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Internal Audit Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Question 1

An organization employs ongoing monitoring and is considering implementing periodic evaluations to assess the continuing effectiveness of its risk management process. Which of the following statements Is true with regard to such periodic evaluations?

Options:

A.

Periodic evaluations are considered to be less objective than ongoing monitoring.

B.

Periodic evaluations can be more effective than ongoing monitoring.

C.

Periodic evaluation frequency may depend on the results of ongoing monitoring.

D.

Periodic evaluations frequently identify problems more quickly than ongoing monitoring.

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Question 2

Which of the following factors is most important for internal auditors to consider when prioritizing fraud risks?

Options:

A.

The organization’s code of conduct.

B.

The organization’s competition.

C.

The organization’s code of ethics.

D.

The organization’s culture

Question 3

An engagement supervisor obtains facilities maintenance reports from a contractor during an audit of third-party services. Which of the following is the source of authority for the engagement supervisor to make such contact outside the organization?

Options:

A.

The policies and procedures of the internal audit activity.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter.

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The IIA's Code of Ethics.

Question 4

An internal auditor is performing testing to gather evidence regarding an organization’s inventory account balance and is mindful of the possibility that the sample used might support the conclusion that the recorded account balance is not materially misstated when, in fact, it is. The auditor's concern best describes which of the following risks?

Options:

A.

incorrect rejection risk

B.

Incorrect acceptance risk.

C.

Tolerable misstatement risk.

D.

Anticipated misstatement risk

Question 5

Which of the following situations undermines the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity is responsible for the company's risk management function, and its head manager reports to the chief audit executive.

B.

A senior member of the internal audit activity once worked in the corporate finance department.

C.

The organization’s CEO reviews the internal audit activity’s annual budget per the organization’s policies and procedures.

D.

The internal audit activity often uses management's risk profile to build its own risk profile for annual planning.

Question 6

Upon completion of an external quality assessment, which of the following would the chief audit executive be required to report to the board?

Options:

A.

The total time spent to accomplish the external assessment

B.

The detailed evaluation results of the external assessment

C.

The competency and independence of the external assessment team

D.

The timetable and schedule of the next external assessment

Question 7

Which of the following would be the best choice for a continuing professional development requirement for a newly created internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Require all internal auditors to create a training plan based on a competency self-assessment.

B.

Require internal auditors to complete all of their training through webinars, to increase efficiency and avoid traveling

C.

Require all internal auditors to become a member of The Institute of Internal Auditors.

D.

Require internal auditors to create a training plan based on their areas of interest

Question 8

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a new internal audit activity is creating an internal audit charter According to IIA guidance, which of the following terms is most likely to

be included in the charter?

Options:

A.

Senior management will be present whenever the CAE interacts with the board, to ensure effective communication among all three parties.

B.

Internal auditors will advise on the design of control policies and procedures in any area where the organization does not possess the requisite expertise,

C.

Internal auditors will demonstrate competence, concern, and the dedication expected of a professional,

D.

Internal auditors will receive performance-based compensation, including bonuses for reporting more than a stipulated number of observations.

Question 9

Which of the following best demonstrates that an internal auditor is applying due professional care when planning an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Assessing the risk of noncompliance with laws and regulations

B.

Following the policies as prescribed by the internal audit manual.

C.

Advising management of the area under review on how to mitigate internal control risks.

D.

Conducting the engagement on the presupposition that fraud exists.

Question 10

Which of the following is the primary benefit of establishing a formal training program for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

It is useful to reinforce the independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

It is useful to guide internal auditors as they perform specific engagements.

C.

It is useful to maintain the skills and competencies of internal audit staff.

D.

It is useful to measure the effectiveness and maturity of the internal audit activity.

Question 11

Which of the following would provide the best support for internal auditors to meet their continuing professional development requirements?

Options:

A.

Access to online internal audit and business skills courses.

B.

Records of self-assessment reports completed by the internal audit staff.

C.

Cosourcing arrangements with external providers on specific engagements.

D.

Performance reviews comparing internal auditors' achievements against specified goals.

Question 12

Which of the following would be a preventive control for helping to manage fraud in an organization?

Options:

A.

Reviews of reports to determine which issued payments lack evidence of supervisory review.

B.

A monthly review of new vendors performed by management for reasonableness.

C.

Bank reconciliations performed on a monthly basis by the accounting department.

D.

A code of conduct and whistleblower policy that must be signed by all employees annually.

Question 13

An experienced internal auditor is planning an assurance engagement of the organization's sales activities. During process walkthroughs and interviews, many sales representatives expressed concerns about management's escalating demands to meet the organization's sales goals. According to the MA guidance, which of the following is the best application of due professional care in planning the engagement?

Options:

A.

Disregard the complaints because the information isn't reliable and isn't sufficient to support engagement conclusions and results.

B.

Consider the significance of the risks related to the complaints and develop appropriate assurance procedures in work programs.

C.

Disregard the complaints because using them would violate the confidentiality principle.

D.

Discuss management's needs and expectations related to including the complaints in the audit scope.

Question 14

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with the Standards relating to continuing professional development of internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Regulatory approval from an accrediting agency.

B.

Self-assessments against a competency framework.

C.

Approval and signoff from the board of directors.

D.

A review by external auditors on an annual basis

Question 15

Which of the following best describes the risk contained in an initial public offering for a new stock?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Net risk.

C.

Inherent risk.

D.

Underlying risk.

Question 16

Upon completion of an external assessment as part of the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP), the chief audit executive (CAE) reported the results to senior management and the board The CAE included the following elements in the report

- Qualifications and independence of me external assessment team

- Conclusions of assessors

- Corrective action plans

How should the CAE improve the aforementioned approach to reporting the resets of QAIP?

Options:

A.

Senior management should be excluded from the reporting as the QAiP results must be communicated to re board only

B.

The report can be streamlined by removing unnecessary information such as the qualifications and me independence of external assessors

C.

The results must be snared with the external a auditors as well, so they can determine the extent to which they can rely on me work of the internal audit activity

D.

The report should indicate that the external assessment must be performed at least once every five years

Question 17

A new internal auditor was recently recruited to the internal audit activity from the organization's finance department. What is likely to be the chief audit executive’s greatest concern regarding assigning the new auditor to upcoming audits in the finance department?

Options:

A.

The time it may take the new auditor to complete the assignment and report the findings to management.

B.

The qualifications of the new auditor and whether the auditor's business knowledge is relevant to the assignment.

C.

The potential for a conflict of interest to exist or appear to exist if the new auditor undertakes these assignments.

D.

The knowledge the new auditor may have of control weaknesses in the finance department.

Question 18

Which of the following would be the most effective fraud prevention control?

Options:

A.

Email alert sent to management for checks issued over $100,000.

B.

Installation of a video surveillance system in a warehouse prone to inventory loss.

C.

New hire training to explain fraud and employee misconduct.

D.

Daily report that identifies unsuccessful system log-in attempts

Question 19

Which of the following best demonstrates that the internal audit activity is using due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity reports directly to the board on the engagements it performs.

B.

Internal auditors undertake the necessary training to complete their audit work.

C.

The completion of engagements is based on the assumption that fraudulent activities may exist.

D.

Internal auditors consider the use of technology-based audit and other data analysts techniques

Question 20

Which of the following statements relating to risk management is true?

Options:

A.

The high-level risk assessment performed during engagement planning is a detailed step-by-step analytical process

B.

External auditors must be engaged to evaluate the potential for fraud and how the organization manages fraud risk

C.

A lack of controls is acceptable if the risk is reduced to an acceptable level in some other way

D.

Internal auditors are responsible for managing the risks of the organization

Question 21

With regard to the internal audit activity's quality assurance and improvement program, which of the following topics would the chief audit executive include on the quarterly board meeting agenda?

Options:

A.

The scope and frequency of both internal and external quality assessments.

B.

The list of audit engagements that will be assessed during the year.

C.

The number and qualifications of internal audit staff members assigned to perform internal assessments during the year.

D.

The compensation structure of the qualified assessment team.

Question 22

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement.

Question 23

Which of the following is the best way for an internal auditor to demonstrate due professional care?

Options:

A.

Conduct an audit to the same extent that another prudent auditor would under similar circumstances

B.

Seek feedback from the engagement supervisor during the engagement

C.

Execute internal audit work in such a manner as to provide absolute assurance of compliance

D.

Request and receive client feedback surveys during the engagement

Question 24

Which of the following is an example of risk monitoring to ensure a system is performing as intended?

Options:

A.

Checking the progress of risk treatment plans

B.

Considering the consequence and likelihood of risks

C.

Documenting the risks and their areas of impact

D.

Communicating to management about risks

Question 25

Why is it imperative for the chief audit executive to track and develop the educational qualifications of internal audit staff?

Options:

A.

To accurately conduct performance appraisals

B.

To ensure that staff complete required continuing professional education credits annually.

C.

To ensure that the resources needed to complete the audit plan are available.

D.

To satisfy the audit committee requirements.

Question 26

Regarding the chief audit executive (CAE). which ot the following is considered an impairment to the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE reports administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE is asked to submit the liquidation of her travel allowances to human resources for approval.

C.

The CAE's supervisor is responsible for the risk management function.

D.

The CAE is asked to review new procedures before implementation.

Question 27

Due to the increased operational responsibility of the CEO the chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization currently reports to the chief financial officer (CFO) What is the likely impact of such a situation?

Options:

A.

There may be limitation in the scope of engagements that can be undertaken

B.

The CFO could provide expert advice when auditing areas under his purview

C.

The internal audit activity is adequately positioned when the CAE reports to a member of executive management

D.

The expertise of finance staff can be called upon during an audit of finance-related areas

Question 28

An internal auditor was assigned to work in the procurement department for six months to gam m-depth knowledge about the procurement process. Which of the following personnel development practices was applied in this situation?

Options:

A.

Cosourcing

B.

Inbound rotation

C.

Guest auditor

D.

Outbound rotation

Question 29

Which of the following is a greater consideration for internal auditors when they are performing a consulting engagement than when they are performing an assurance engagement'?

Options:

A.

The relative complexity of the engagement

B.

The cost of the engagement relative to its benefits

C.

The extent of work needed to achieve the engagement's objective

D.

The needs and expectations of the engagement client

Question 30

While preparing the audit plan for an automobile manufacturing company, the chief audit executive (CAE) noted that the company's engineering department received a high risk ranking. However, the internal audit activity is understaffed, and current staff do not possess the necessary skills to adequately assess the effectiveness of the engineering department. What is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Include the engineering department on the audit plan, use the available internal audit resources to conduct the review, and exclude procedures that cannot be adequately assessed.

B.

Advise management to accept the assessed risk until the internal auditors are able to review the area adequately.

C.

Recruit internal auditors with the required competencies and wait until they are employed before including this audit on the internal audit plan.

D.

Proceed with a review of the engineering department but supplement the internal audit team with nonauditors from an external engineering company who have the required skills to assist

Question 31

A regional entertainment organization is in the process of developing a corporate social responsibility (CSR) policy. Management invites ideas from employees when developing the CSR policy. Which of the following is the most appropriate idea to include?

Options:

A.

Management has overall responsibility for the effectiveness of governance, risk management, and internal control processes associated with CSR.

B.

The board is responsible for ensuring that CSR objectives are established, risks are managed, performance is measured, and activities are appropriately monitored and reported.

C.

Management is responsible for ensuring that the organization’s CSR principles are communicated, understood, and integrated into decision-making processes.

D.

Generally, CSR activities are limited to the management of the organization; thus, employees do not have a responsibility for ensuring the success of CSR objectives.

Question 32

Which of the following is true regarding risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Impact and likelihood should be assessed together.

B.

Impact and likelihood should be given equal consideration by the internal auditor.

C.

Impact and likelihood should be measured using quantitative methods.

D.

Impact and likelihood should be used to determine risk response.

Question 33

Which of the following statements is true regarding intangible assets?

Options:

A.

The amortization period of an intangible asset cannot exceed 20 years.

B.

The cost intangible assets with indefinite lives should be amortized.

C.

Intangible assets are categorized as having either a limited life or an indefinite life.

D.

Companies should record intangible assets at fair market value

Question 34

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor uses benchmarking research to support preparation of a report to stakeholders that contains significant findings about control deficiencies. Which of the following skills did the auditor demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Internal audit management.

B.

Conflict negotiation.

C.

Critical thinking.

D.

Persuasion and collaboration.

Question 35

The level of authority for the internal audit activity is granted by which of the following?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive.

B.

The internal audit charter.

C.

The International Professional Practices Framework.

D.

The IIA's Code of Ethics.

Question 36

Once an organization's risks are identified, what would be the next step to ensure resources are properly allocated to manage those risks?

Options:

A.

Risk responses must be selected.

B.

Risks must be assessed.

C.

The risk universe must be established.

D.

Risk responses must be aligned.

Question 37

Which of the following best describes the board’s role in establishing effective organizational governance?

Options:

A.

The board is involved in approving operational policy

B.

The board monitors key processes and procedures

C.

The board has oversight responsibility for organizational resources

D.

The board approves management's detailed plans and objectives

Question 38

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates an impairment to internal audit independence?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor s denied access to partner information from management of me area under review

B.

The internal auditor tarts to disclose a potential conflict of interest relationship with management of the area under review

C.

The internal auditor concludes that controls operate effectively, although he did not gather supporting evidence

D.

The internal auditor was assigned to an assurance review of an area for which he previously had responsibilities

Question 39

Which of the following organizations has reached the most mature level of corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

An organization that is able to provide goods and services society needs and thus maximizes profit to its owners.

B.

An organization that ensures compliance to legal frameworks of the countries in which it operates and sells its products.

C.

An organization that is willing to make contributions not mandated by law or economics and expects no payback.

D.

An organization that requires its decision makers to act with equity, fairness, and respect for the rights of individuals.

Question 40

Which of the following is the best way for internal auditors to demonstrate their proficiency to effectively carry out their professional responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Volunteer for audit engagements in areas or industries in which the auditor is unfamiliar

B.

Sign an annual attestation indicating that the auditor has all required competencies to perform her job effectively.

C.

Obtain appropriate professional certifications or other designations.

D.

Disclose potential impairments to independence or objectivity prior to performing an audit engagement.

Question 41

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates due professional care?

Options:

A.

Staffing audit engagements with internal auditors who possess professional designations.

B.

Relying on prior audit work to save planning time and costs.

C.

Performing assurance procedures to guarantee all significant risks are identified.

D.

Assessing the cost of assurance in relation to the potential benefits.

Question 42

Which of the following is considered to be a threat to the internal auditor's objectivity?

Options:

A.

The auditor drafted the operational procedures of the area that she is currently auditing.

B.

The auditor received a bonus that was approved by the board of directors.

C.

The assigned auditor recommended operational procedures for the organization.

D.

The assigned auditor rotated out of the same business activity three years ago

Question 43

Which of the following scenarios would most likely impair the independence of an internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

A relative of an internal audit team member works m a department being reviewed

B.

The internal audit budget is reduced by management requiring the removal of all lT-related engagements from the audit plan

C.

An audit manager removes a finding from the draft report due to disagreements with the chief financial officer

D.

The operating effectiveness of a control is reported as 'satisfactory." because no concerns were identified during planning

Question 44

Which of the following best describes a purpose for the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter authorizes the internal audit activity's reporting structure and clearly defines the roles of each internal auditor.

B.

The internal audit charter defines the roles and responsibilities of the chief audit executive, board of directors, and senior management.

C.

The internal audit charter authorizes access to records, personnel, and physical properties relevant to the performance of audit engagements.

D.

The internal audit charter defines the criteria by which the internal audit activity's performance will be evaluated

Question 45

Six months after an employee was transferred to the internal audit activity his former operating manager requested that he return to assist a project team with the evaluation of a new pricing module for the organization’s online ordering system According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor cannot be assigned to this project, as it has been fewer than 12 months since he was transferred from that department.

B.

Another internal auditor should be appointed to the engagement to preserve the independence of the internal audit activity

C.

The auditor cannot participate in the assignment, as providing an opinion would impair his objectivity

D.

The auditor may participate on the project, as the nature of the assignment is consulting

Question 46

Which of the following is an example of a management control technique?

Options:

A.

A budget.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

The board of directors.

D.

The control environment

Question 47

An internal auditor is finalizing an audit report on the effectiveness of the organization's overall system of internal control. Several audit tests were performed, and the only issue identified was that the CEO frequently asks employees to make exceptions or bypass the organization's standard written policies and procedures. Which of the following conclusions is most appropriate for the auditor to report?

Options:

A.

The auditor should indicate that the system of internal control is not effective.

B.

The auditor should indicate that the system of internal control is generally effective, except for the minor issue identified.

C.

The auditor should indicate that the system of internal control is effective.

D.

The auditor cannot express a conclusive opinion in the audit report.

Question 48

An organization opened its warehouse to sell written-off surplus and outdated office furniture to the general public. Prices were negotiable, and customers could pay by cash, check, or credit card. Receipts were available upon request, and were issued by the inventory manager upon collection of payment. At the end of the day, the manager forwarded all of the funds he had collected to the finance department for deposit. Which of the following types of fraud is most likely to occur under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation.

B.

Bribery.

C.

Falsifying records.

D.

Skimming

Question 49

Which of the following best describes a proactive role for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization's ethics program?

Options:

A.

Becoming a voting member of the organization's internal ethics council.

B.

Performing an annual organizationwide employee survey.

C.

Reviewing all departmental ethics-related policies.

D.

Conducting annual ethics training for all employees.

Question 50

Which of the following drivers of fraud is directly controllable by an organization?

Options:

A.

Pressure

B.

Rationalization

C.

Opportunity

D.

Incentive

Question 51

Which of the following scenarios provides the most concerning red flag or indicator of possible fraud?

Options:

A.

An employee receives a bonus for perfect attendance

B.

During the past 18 months three chief financial officers have left the organization after having been promoted to the position

C.

The organization does not perform any due diligence research on third party service providers

D.

Three competitors are highly profitable but a fourth equal in size is approaching bankruptcy limits

Question 52

An internal auditor is reviewing the results of an employee survey at a mining company. Which of the following would alert the auditor to a potential ethics issue?

Options:

A.

Women account for 20% of the total number of employees in the company.

B.

Thirty percent of employees feel confident in raising concerns without a fear of retaliation.

C.

Most employees believe that transparent and fair decision-making forms the basis of business ethics.

D.

Employees with longer work experience believe that they deserve more privileges than new hires.

Question 53

Which of the following best demonstrates the board of directors' governance over internal control?

Options:

A.

The board bears direct responsibility for developing and implementing the internal control system.

B.

The majority of board members are experienced and qualified members of the organization's executive management team.

C.

The board may be assisted by an audit committee, chaired by the chief audit executive.

D.

The board is responsible for succession planning for the CEO and other key members of the executive management team.

Question 54

In the COSO internal control framework, which of the following components serves as the foundation for the other components?

Options:

A.

Control activities.

B.

Control environment.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Monitoring

Question 55

Which of the following statements is true regarding occupational fraud?

Options:

A.

An employee who diverts the organization's purchases for personal use is demonstrating asset misappropriation

B.

An employee who intentionally omits negative information in the financial statement disclosures is demonstrating an example of corruption

C.

An employee who made an error in estimating losses may have committed fraud even if the error was not intentional

D.

An employee who creates a denial of service in the organization’s computer systems is committing asset misappropriation

Question 56

A manufacturing organization's chief audit executive (CAE) was approached by the head of security from one of the manufacturer's third party suppliers The head of security requested internal audit records from a recent audit engagement involving the third-party supplier The head of security believed those records contained information that would enable to identify employees of the third-party supplier who may be involved m fraudulent activities What is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Obtain approval from the manufacturer's audit committee regarding the release of audit records

B.

Release the records but first remove all data regarding the manufacturing organization s internal actions and procedures

C.

Deny access to the records as the third party supplier s security learn should be able to investigate then own employees.

D.

Consult with the manufacturer's senior management to determine whether releasing tie records would be appropriate

Question 57

An internal auditor performed a consulting engagement last year which included assisting with management's design of controls over the procurement function. How should the chief audit executive plan an assurance engagement on the adequacy of the internal control system in the procurement function in the current year?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to another internal auditor on staff

B.

Outsource the engagement to ensure independence

C.

Harness the auditor's knowledge of the procurement function by assigning the engagement to the same internal auditor

D.

Postpone the engagement to the following year to ensure enough time has passed since the controls were designed

Question 58

During a quality assessment of the internal audit activity an auditor is assessing whether the independence of the internal audit activity is at risk of being compromised. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would provide the best source of evidence for such an assessment?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart showing the reporting line of the chief audit executive to the CEO

B.

The internal audit charter as endorsed by the organization’s governing body

C.

A review of the audit opinions issued from a sample of recent audit engagements

D.

An assessment of the scope of the audit work performed by the internal au

Question 59

During fieldwork, an internal auditor located a significant internal control issue. Without identifying the origins of the issue, the auditor concluded the engagement and included the issue in the final audit report. To enhance audit quality, which of the following skills should the internal auditor improve?

Options:

A.

Business acumen.

B.

Critical thinking.

C.

Communication.

D.

Audit report writing.

Question 60

Which of the following best describes the type of risk that an adequately designed and effectively operating system of internal controls should mitigate?

Options:

A.

Net.

B.

Controllable.

C.

inherent,

D.

Residual.

Question 61

According to IIA guidance, the nature and scope of assurance and consulting services to be offered must be clearly delineated in which of the following internal audit documents?

Options:

A.

The internal audit policies and procedures handbook.

B.

The internal audit charter.

C.

The internal audit mission statement.

D.

Each internal audit engagement letter.

Question 62

Which of the following is an indicator that the internal audit activity does not fully conform with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The quality assurance and improvement program identified several opportunities for the internal audit activity to make improvements.

B.

In lieu of an external assessment, the internal audit activity performed a self-assessment with independent external validation.

C.

During an internal quality assessment, it was identified that rotational auditors often perform consulting engagements for areas of the organization where they had previous responsibilities.

D.

External assessments are performed every five years by a competent internal audit team from the organization's parent company.

Question 63

According to IIA guidance, which of the following most appropriately justifies the CEO’s decision that the internal audit activity shall be responsible for risk management and investigation at a multinational organization?

Options:

A.

The recommendation of the parent office external auditors.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The level of proficiency of the chief audit executive

Question 64

Which of the following statements is true regarding organizational culture and an audit of the control environment?

Options:

A.

For multinational organizations it is important to ensure that the organizational culture is consistent at all locations

B.

Because the chief audit executive (CAE) is part of the organizational culture, external auditors should be engaged to evaluate the control environment

C.

If there are unresolved scope restrictions, the CAE should consider whether to pursue the audit and note the scope restrictions in the audit report

D.

Because it will create a conflict of interest relating to the control environment, senior management should not be consulted during the audit

Question 65

The internal audit activity is asked to provide consulting services regarding the risks related to implementing a proposed new Inventory management system. Which of the following would be a key consideration of the internal audit activity in accepting this engagement?

Options:

A.

Ask the inventory manager to determine whether the work planned would be sufficient to meet the consulting engagement objectives.

B.

Ensure that the method used to communicate the results of the consulting engagement is consistent with the board's preferred method.

C.

Determine whether the benefits to be derived from the requested assessment would exceed the cost of providing the consulting service.

D.

Use email and telephone conversations to convey the results of the engagement, as these may prove to be the most efficient methods for communicating.

Question 66

Which requirement should the chief audit executive consider when communicating results of the quality assurance and improvement program to the board of a large

organization?

Options:

A.

The internal assessment results should be discussed once every five years,

B.

The rating conclusions and the impact from results of the external assessment should be explained,

C.

The results of the external assessment should be discussed every seven years,

D.

The qualifications and independence of the internal assessment team should be discussed

Question 67

An internal auditor is reviewing employee travel expenses from the previous six months for fraud. Which of the following tests would best detect instances where personal travel has been claimed?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether claims have been properly authorized for payment

B.

Verifying whether claims are properly supported by invoices or other documents.

C.

Confirming that all claims are within the limits of the organization's travel policy.

D.

Reconciling claims against business the requests that were approved by supervisors

Question 68

According to MA guidance, which of the following gives the internal audit activity the authority to request supporting documentation for the invoices of a third-party service provider?

Options:

A.

The internal audit policy manual.

B.

The internal audit charter.

C.

The board of directors.

D.

The quality assurance and improvement program.

Question 69

Which of the following statements is true regarding how the scope of a consulting engagement should be established?

Options:

A.

The engagement client should be able to determine the scope to be applied to the engagement

B.

The internal auditor should establish a scope that does not impair her objectivity

C.

Any attempts by the engagement client to limit the scope should be considered a scope limitation

D.

The scope should include reviewing the effectiveness of the internal control environment

Question 70

Which of the following is a way to demonstrate an individual internal auditor's competency through continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Create different training budgets for each of the internal auditors

B.

Define average training hours per auditor as a team performance measure

C.

Analyze internal audit client survey feedback following audits

D.

Review training records for all internal auditors

Question 71

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk management function has the sole responsibility for identifying and managing risks in all departments

B.

Risk management is a core responsibility of the internal audit activity

C.

The internal audit activity should consider the organization’s maturity, structure, and the competitive environment to establish the organization’s risk appetite

D.

The internal audit activity may use a risk management or control framework to assist in risk identification

Question 72

An internal auditor creates a professional development plan to obtain more experience in the organization's environmental, social, and corporate governance initiatives. Which of the following would the auditor include in the plan to support these objectives?

Options:

A.

A plan to study for and obtain a certification in nonprofit management.

B.

A deadline within the individual development plan to meet the overall engagement objectives.

C.

A plan to perform a variety of engagements to develop general skills that could be used to assess environmental, social, and governance initiatives.

D.

A request to attend the organization's committee meeting that is focused on strategic community awareness.

Question 73

According to IIA guidance, which of the following conditions would enhance the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The organizational culture rewards critical and objective thinking.

B.

The quality of work performed by the internal audit activity is periodically reviewed.

C.

The organization establishes effective governing body oversight.

D.

Audit assignments are rotated among internal audit staff.

Question 74

An accounts payable clerk who has access to the vendor master file replaced the payment details of a legitimate vendor with those of a friend before processing the payment through the organization's cashier. Immediately afterward, he restored the original vendor information. Which of the following controls could have prevented this fraud?

Options:

A.

Approval of master file change requests by the accounts payable supervisor

B.

Comparison of the check register to original invoices.

C.

Segregation of duties between accounts payable and the cashier.

D.

Frequent issuance of account statements sent to the vendors.

Question 75

An organization sells products through distributors. The organization's chief audit executive insists that the organization's code of conduct be applicable to their distributors as well. Which of the following risks would this mitigate?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Market manipulation

C.

intellectual property leakage

D.

Reputational damage

Question 76

In an assurance engagement focused on the adequacy of organizationwide risk management practices, which of the following best describes a primary area of interest for the engagement?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of process-level and transaction-level controls.

B.

Conflicts of interest within the organizational structure of the senior management.

C.

The alignment of management decisions with the level of risk the organization is willing to accept.

D.

The actions of upper management in response to the internal audit activity's reporting

Question 77

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates how the chief audit executive may ensure that due professional care is applied?

Options:

A.

Establish policies and procedures concerning the engagement process

B.

Develop a strategy for recruiting assigning, and training staff

C.

Outsource complex engagements to an external service provider

D.

Base the auditor evaluation process on the number of observations

Question 78

Which of the following should catch the internal auditor's attention as a potential red flag for fraud?

Options:

A.

The accounting unit keeps detailed records and preserves supporting documentation in excess of company requirements

B.

One of the subsidiaries has more bank accounts than any other comparable subsidiary

C.

The same external audit firm has been with the company for three years without rotation

D.

The arithmetic median tenure of employees working at production facilities is 15 years

Question 79

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive discusses the internal audit charter with senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

To provide guidance and solicit feedback on managing the internal audit activity as expected by various stakeholders.

B.

To provide an understanding of the Mission of Internal Audit and The IIA's mandatory guidance elements.

C.

To provide an update on the internal audit activity's quality of engagement supervision.

D.

To provide information on existing internal audit planning, changes to the internal audit plan, and the rationale for the changes

Question 80

Which of the following is (he most effective way any organization can ensure proper governance over its internal controls?

Options:

A.

By adopting the best practices of similar organizations in the industry.

B.

By adjusting their internal control framework as business practices evolve.

C.

By introducing the universally accepted COSO internal control framework.

D.

By encouraging the internal audit activity to provide training on internal controls.

Question 81

A newly hired internal auditor is performing an engagement that requires significant IT expertise that he does not possess. If the auditor does not alert the chief audit executive about his lack of expertise and decides to perform the engagement anyhow, which principle of the IIA's Code of Ethics would he violate?

Options:

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Competency.

C.

Effective communication

D.

Professionalism

Question 82

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the required elements of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments provide sufficient objectivity to provide evidence to the board that the internal audit activity understands the organization’s control processes.

B.

Quality assessments focus on the internal audit activity's structure, relationships with stakeholders, compliance with the Standards, and internal audit staff proficiency.

C.

In order to comply with the Standards, the internal audit activity must obtain an objective assessment of its processes and function at least once a year.

D.

Internal auditors completing internal assessments must demonstrate certification to perform quality assessments.

Question 83

Due to toe increased operational responsibility of the CEO. The chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization currently reports to the chief financial officer (CFO). What is the likely imped of such a situation?

Options:

A.

There may be limitation m the scope of engagements that can be undertaken

B.

The CPO could provide expert advice when auditing areas under his purview

C.

The internal audit activity is adequately positioned when the CAE reports to a member of executive management

D.

The expense of finance staff can be catted upon during an audit of finance-related areas

Question 84

At the beginning of an IT development project, key risks were identified and assessed, and risk owners were appointed. Six months later, the IT development team reported that the project is significantly over budget, it will not be completed on time, and key personnel had left the organization. Which of the following risk management practices should be improved for future projects?

Options:

A.

Risk response

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk avoidance

Question 85

The internal audit activity completed its analysis of sample transactions to determine occurrences of double billings According to If A guidance, which of the following best demonstrates that internal auditors exercised due professional care during the review?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors found no instances of double billing and concluded there were no significant risks in this area.

B.

Internal auditors documented the scope and methodology of the data testing.

C.

Internal auditors discussed with management how data is safeguarded.

D.

Internal auditors received formal performance feedback from the engagement supervisor.

Question 86

Which of the following characteristics is typical of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Serves third parties that need reliable financial information from audit engagements

B.

Responds to the needs and desires of senior management and the board, but remains independent of areas under review

C.

Ensures the organization complies with laws and regulations in the area under review

D.

Is completely independent of senior management, the board and the area under review

Question 87

Which of the following is the best reason why the engagement supervisor should take care in explaining to local management the criteria that will be used to measure the effectiveness of the control environment?

Options:

A.

The assessment will cover soft controls and company values.

B.

The assessment will focus on the policy for a particular process.

C.

The assessment will lack a defined scope

D.

The assessment will probably uncover fraud risks.

Question 88

According to IIA guidance, which policy, established by the chief audit executive, would most likely ensure internal audits are conducted with due professional care?

Options:

A.

The initial review of workpapers should be conducted after the final engagement report is issued.

B.

Independent internal assessments of the internal audit activity should be performed by entry-level staff as part of on-the-job training.

C.

Internal audit staff should be informed regularly of changes to policies and procedures.

D.

Training documents should be destroyed at the end of the year to create space for the next year's training documents.

Question 89

Which of the following actions should the organization's governing body perform to provide the most effective governance over the organization's culture?

Options:

A.

Coordinate control activities.

B.

Provide direction.

C.

Design key controls.

D.

Deliver assurance.

Question 90

A new chief audit executive realized that the internal audit charter has not been updated in five years and only includes the Core Principles for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing, the Code of Ethics, and the Standards. What mandatory component is missing?

Options:

A.

Statement of Independence.

B.

Operating Procedures of Internal Auditing.

C.

Definition of Internal Auditing.

D.

Attestation of Quality Assurance.

Question 91

Which of the following survey questions would be most effective to identify ethics violations within the organization?

Options:

A.

Are the performance targets in your department realistic and attainable?

B.

Do your coworkers have the knowledge, skills, and training needed to perform their job duties?

C.

Does your supervisor comply with laws and regulations affecting the organization?

D.

Do you have sufficient resources, tools, and time to accomplish your work objectives?

Question 92

According to the IIA Code of Ethics, which of the following best describes the conduct of an internal auditor who demonstrates the principle of competency?

Options:

A.

The auditor is prudent in the use and protection of information acquired in the course of his work.

B.

The auditor does not accept anything that may impair or be presumed to impair his professional judgment.

C.

The auditor does not perform services in a particular area when he lacks skills in that area.

D.

The auditor performs work with honesty, diligence, and responsibility.

Question 93

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor failed to expand the engagement and include managements preferences when determining the scope of an upcoming assurance engagement.

B.

An internal audit activity lacks the skills need to perform a high-risk security engagement included on the annual audit plan.

C.

A chief audit executive fated to perform a risk assessment prior to preparing the audit plan

D.

An internal audit activity has existed for two years and has not undergone external quality assessment

Question 94

Which of the following actions by the internal audit activity requires disclosure to the board of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity did not complete an external assessment within the last seven years

B.

The internal audit activity performed an engagement with limited scope due to lack of knowledge

C.

The internal audit activity failed to consider risk when conducting a review of a department

D.

An internal auditor was assigned to an engagement m an area where she previously worked more than 10 years ago

Question 95

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

Options:

A.

The nature of consulting services typically is not included in the charter.

B.

The chief audit executive must formally review the charter at least once a year

C.

The nature of assurances provided to parties outside of the organization typically is not included in the charter.

D.

The charter typically defines the internal audit activity's position within the organization.

Question 96

An organization established 20 years ago has had its internal audit activity in place for the last three years. Which of the following would allow the internal audit activity to accurately state that it is in conformance with the Standards'?

Options:

A.

Documented assessment was performed by the audit committee and confirmed conformance.

B.

Internal and external assessments are performed annually, and nonconformance results are reported to the board.

C.

The independent and objective judgement of the chief audit executive confirmed conformance with the Standards.

D.

Documented internal assessments are performed periodically and confirm conformance.

Question 97

Which of the following is a true statement regarding controls such as ethical values, tone at the top and operational style?

Options:

A.

Transaction testing, mapping and flowcharting is applicable while testing such controls

B.

Breakdowns in the these types of controls have historically led to fraudulent financial reporting

C.

Such controls can be defined as inherently ob)ective and tangible elements of control

D.

From an audit perspective it is significantly easier to assess ethical values than segregation of duties

Question 98

Which of the following would be a red flag for potential issues in the control environment?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties during preparation of the financial statements

B.

Compensation structures that are based on commissions

C.

A low rate of turnover in key financial positions

D.

The presence of a whistleblower policy and fraud hotlinea

Question 99

Which of the following techniques should an internal auditor use in order to conduct an effective interview?

Options:

A.

Use technical language to establish credibility with the employee being interviewed

B.

Avoid straightforward questions to make the person being interviewed think before answering

C.

Prepare the next question while the interviewee is responding to demonstrate preparedness

D.

Appear confident but not arrogant during the interview to show professionalism

Question 100

Which of the following actions should an organization take to detect an emerging risk of potential fraud?

Options:

A.

Adopt reward and recognition programs that promote good behaviors

B.

Undertake background checks for new employees as part of the hiring process

C.

Establish an anonymous platform for reporting suspected unethical behaviors

D.

Institute periodic educational training on expected ethical behaviors

Question 101

Which of the following options describes the reason that conformance with The IIA's Code of Ethics is mandatory for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder confidence in the competence of the internal audit activity and of professional internal auditors.

B.

Ethical compliance is necessary for internal auditors and the internal audit activity to accept responsibility for providing g absolute assurance about the organization's risk management.

C.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder trust and confidence in the validity of the profession of internal auditing and the internal audit activity's findings.

D.

The internal audit activity's ethical compliance sets the tone for the ethical compliance by the organization's board, management, and employees.

Question 102

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of due professional care?

Options:

A.

After establishing engagement objectives and reviewing a process, the internal auditor assured process owners that all significant risk events were identified and tested using a systematic, disciplined approach.

B.

After conducting an audit based upon a predefined scope and objective, the internal auditor guaranteed management that the system of internal controls in an audited area operates effectively.

C.

As head of the internal audit activity, the chief audit executive reported functionally to the organization's board and administratively to senior management.

D.

As head of the internal audit activity, the chief audit executive ensures that engagement supervisors conduct post-engagement staff meetings.

Question 103

Which of the following represents an example of an ethical issue that the organization should address'?

Options:

A.

An employee discovered that there is no personal protective equipment at a temporary construction site

B.

An employee saw that a group of other employees were smoking in close proximity to petrol distribution tanks

C.

A supervisor insists that an employee complete time sheets regularly

D.

An employee received concert tickets from a vendor and asked whether she could keep them

Question 104

Which of the following best illustrates the principle of due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity uses key performance indicators for all staff members after all audit engagements.

B.

The internal auditors provide assurance to third parties indicating that their work was properly supervised.

C.

The internal auditors demonstrate they have an understanding of engagement objectives and scope.

D.

The internal auditors are heavily involved in training and development to enhance their skills.

Question 105

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the quality assurance and improvement program (GAIP)?

Options:

A.

As the head of the organization, the CEO selects and appoints the external quality assessment team to perform the OAIP reviews.

B.

The chief audit executive determines the scope and frequency of both internal and external quality assessments based on the availability and capacity of resources in accordance with the annual internal audit plan.

C.

Minutes of meetings held with senior management and the board to discuss the scope and frequency of internal and external assessments support the OAIP reporting requirement.

D.

The internal audit activity needs to assess whether each engagement on the annual internal audit plan is conducted in conformance with the Standards.

Question 106

An internal auditor is providing consulting services on an area he was responsible for three years ago. Part of the consulting scope covers a review of a performance measuring system that the auditor helped to develop. What is the best course of action for the auditor to take concerning the consulting service?

Options:

A.

Accept the consulting services only after receiving approval to do so from the board.

B.

Accept the consulting services. The objectivity won't be impaired if it has been more than a year since he last worked in the area under review.

C.

Refrain from providing the consulting service because he was responsible for that area and his objectivity will be impaired,

D.

Disclose the potential impairment to the customer before accepting the consulting engagement

Question 107

Which of the following specifications in an internal audit charter is the most important factor in the internal audit activity’s independence?

Options:

A.

Description of internal audit activity's responsibilities

B.

Definition of internal auditing

C.

Statement of internal audit activity's authority

D.

Description of internal audit activity's reporting structure

Question 108

Which documents would help a forensic auditor identify instances of collusion between an employee and vendor to defraud the organization?

Options:

A.

Email correspondence.

B.

Payment request forms.

C.

Vendor invoices.

D.

Bank statements.

Question 109

Anew internal auditor suspects fraud is taking place. Which action should the new auditor take?

Options:

A.

Collect relevant audit evidence and begin working with management of the area to investigate the fraud.

B.

Inform the chief audit executive and meet with the suspect to determine whether the person committed fraud.

C.

Document supporting information and recommend an investigation to the appropriate audit management.

D.

Evaluate existing controls and implement new procedures to mitigate the opportunity for fraud.

Question 110

Which of the following statements is true regarding consulting and assurance engagements performed by the internal audit activity'?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, the auditor must independently and objectively select the criteria for evaluation

B.

For a consulting engagement, internal auditors and management jointly agree on the adequate criteria needed to evaluate governance, risk management, and controls. This is not true of assurance engagements

C.

Engagement planning and fieldwork are similar for both types of engagements (there are no major differences) although the reporting process is different depending on which service is provided

D.

For a consulting engagement objectives must address governance risk management and control processes to the extent agreed upon with the client. This is not true of assurance engagements

Question 111

Which of the following would most likely represent an objectivity impairment for an internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Providing fraud awareness training and disseminating information regarding the organization's fraud hotline.

B.

Performing consulting services after disclosing that the auditor had previous responsibilities in the area under review.

C.

Performing an assurance engagement related to the cash receipts process three years after transferring to the internal audit activity from accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a compliance audit on a vendor prior to disclosing that the vendor's office manager is the auditor’s brother.

Question 112

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting investors generally do not rely on CSR information

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary

D.

Typically operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

Question 113

Which of the following best describes the type of organizational culture known as adaptability culture'?

Options:

A.

A results-oriented culture that values competitiveness and personal initiative

B.

A culture that emerges in quick-response and high-risk decision-making environments

C.

A culture that is characterized by low involvement with environmental and health issues

D.

A culture that places high value on participation and meeting the needs of employees.

Question 114

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Consulting engagements typically involve four or five parties: the internal audit activity, engagement client, senior management, board, and sometimes the external auditor.

B.

The scope of a consulting engagement is determined by either the engagement supervisor or chief audit executive, and it is finalized prior to beginning fieldwork.

C.

According to the Standards, internal auditors are permitted to carry out certain management functions during a consulting engagement.

D.

A preliminary risk assessment may not be needed for consulting engagements, because the expectations and objectives of the engagement are determined by the engagement client.

Question 115

An organization's operations management is aware of existing internal control deficiencies but they lack the competency to execute internal control measures. Which of the following actions if taken by the internal audit activity is appropriate to assist operating management in achieving continuous improvement on internal controls?

Options:

A.

Foster the importance of the control environment

B.

Provide training on controls and on self-monitoring processes

C.

Recommend installing an enterprisewide risk management system.

D.

Conduct more assurance assignments on high risk areas

Question 116

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to ensure that a newly formed internal audit activity remains free from undue influence by management?

Options:

A.

Appoint the chief audit executive as a member of the board.

B.

Adopt written policies and procedures for the internal audit activity, approved by the board.

C.

Ensure the chief audit executive reports administratively to the audit committee.

D.

Establish the internal audit activity’s position within the organization in an audit charter.

Question 117

Which of the following most accurately describes the role of the board when it comes to organizational governance?

Options:

A.

Responsibility for outcome of the process.

B.

Responsibility to be involved in management of the organization.

C.

Responsibility to determine who is accountable for outcomes.

D.

Responsibility to identify risks in the organization’s business environment

Question 118

Which of the following internal control components has COSO identified as the most important?

Options:

A.

Information and communication

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Control activities

D.

Control environment

Question 119

Which of the following should be considered in developing a risk and control model for use in an engagement?

Options:

A.

The risk and control model should be globally accepted by the profession.

B.

The risk and control model should be strictly adhered to in performing the engagement.

C.

The risk and control model should be tailored to the organization that will be the subject of the engagement.

D.

The risk and control model should be developed individually by the auditor for use on individual audit projects within the planned engagement.

Question 120

An audit client who was unsatisfied with the audit report rating called the chief audit executive (CAE) and complained that the internal auditor who performed the audit was biased because his spouse, who worked in the area under review, was on a list of employees to be terminated. Which of the following measures would be most appropriate to prevent this situation from arising?

Options:

A.

Initiating an internal investigation to clarify whether a biased judgment took place.

B.

Requiring the internal auditors to disclose any potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Requiring that the audit client disclose any potential conflicts of interest with the auditor.

D.

Requiring human resources manager to submit all future job applicants' data in order to identify relatives of auditors.

Question 121

Which of the following parties would be responsible for ongoing monitoring of the organization's corporate social responsibility activities to reduce its carbon footprint?

Options:

A.

Chief audit executive

B.

Facility operation manager

C.

Public relations manager

D.

Regulatory agency

Question 122

During an assurance engagement the internal audit team discovers that employees performing a control do not understand the principles behind it. Before the engagement concludes, at management's request the audit team facilitates several formal training sessions to help explain those principles to the employees. Which of the following best describes the engagement provided by the internal audit activity in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assurance services

B.

Blended services

C.

Consulting services

D.

Prohibited services

Question 123

Which of the following is the most effective way for internal auditors to determine whether ethical values are followed throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

Review the organization's ethical value structure and reporting procedures.

B.

Review what the organization considers to be ethical behavior, such as the employee code of conduct.

C.

Review employee survey responses and follow up on those that suggest weaknesses in the ethical climate.

D.

Review the organization's records to ensure all employees have signed statements that they will follow ethical practices.

Question 124

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

Options:

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

Question 125

Which of the following practices is generally most effective to protect internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

Ensuring regular documentation of auditor skills and experience in the workpapers.

B.

Basing performance evaluations heavily on customer satisfaction surveys.

C.

Prohibiting auditors from accepting gifts from audit clients or potential clients.

D.

Ensuring that auditors have a balance of both operational and internal audit responsibilities.

Question 126

A chief audit executive (CAE) has been asked by the board to evaluate the effectiveness of ethical programs created by management. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Compare the design of the organization's ethical programs with best practices.

B.

Verify that a code of conduct and related policies exist and are communicated.

C.

Use employee surveys to assess whether ethical programs are achieving desired outcomes.

D.

Compare the cost of the ethical programs with the achieved outcomes.

Question 127

Which of the following skills is critical for assessing corporate social responsibility through a self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Assessment skills

B.

Assurance skills

C.

Interviewing skills

D.

Facilitation skills

Question 128

Which of the following describes a responsibility of operating management in an organization's corporate social responsibility (CSR) efforts?

Options:

A.

Responsible for implementing CSR principles and overseeing of CSR performance.

B.

Responsible for performing periodic internal self-verifications of reported CSR results.

C.

Responsible for performing analysis and comparison of CSR reports and performance.

D.

Responsible for ongoing CSR reporting and accomplishing of performance targets.

Question 129

Which of the following statements best demonstrates application of due professional care during an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The engagement detected irregularities and noncompliance instances.

B.

The engagement supervisor had no significant comments in the supervisory review.

C.

The audit procedures were systematically planned, executed, and documented.

D.

The engagement objectives were designed to assist the engagement client.

Question 130

An internal auditor failed to identify transactions between the parent organization and a subsidiary. What is the most likely reason for the failure?

Options:

A.

The auditor misunderstood the audit objectives.

B.

The auditor lacked professional skepticism.

C.

The auditor's fieldwork was not properly supervised.

D.

The auditor lacked an understanding of the organization.

Question 131

An audit engagement required that an internal auditor, using available tools, test a transaction population for a period The auditor decided to test a sample of transactions rather than the full population.

Results of the audit were reported as satisfactory to management. Subsequent to the audit report, fraud was discovered in the area audited and was found to include transactions that were in the relevant transaction population not tested by the auditor. The auditor later disclosed that he decided to test a sample because it was representative of the population and facilitated quicker testing. Which of the following skills below, if improved, would most likely have prevented this situation?

Options:

A.

Objectivity

B.

Critical thinking.

C.

Empathy.

D.

Communication

Question 132

According to IIA guidance, which of the following training methods is considered most effective in assisting new entry-level internal auditors in achieving competence with internal audit practices in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Pursuance of an internal audit certification.

B.

Enrollment in internal audit practice webinars.

C.

Attendance of internal audit workshops.

D.

Involvement in a variety of audit assignments.

Question 133

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) is tasked with creating a new internal audit activity within the organization. Which of the following would the CAE need to include in the new internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The requirement to provide an annual cost analysis that justifies having an internal audit activity

B.

The specific engagements that the internal audit activity will perform for the organization

C.

The board s oversight role and responsibilities pertaining to the internal audit activity

D.

The relevant regulations that will guide the internal audit activity's regulatory compliance assessments

Question 134

In addition to her internal audit activity responsibilities, the chief audit executive has been asked to oversee the organization's insurance function. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Welcome the additional responsibility, as it represents an opportunity to gain more information for future audits.

B.

Revise the internal audit charter to include oversight of the insurance function, ensuring that all of her responsibilities are properly documented.

C.

Report the request to the board and recommend alternate processes to obtain assurance related to insurance activities.

D.

Promptly remove the organization's insurance function from the audit universe.

Question 135

An internal auditor is updating the risk register for risks identified during a recent organizational risk assessment. According to the Standards, which of the following would the auditor include in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Management’s acceptance of inadequate controls for cybersecurity risk.

B.

Discussions with senior management relating to a new revenue stream.

C.

Mitigating controls implemented by the engagement supervisor

D.

Project manager planned hours versus time spent for all prior year projects

Question 136

A third-party provider's questionable labor practices have exposed the organization to reputational risks and regulatory risks. Which of the organization's risk management practices was most likely ineffective?

Options:

A.

The organization ensured that the third-party vendor provided the best pricing for the requested services.

B.

The organization conducted quality control reviews of provided services to ensure industry standards were met.

C.

The organization performed a due diligence review of all vendors during the bid review process.

D.

The organization planned to issue a resolution concerning the third-party provider's labor practices.

Question 137

A chief audit executive (CAE) has just joined an organization with an existing internal audit activity. Based on her review of the current organizational structure, the CAE determines that the internal audit activity lacks adequate independence. Which of the following actions is the CAE's best step to take next to move the internal audit activity toward organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Ensure the limitations are disclosed through communication with the board and senior management, so that the internal audit activity can continue operating under the same organizational structure.

B.

Request that the board restructure the reporting line of the internal audit activity to ensure the CAE has unrestricted access to the board.

C.

Rotate internal audit assignments among members of the internal audit activity to minimize the effects of the current structure.

D.

Train internal auditors about organizational independence and have them sign an acknowledgment of understanding.

Question 138

Which of the following best illustrates the application of due professional care during an audit of the procurement department?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor began checking purchase requisitions for proper authorizations. He stopped when he discovered an instance of noncompliance. and he concluded the controls were ineffective.

B.

The internal auditor discovered an instance where management did not follow the standard bidding processes. The auditor assessed the validity of management’sreasons for deviating from standard practice and the supporting documentation, and determined that the deviation was acceptable.

C.

The internal auditor selected a sample of purchase orders with amounts greater than S5.000, the threshold at which the organization requires a bidding process. The auditor obtained documentation of the bidding process for each purchase order in the sample.

D.

The internal auditor analyzed bidding documents provided by management. Management indicated that the documents were purchase orders issued to a sole-source vendor Based on the analysis and management's declaration, the internal auditor determined that the procurement process was effective.

Question 139

Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take during an audit engagement when examining the effectiveness of risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Evaluate how the organization manages fraud risk.

B.

Establish procedures for improving risk management processes.

C.

Ensure risk responses are aligned with industry standards.

D.

Verify that organizational objectives are aligned with each department’s objectives.

Question 140

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible. Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes wifi provide depth and add more value.,

B.

If it is a consulting engagement, decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible.

C.

If it is a consulting engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value.

D.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because the chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor's previous role when this engagement was assigned.

Question 141

Which of the following is true about a system of internal control?

Options:

A.

Internal control should be updated at least annually.

B.

Technology does not change the internal control landscape.

C.

Strategy should fit the system of internal control.

D.

Articulating measurable objectives is part of internal control.

Question 142

An internal audit activity includes in its audit reports the assertion that its work is performed in conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing ( Standards). A recent external quality assessment concluded that the internal audit activity had substantial deficiencies that impact its overall operations.

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action for issuing future audit reports?

Options:

A.

Refrain from indicating that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards until the chief audit executive confirms that the internal audit activityhas addressed all areas of nonconformance and the audit committee has been notified.

B.

Refrain from indicating that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards until another external assessment confirms that the significant areas of nonconformance have been addressed.

C.

Indicate that the internal audit activity operates in partial conformance with the Standards t as the internal audit activity has a quality assurance and improvement program in place to address deficiencies and has met the requirement for conducting an external assessment.

D.

Update and reissue previous audit reports, removing the assertion that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards, and distribute them to ail parties who received the original reports.

Question 143

Which of the following describes two duties that should not be performed by the same person?

Options:

A.

Posting cash receipts and cash payments to the general ledger.

B.

Posting bad debt write-offs and reconciling the accounts payable subsidiary ledger.

C.

Distributing payroll checks and approving sales returns for credit.

D.

Recording cash receipts and preparing bank reconciliations.

Question 144

Which of the following represents a deficiency in the control environment?

Options:

A.

The sales department has failed to achieve targets for the last nine months.

B.

Employees report suspicious activity by calling the organization's ethics hotline.

C.

Hiring procedures do not include background checks for prospective job candidates.

D.

Management reports three potential ethics issues to the board of directors.

Question 145

The internal audit activity is performing an assessment of an organization's ethics program, and the engagement scope specifies a focus on the training program's design. According to IIA guidance, which of the following questions would be the most relevant?

1. Does the training include situations that require an ethical decision?

2. What percentage of employees have taken the training?

3. What are the results of the employee assessment of the organization's ethical climate?

4. Does the instructor provide feedback on the thought process to reach an ethical resolution?

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

Question 146

The board of a newly established organization was discussing the contents of the draft internal audit charter One board member suggested adding to the charter an obligation for the internal audit activity to develop controls in business procedures. The board member explained that the new organization needs professional-level developers, internal auditors have the necessary skills and competencies, and the internal audit activity is well positioned to assume this responsibility. Which of the following would be a potential concern if the board member’s suggestion is adopted?

Options:

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Internal audit objectivity.

C.

Risk management assurance.

D.

Professional development.

Question 147

Which of the following controls would be most useful to prevent an employee from using the organization's funds for inappropriate expenditures and falsifying financial records to conceal the fraud?

Options:

A.

Segregating duties in the payroll processes.

B.

Confirming receipt of goods or services.

C.

Performing background checks on newly hired employees.

D.

Requiring management approval for expenses.

Question 148

At a construction company, supervisors are entitled to bonus payments if there are no safety rule violations on their teams. There are several channels available for workers to report accidents and violations, and all reported violations are investigated. Bonus payment calculations are approved by managers and the head of safety. Which of the controls best addresses the risk that supervisors will conceal accidents on their teams in order to receive the bonus?

Options:

A.

The investigation of all reported violations

B.

The authorization process for bonus calculations

C.

The variety of reporting channels

D.

The presence of safety rules

Question 149

An existing Internal audit charter is currently under review for revision. Who is responsible for assuring that all required components are included?

Options:

A.

The audit committee.

B.

The head of legal and compliance.

C.

The chief audit executive.

D.

Senior management.

Question 150

Which of the following is a primary responsibility of senior management with respect to ethical violations?

Options:

A.

Senior management provides oversight for the organization's ethical climate.

B.

Senior management promotes an ethical culture in the organization.

C.

Senior management assesses the effectiveness of the organization’s ethical programs.

D.

Senior management reviews major ethical policies in the organization for compliance

Question 151

In which of the following audits would the internal auditors most likely contribute to the assessment of organizational governance?

Options:

A.

An assessment of compliance of individual data protection procedures with data protection regulations

B.

An assessment of profit and loss generated by financial assets and instruments in the past quarter

C.

An assessment of the effectiveness of back-up procedures and execution of business recovery plans

D.

An assessment of performance management practices and establishment of key performance indicators

Question 152

An internal auditor has completed an assurance engagement Which of the following is most likely true regarding the engagement?

Options:

A.

During audit planning, the auditor provided the client with the scope of the engagement for their agreement

B.

The results of the engagement were included in a written report that was issued to the client who requested the engagement

C.

During audit planning, the auditor determined that the engagement scope would include a review of the security and privacy of payroll records

D.

The client requested the review of a new payroll system in order to improve the security of the system

Question 153

Which of the following is a legitimate role for the internal audit activity in the organization's risk management process'?

Options:

A.

Championing the establishment of a risk management framework

B.

Creating and implementing new risk management processes

C.

Maintaining sole responsibility for risk management within the organization

D.

Setting the risk appetite of the organization

Question 154

During an audit of a foreign subsidiary an internal audit team discovered that products were sold to a prohibited country due to sanctions. What is the best course of action for the internal audit team?

Options:

A.

Include the facts m the engagement communications

B.

Inform me external auditors of the violation.

C.

Report the violation to the government regulators

D.

Consult with the legal department

Question 155

Whch ol the following would show appropriate disclosure of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) documented in the personal file a critical conflict of interest involving an internal audit on a upcoming contracting engagement.

B.

The CAE discussed with the board an issue regarding the internal activity performing an IT engagement without proper skills and knowledge.

C.

The CAE met with the peer review team to discuss an internal auditor’s failure to meet the annual requirements for continuing professional education.

D.

The CAE revealed to revealed to operational manager that he failed to appropriately consider risks while he was developing the audit plan.

Question 156

An internal auditor assessed that the risk of steel theft at a plant is high. In response, the plant's management introduced a number of controls, including fences around the facility, a metal detector at the entrance, and monthly steel inventory counts. If the controls operate as intended, which of the following outcomes would the internal auditor hope to see?

Options:

A.

The inherent risk will be mitigated to a level lower than the residual risk.

B.

The inherent risk will be reduced to an acceptable level.

C.

The residual risk will be reduced to an acceptable level.

D.

The residual risk will be eliminated

Question 157

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with IIA standards related to continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Retaining evidence of training in the form of continuing education credits

B.

Seeking guidance regarding internal audit best practices from The IIA

C.

Retaining supervisory reviews conducted on the basis of the development plan

D.

Giving consideration to certain areas of specialization as part of development planning

Question 158

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of an organization's risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance may or may not align with risk appetite depending on whether the assessment is quantitative or qualitative

B.

Risk is assessed on both an inherent and a residual basis

C.

The framework addresses four organizational objective categories strategic, historical, operational, and investment

D.

External risks and internal opportunities are omitted from the risk assessment scope

Question 159

A technology company recently hired an entry-level internal auditor. To achieve conformance with the Standards, which of the following must the newly hired internal auditor possess?

Options:

A.

An understanding of fraud and fraud risk.

B.

IT audit expertise.

C.

Industry-specific knowledge

D.

At least one audit-related certification

Question 160

For a high-risk observation, which is the best approach to follow when management takes an aggressive, uncompromising position in opposition to the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The parties should work together to develop a mutually beneficial solution.

B.

The internal audit activity should share the observation with other business units to get their opinions.

C.

The internal audit activity should discuss with senior management, and if still not resolved, discuss with the board.

D.

The internal audit activity should accommodate management's position, since the relationship is more important than the fight.

Question 161

Which of the following situations undermines the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity is responsible for the company's risk management function and its head manager reports to the chief audit executive

B.

A senior member of the internal audit activity once worked in the corporate finance department

C.

The organization's CEO reviews the internal audit activity's annual budget per the organization’s policies and procedures

D.

The internal audit activity often uses management's risk profile to build its own risk profile for annual planning

Question 162

In which scenario might it be considered problematic for the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide assurance services over the payroll function?

Options:

A.

The CAE previously undertook a consulting assignment in that area to improve processes,

B.

A couple of years ago, the CAE performed accounting functions for the payroll department.

C.

Prior to becoming the CAE, the CAE was the payroll manager.

D.

The assurance review was initiated following issues identified during a consulting assignment requested by management.

Question 163

Which of the following describes the most appropriate match between a potential temporary guest auditor candidate and an upcoming audit assignment?

Options:

A.

A purchasing manager with two years of prior audit experience in public practice to lead a contracts management audit

B.

A communications officer who worked in the marketing department during the last six months to conduct a customer loyalty program audit

C.

A manager of social responsibility who has a nursing background to participate m a health and safety audit for the corporate office and plant facilities

D.

An accounting manager who discovered and reported fraud committed by a payables clerk to conduct a performance audit of accounts payable

Question 164

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The IIA's Code of Ethics must exist outside of the charter to maintain independence.

B.

The charter must be approved by both senior management and the board.

C.

The nature of consulting services does not need to be defined in the internal audit charter.

D.

The charter provides a framework for performing a broad range of value-added audit services.

Question 165

Which of the following best describes a consulting engagement rather than an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Bank internal auditors review an activity checklist to determine that the loan officer followed proper procedures.

B.

The chief financial officer asks for the internal auditor's opinion regarding whether the new accounting pronouncements were properly and comprehensively adopted.

C.

An internal auditor is assigned to assess whether a proposed new initiative to convert a customer service system would be cost-effective.

D.

Senior management asks the internal audit activity to review compliance with customer data security regulations.

Question 166

To meet the resource requirements of this year’s internal audit plan, the chief audit executive (CAE) has recruited additional staff auditors, including an employee who resigned as a senior supervisor from the accounts payable department two months ago. There is a scheduled accounts payable review that the CAE wants to start within the next five months. Which approach should the CAE take, knowing the expertise of his new recruit in the area intended to be audited?

Options:

A.

Have the new internal auditor’s previous boss be excused from the area during fieldwork.

B.

Have the new internal auditor be responsible for the planning of the audit as well as the review of the audit fieldwork.

C.

Have the new internal auditor assigned to other responsibilities and not work on the accounts payable audit engagement.

D.

Have the new internal auditor assist with conducting the fieldwork, but ensure that her work is reviewed by the CAE.

Question 167

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for a chief audit executive to include in the internal audit policy manual in order to promote objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors may conduct a financial effectiveness engagement in a business unit at any point after being transferred from that area.

B.

Internal auditors may conclude that a business unit's current control environment is adequate and effective if the review of the prior year's workpapers and audit report supports that conclusion.

C.

Internal auditors may conduct an engagement in a business unit at any point after providing a training workshop in that area.

D.

Internal auditors should limit the scope of an engagement if they become aware of a potential impairment of their objectivity in order to reduce the potential impact of the impairment on the engagement results.

Question 168

Which of the following is an example of corruption?

Options:

A.

Recognizing revenue up front rather than over a contract’s life to inflate revenue for the current period

B.

Requesting reimbursement for overstated travel and entertainment expense amount

C.

Misstating realized foreign currency transaction gains or losses

D.

Demanding payment from a vendor for decisions made in the vendor’s favor

Question 169

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true of assurance services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot assess an operation for which they were responsible within the previous year.

B.

Management of the area under review must agree with the engagement objectives, scope, and techniques.

C.

The engagement results will vary in form and content depending upon the needs and wishes of the engagement client.

D.

The only parties involved in the engagement are the internal auditor and management of the area under review.

Question 170

A global organization established a new internal audit activity and the recently hired chief audit executive needs to develop an internal audit manual for internal auditors Among the following policies in the manual, which would facilitate internal auditors in upholding their objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors shall attend professional workshops to refresh internal audit norms and concepts

B.

Internal auditors' performance is synchronized with satisfaction ratings given by audit clients

C.

Internal auditors take prior audit results into account when conducting current audit engagements

D.

Internal auditors observe the audit client’s expectations when scoping audit engagements

Question 171

Which of the following scenarios would most significantly restrict the areas where internal audit could perform assurance services?

Options:

A.

Regulators mandate specific audit engagements to be included in the audit plan.

B.

The internal audit activity reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the CEO and functionally to the audit committee.

D.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

Question 172

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization's general attitude toward risk,

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management.

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization's general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept.

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms.

Question 173

Which of the following best describes why a chief audit executive might obtain the services of a fraud specialist to assist in a major fraud investigation'?

Options:

A.

Fraud specialists are better at using computer-assisted audit techniques

B.

Fraud specialists are better equipped to act as an expert witness in court

C.

Fraud specialists are better able to properly apply due professional care

D.

Fraud specialists are better at using crime scene investigation techniques

Question 174

Which principle of the HA Code of Ethics focuses on continuing education and professional development?

Options:

A.

Due professional care

B.

Professionalism

C.

Proficiency

D.

Competency

Question 175

Which of the following fraud prevention measures is most likely to trigger undesired adverse behavior if improperly designed?

Options:

A.

Disclosure of outside business activities

B.

Ethics training programs

C.

Compensation programs

D.

Exit interviews

Question 176

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the interna! audit activity's work?

Options:

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment,

B.

Policies that match internal auditors' performance with feedback from management of the area under review.

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of inappropriate business relationships.

Question 177

Which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot provide consulting services related to operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

B.

The nature of consulting services to be performed by internal auditors must be defined in the internal audit charter

C.

If internal auditors have potential impairments to objectivity related to the proposed consulting engagement, the engagement must be declined.

D.

If internal auditors lack the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform the consulting engagement, the engagement can proceed with proper disclosures.

Question 178

According to The IIA’s Code of Ethics, which of the following scenarios offers the best example of violating the principle of integrity?

Options:

A.

An internal audit manager collaborates with senior management to provide misleading information to government authorities.

B.

An internal audit manager provides sample audit reports and workpapers to a friend without obtaining prior approval

C.

An internal audit manager carries out a technical audit request without seeking expert opinion, despite a lack of the requisite skills.

D.

An internal audit manager assigned to audit a sales process failed to reveal that the process owner is a relative

Question 179

An internal auditor at a multinational organization is reviewing the effectiveness of the organization's risk management framework. In this scenario, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor should consider local cultures and customs in various regions when assessing control effectiveness.

B.

Regardless of their location, employees at all levels share responsibility for designing effective controls to mitigate risks.

C.

To achieve an effective internal control environment, the organization's risk management plan must be documented and communicated to all levels throughout each region.

D.

Setting clear objectives is a precondition to effectively identifying, assessing, and responding to the organization's risks.

Question 180

Which of the following statements is true regarding the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Reporting on the QAIP to the board should occur at least once every five years

B.

The responsibility for the selection of an external assessor rests with the board

C.

The qualifications of the assessors must be communicated to the board

D.

The reporting of outcomes of the QAIP can be delegated to senior audit staff

Question 181

An internal audit activity is taking steps to promote professional development among the staff, and is in the process of implementing a mentorship program. According to HA guidance, which of the following is important for a successful mentorship program?

Options:

A.

It is best if the mentor is the chief audit executive.

B.

Mentor meeting documentation should be retained in personnel files.

C.

It should target both new hires and highly experienced staff.

D.

Meetings with mentors should be formal and scheduled.

Question 182

Which of the following skills is most important for an internal auditor who facilitates control self-assessment workshops to possess?

Options:

A.

Groupthink.

B.

Collaboration skills.

C.

Process analysis skills.

D.

Project management skills.

Question 183

A significant number of employees expressed concerns of a hostile work environment within a large manufacturing plant, which is in contrast to the organization's stated culture of tolerance and open communication. Which of the following approaches would be most effective for an internal auditor to assess whether the organization supports a culture of tolerance and open communication?

Options:

A.

Assess plant employees' social media activity for specific messages related to tolerance and open communication

B.

Compare plant employees’ compensation and benefits with those at similar sized organizations that have a stated culture of tolerance and open communication.

C.

Evaluate organization policies and procedures for references related to encouraging tolerance and open communication.

D.

Conduct a meeting with all plant employees and management to discuss tolerance and open communication

Question 184

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities would typically be examined when using the maturity model approach for assessing an organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Monitor and review.

B.

Performance measurement.

C.

Setting the context.

D.

Communication.

Question 185

Which of the following statements is true regarding the importance of risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk management ensures the ability to eliminate potential hazards to the organization.

B.

Risk management includes consideration of potential opportunities for the organization.

C.

Risk management aids with the establishment of appropriate key performance indicators.

D.

Risk management increases employees' commitment and belief in strategic goals.

Question 186

The principle that "no action should be taken that may harm in some way the least fortunate people" is an expression of which of the following more general ethical principles?

Options:

A.

Utilitarian benefits.

B.

Personal virtues.

C.

Religious injunctions.

D.

Distributive justice.

Question 187

Which of the following is an example of an impairment to an internal auditor's independence?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor delays reporting material financial statement audit findings until after his parents sell all of their stock in the company

B.

Following the restructuring of the organization, the internal audit activity now reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

A new member of the internal audit activity, who was the accounts payable supervisor for two years, is asked to consult on the implementation of a new accounts payable system

D.

Believing there must be errors in a given balance sheet account the internal auditor decides to expand his testing

Question 188

Which of the following types of fraud tests would be most effective if an internal auditor was looking for possible fictitious vendors?

Options:

A.

Checking for invoice amounts that do not match that of the purchase order.

B.

Searching for identical invoice numbers and payment amounts.

C.

Running checks to uncover post office box addresses matching employee addresses.

D.

Comparing prices across vendors to see whether one vendor is unreasonably high.

Question 189

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors' knowledge, skills and other competencies?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) must obtain competent advice and assistance if the internal audit activity lacks the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to complete the audit engagement

B.

Internal auditors must have sufficient knowledge to evaluate the risk of fraud and the manner in which it is managed by the organization and should have the expertise of a fraud investigator

C.

Internal auditors need to have basic knowledge of key IT risks and controls and available technology-based audit techniques in order to perform their assigned work

D.

The CAE must refuse a consulting engagement if the internal audit activity lacks the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform all or part of the engagement

Question 190

Which of the following should play a leading role in overseeing the ethical atmosphere of an organization?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity

B.

Operating management

C.

Senior management

D.

Board of directors

Question 191

Which of the following is true regarding the use of a formal risk management framework?

1. It facilitates a methodical approach to risk mitigation.

2. It defines and standardizes the terminology used in risk communication.

3. It establishes the risk tolerance levels to be accommodated in the strategy.

4. It facilitates the alignment of risk mitigation strategies with management priorities.

Options:

A.

1. 2. and 3.

B.

1.2. and 4.

C.

1.3. and 4.

D.

2. 3, and 4.

Question 192

A senior executive at a government-owned organization received an invitation to attend a public exhibition where he can learn about new trucks relevant to the organization's business. As a special perk, the executive is offered an opportunity to drive a luxury vehicle manufactured by one of the exhibiting companies. Prior to the event, the executive asked for the chief audit executive s (CAE’s) advice. What should the CAE recommend as the most appropriate course of action for the executive?

Options:

A.

Attend the event, but decline the offer to use the luxury vehicle

B.

Decline the invitation to the exhibition.

C.

Ask the board to decide on the issue.

D.

Select a lower-level employee to enjoy the luxury vehicle instead

Question 193

During an audit engagement of a large retail store, internal auditors noted significant discrepancies between available inventory and sales and suspect an abuse of cash register refunds and voids. Which of the following would be the most effective preventative control to reduce these losses?

Options:

A.

Ensure that returned merchandise is restocked to shelves or sent to the manufacturer by an independent employee.

B.

Call a sample of customers who returned merchandise to test the legitimacy of the returns and check refund amounts.

C.

Require that a manager use a reserved register code to approve voids or refunds.

D.

Analyze voids and refunds by employee, credit card number, and amount for unusual numbers, amounts, or patterns.

Question 194

According to HA guidance, which of the following is true regarding independence and objectivity for small internal audit activities?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) may consider including a disclaimer on independence in audit reports.

B.

The CAE may consider greater involvement of those with suitable knowledge of audit practice.

C.

Conformance with this Standard is not dependent upon the size of the internal audit activity.

D.

Due to the small size of the internal audit activity, having an external assessment once every seven years is acceptable.

Question 195

A telecommunications organization is planning to cease operations in one or the markets in which it operates due to increasing volatility and uncertainties. Which of the following risk management techniques is the organization selecting?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance.

B.

Risk avoidance.

C.

Risk sharing.

D.

Risk reduction.

Question 196

An internal audit team was assigned to review the organization’s information security protocol After fieldwork was completed an internal auditor identified an error in the review of security access The error could affect the overall results of the engagement Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Proceed with addressing the error and report any corrections to the engagement supervisor during the scheduled exit meeting

B.

Issue the audit report to senior management on schedule but include a disclaimer about the error

C.

Proceed with the scheduled closing of the engagement without consideration of the identified error

D.

Inform the engagement supervisor of the error and allow the supervisor to determine the appropriate action to take

Question 197

The chief audit executive (CAE) is drafting the annual internal audit plan and seeks input from senior management and the external auditor prior to submitting it for approval to the board. According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The CAE's actions are likely to impair the Independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

The CAE acted appropriately, and the independence of the internal audit activity was not impaired.

C.

The CAE should have developed the audit plan without outside influence to maintain objectivity.

D.

The CAE acted appropriately, as he has authority to determine who reviews and approves the audit plan.

Question 198

Which of the following statements is true regarding the role of the internal audit activity in the organization's risk management process?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity should not be responsible for developing the organization's risk management framework, even with appropriate safeguards.

B.

The internal audit activity is typically responsible for alerting operational management to emerging risks and changes in regulatory scenarios

C.

The internal audit activity may coach management on risk response scenarios if safeguards have been implemented.

D.

The internal audit activity should avoid giving assurance regarding the accuracy of risk evaluations if safeguards have not been implemented.

Question 199

Recently an organization’s internal audit activity discovered ghost employees who receive payments Senior management decides to strengthen the internal control measures to address this Which of the following is considered an effective control to mitigate payments to ghost employees?

Options:

A.

Staff transfers are reviewed by the recruiting manager and approved by the head of human resources

B.

New staff requisition forms are authorized by operational management and acknowledged by the head of human resources

C.

Staff salary payments and accounting records are approved by the head of accounting and acknowledged by the head of human resources

D.

The staff salary payment list is reviewed by the head of payroll and endorsed by the head of human resources

Question 200

According to NA guidance, which of the following practices by the chief audit executive (CAE) best enhances the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

CAE reviews and approves the annual audit plan,

B.

CAE meets privately with the CEO at least annually.

C.

CAE meets privately with the board at least annually,

D.

CAE reports to the board regarding audit staff performance evaluation and compensation.

Question 201

With regard to organizational governance assurance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity'?

Options:

A.

Assess compliance with the organization's code of conduct

B.

Oversee the governance and risk management processes

C.

Initiate new organizational control processes

D.

Provide advice on organizational governance activities

Question 202

According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding an effective governance process?

Options:

A.

It stipulates that risk needs to be considered when making strategic decisions.

B.

It encourages strict segregation of the risk management and internal control processes.

C.

It relies on effective risk management when establishing the organization's risk appetite.

D.

It relies on the board to devise ways to communicate the effectiveness of internal controls.

Question 203

Which of the following activities best demonstrates an internal auditor’s commitment to developing professional competencies?

Options:

A.

Requesting to be part of all engagements on the annual audit plan.

B.

Attending a series of locally offered training courses.

C.

Completing a skills assessment and development plan for targeted training needs,

D.

Attending a webinar on how to use data analytics

Question 204

Which of the following would decrease or be reduced if an organization establishes and implements excessive internal controls?

Options:

A.

Production cycle time.

B.

Activities that add no value.

C.

Staff productivity.

D.

Complexity of operations.

Question 205

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are considered a core internal audit role with regard to enterprise risk management?

Reviewing the management of key risks.

Evaluating the reporting of key risks.

Evaluating risk management processes.

Consolidating the reporting of risks.

Options:

A.

1 and 4.

B.

2 and 4.

C.

2, 3, and 4.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Question 206

In a small organization, management is unable to achieve adequate segregation of duties for its cash-handling procedures Therefore hidden surveillance cameras were installed to monitor cash-handling activities Which of the following best describes this type of control?

Options:

A.

Corrective control

B.

Process-level control

C.

Compensating control

D.

Preventive control

Question 207

Which of the following statements is true regarding organizational independence of the internal audit activity (IAA)?

Options:

A.

Reporting to a higher level within the organization reduces the potential scope of engagements that can be undertaken by the IAA.

B.

The benefit of the IAA's organizational independence is realized primarily via reduced costs for the external auditor.

C.

Independence is impaired when the scope of the IAA is subject to changes required by senior management.

D.

Inadequate organizational independence can result in the chief audit executive being able to fire staff without consulting the audit committee.

Question 208

Which of the following activities should the chief audit executive perform to ensure compliance with an organization's code of conduct?

Options:

A.

Act as an advisor to the committee responsible for reviewing violations of the code.

B.

Review and adjudicate all violations of the code of conduct.

C.

Lead the committee responsible for the oversight of the code.

D.

Implement a system of procedures to inform all employees of the code.

Question 209

Internal audit is performing an engagement to determine whether there were indications of questionable bidding on a city s infrastructure project. As part of the engagement the internal audit activity became aware that certain firms tend to receive the contracts for large city projects. How should the internal audit activity proceed with the engagement and identify questionable bidding practices?

Options:

A.

Obtain the city s vendor listing to determine whether there was an adequate number of firms available to solicit bids for protects

B.

Obtain at of the city s financial records to identify any firms that received payments for contracted goods and services.

C.

Obtain the city's contracting files to determine whether the city demonstrated efforts to solicit bids from various interested firms.

D.

Obtain the city’s official public meeting minutes to determine whether there were concerns about the contracting practices

Question 210

An internal auditor observed that sales staff are able to modify or cancel an order in the system prior to shipping* She wonders whether they can also modify orders after shipping. Which of the following types of controls should she examine?

Options:

A.

Batch controls.

B.

Application controls.

C.

General IT controls.

D.

Logical access controls

Question 211

Which of the following would be considered an indicator that an organization's ethics program is not yet well developed?

Options:

A.

Disciplinary actions for ethics compliance violations are reviewed by the internal audit activity for consistency.

B.

Communication of ethics compliance expectations is the responsibility of employees' direct managers.

C.

The organization's code of ethics and related compliance policy are reviewed annually for potential updates.

D.

The board of directors reviews ethics oversight metrics for violations and compliance.

Question 212

Wi ch of the following circumstances would most likely be considered a potential red flag for fraud by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The monthly payroll reports are not vetted to ensure terminated employees have been removed from the payroll system

B.

The volume of nonroutine journal entries has steadily increased over time.

C.

The database of approved suppliers has not been reviewed the last year

D.

The recent employee survey indicates that some employees remain unaware of the organization’s whistieblower hotline.

Question 213

Which of the following describes an ongoing monitoring activity that could be performed as part of an internal assessment for a quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Planning and supervising engagements

B.

Evaluating the quality of supervision

C.

Identifying opportunities for improvement m internal audit's processes and procedures

D.

Determining if the objectives of QAIP are current

Question 214

Which statement is accurate regarding reporting on the quality assurance and improvement program (OAIP) to conform with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) should report all stages of the OAlP's development and key milestones.

B.

The CAE should report only corrective action plans that meet external assessor or stakeholder requirements.

C.

The CAE should establish the form and content of program communication so that it is in alignment with the internal audit activity charter.

D.

The CAE should disclose program details only after both internal and external assessments have been completed.

Question 215

Which of the following disclosures must the chief audit executive (CAE) include when communicating the results of the quality assurance and improvement program to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

Authority and responsibility of the internal audit activity

B.

Hours and sources of continuing professional education

C.

Scope and frequency of both the internal and external assessments

D.

independence and objectivity impairments of the CAE

Question 216

As a result of a high-profile processing error, respective business unit managers are implementing new controls. The internal audit team was asked for their advice regarding the controls. The objective of this consulting engagement would be determined by which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization's board of directors.

B.

The chief audit executive.

C.

The business unit manager and the engagement supervisor.

D.

The compliance manager and the business unit manager.

Question 217

A sales manager was recently bypassed for a promotion. He feels entitled to a higher salary and is angry that management does not recognize his contributions. To make up for this perceived injustice, he begins to record false expenses on his travel expense reports. This scenario best illustrates which of the following fraud risk factors?

Options:

A.

Incentive.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Opportunity.

Question 218

An internal auditor has documented several instances in which management asked employees to ad against the policies and procedures. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Report the non-compliance cases to the board of directors.

B.

Recommend that management update its policies and procedures based on the circumstances.

C.

Investigate the rationale for management's actions.

D.

Recommend those employees to report the cases through the designed whistleblowing channel for the appropriate treatment.

Question 219

Which of the following statements demonstrates that internal auditors are in conformance with the standard of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors have shown they have the freedom to carry out their responsibilities.

B.

Internal auditors have demonstrated the skills needed to carry out the audit engagement.

C.

Internal auditors have strictly followed a formal audit process in conducting their work.

D.

Internal auditors have demonstrated an unbiased mental attitude.

Question 220

Which of the following internal controls best mitigates the risk of corruption schemes between employees and vendors?

Options:

A.

Establishing policies that prohibit an employee from receiving gifts from an interested party.

B.

Having employees sign annual attestations that they adhere to the organization's code of ethics.

C.

Having strong management oversight of the purchasing and accounts payable functions.

D.

Conducting regular examinations of documentation both paper and electronic.

Exam Detail
Vendor: IIA
Certification: CIA
Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part1
Last Update: Feb 15, 2026
IIA-CIA-Part1 Question Answers