated organizations

Question 250

Which of the following would likely have the greatest influence on the long-term quality of an organization’s control environment?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance.

B.

Business performance.

C.

Financial reconciliations.

D.

Accountability structure.

Question 251

A newly hired internal auditor is performing an engagement that requires significant IT expertise that he does not possess. If the auditor does not alert the chief audit executive about his lack of expertise and decides to perform the engagement anyhow, which principle of the IIA ' s Code of Ethics would he violate?

Options:

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Competency.

C.

Effective communication

D.

Professionalism

Question 252

According to NA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1. A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects

the organization.

2. Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3. Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s

records.

4, Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.B.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

Question 253

Senior management relies on the professional judgment of an internal auditor and uses outcomes of her audit work to make business decisions Which of the following personal qualities displayed by the internal auditor is most likely the foundation for this relationship?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Negotiation skills.

C.

Business acumen

D.

Flexibility

Question 254

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk management function has the sole responsibility for identifying and managing risks in all departments

B.

Risk management is a core responsibility of the internal audit activity

C.

The internal audit activity should consider the organization’s maturity, structure, and the competitive environment to establish the organization’s risk appetite

D.

The internal audit activity may use a risk management or control framework to assist in risk identification

Question 255

An organization opened its warehouse to sell written-off surplus and outdated office furniture to the general public. Prices were negotiable, and customers could pay by cash, check, or credit card. Receipts were available upon request, and were issued by the inventory manager upon collection of payment. At the end of the day, the manager forwarded all of the funds he had collected to the finance department for deposit. Which of the following types of fraud is most likely to occur under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation.

B.

Bribery.

C.

Falsifying records.

D.

Skimming

Question 256

Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing a governance risk management and compliance framework within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fewer internal audits

B.

More effective interviews

C.

Automated risk management strategy tools

D.

Reduced assurance costs

Question 257

Which of the following can be used to minimize employees’ resentment of controls?

Options:

A.

Making sure employees are exempt from participating in control creation

B.

Implementing controls without lengthy explanations of their purpose

C.

Developing general constricting controls rather than detailed ones

D.

Not using controls to achieve goals

Exam Detail
Vendor: IIA
Certification: CIA
Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part1
Last Update: Sep 28, 2026
IIA-CIA-Part1 Question Answers