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Free and Premium ECCouncil 712-50 Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 494 questions

EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

Question 1

A recommended method to document the respective roles of groups and individuals for a given process is to:

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed internal organization chart

B.

Develop a telephone call tree for emergency response

C.

Develop an isolinear response matrix with cost benefit analysis projections

D.

Develop a Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed (RACI) chart

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Question 2

You have been promoted to the CISO of a retail store. Which of the following compliance standards is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

Question 3

When gathering security requirements for an automated business process improvement program, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Type of data contained in the process/system

B.

Type of connection/protocol used to transfer the data

C.

Type of encryption required for the data once it is at rest

D.

Type of computer the data is processed on

Question 4

An organization correctly configured a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) technology. Afterward, sensitive data was found on public websites. What is the MOST likely reason for this situation?

Options:

A.

A risk assessment was performed on the technology

B.

The technology was not integrated with antivirus

C.

Data classification was not properly applied

D.

Sensitive data was not encrypted while at rest

Question 5

A university recently hired a CISO. One of the first tasks is to develop a continuity of operations plan (COOP).

In developing the business impact assessment (BIA), which of the following MOST closely relate to the data backup and restoral?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Mean Time to Delivery (MTD)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

Question 6

In effort to save your company money which of the following methods of training results in the lowest cost for the organization?

Options:

A.

Distance learning/Web seminars

B.

Formal Class

C.

One-One Training

D.

Self –Study (noncomputerized)

Question 7

What process evaluates technical and non-technical security controls to validate that an implementation meets a specific set of security requirements?

Options:

A.

System certification

B.

Policy accreditation

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Goals attainment

Question 8

Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates.

What is one proven method to account for common elements found within separate regulations and/or standards?

Options:

A.

Hire a GRC expert

B.

Use the Find function of your word processor

C.

Design your program to meet the strictest government standards

D.

Develop a crosswalk

Question 9

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

Question 10

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of risk management?

Options:

A.

Using audit to identify and verify business risk

B.

Finding economic balance between risk and the cost of security controls

C.

Assessing the impact of potential vendor solutions

D.

Identifying potential causes of exploits

Question 11

Developing effective security controls is a balance between:

Options:

A.

Risk Management and Operations

B.

Corporate Culture and Job Expectations

C.

Operations and Regulations

D.

Technology and Vendor Management

Question 12

You assess the corporate culture and determine there is a pervasive opinion that the security program limits business performance. What is the MOST effective approach to reshape corporate culture to adopt security as a norm?

Options:

A.

Cite corporate policy and collaborate with individuals to review audit reports

B.

Explain how other similar organizations have been compromised

C.

Understand the business and focus your efforts on enabling operations securely

D.

Communicate compliance requirements and financial penalties

Question 13

After a risk assessment is performed, a particular risk is considered to have the potential of costing the organization 1.2 Million USD. This is an example of

Options:

A.

Risk Tolerance

B.

Qualitative risk analysis

C.

Risk Appetite

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

Question 14

A CISO sees abnormally high volumes of exceptions to security requirements and constant pressure from business units to change security processes. Which of the following represents the MOST LIKELY cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Poor audit support for the security program

B.

A lack of executive presence within the security program

C.

Poor alignment of the security program to business needs

D.

This is normal since business units typically resist security requirements

Question 15

Which of the following conditions would be the MOST probable reason for a security project to be rejected by the executive board of an organization?

Options:

A.

The Net Present Value (NPV) of the project is positive

B.

The NPV of the project is negative

C.

The Return on Investment (ROI) is larger than 10 months

D.

The ROI is lower than 10 months

Question 16

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

All of these

D.

Social engineering

Question 17

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires an agreement between Cloud Service Providers (CCSP) and the covered entity. Based on HIPAA. which document must be completed between the covered entity and the CCSP?

Options:

A.

Business Associate Agreement (BAA]

B.

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

C.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.

Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)

Question 18

Which of the following are necessary to formulate responses to external audit findings?

Options:

A.

Internal Audit, Management, and Technical Staff

B.

Internal Audit, Budget Authority, Management

C.

Technical Staff, Budget Authority, Management

D.

Technical Staff, Internal Audit, Budget Authority

Question 19

Providing oversight of an information security program for the organization is the primary responsibility of which group?

Options:

A.

Office of the Auditor

B.

Senior Executives

C.

Office of the General Counsel

D.

All employees and users

Question 20

Which of the following is MOST effective when mitigating social engineering risks?

Options:

A.

Threat and Vulnerability Management Programs

B.

Phishing tests

C.

Anti-malware tools

D.

Security awareness programs

Question 21

An organization is looking for a framework to measure the efficiency and effectiveness of their Information Security Management System. Which of the following international standards can BEST assist this organization?

Options:

A.

International Organization for Standardizations – 27004 (ISO-27004)

B.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)

C.

Control Objectives for Information Technology (COBIT)

D.

International Organization for Standardizations – 27005 (ISO-27005)

Question 22

What is a difference from the list below between quantitative and qualitative Risk Assessment?

Options:

A.

Quantitative risk assessments result in an exact number (in monetary terms)

B.

Qualitative risk assessments result in a quantitative assessment (high, medium, low, red, yellow, green)

C.

Qualitative risk assessments map to business objectives

D.

Quantitative risk assessments result in a quantitative assessment (high, medium, low, red, yellow, green)

Question 23

What role does the statement of retained earnings serve within the financial reporting of an organization?

Options:

A.

It represents the percentage of profits that could be used to finance future investments, such as additional security program expenditures

B.

It summarizes all capital expenditures, including security services and vendor costs

C.

It directly corresponds to the annual security budget

D.

It represents savings from reduced security costs

Question 24

Controls that were implemented to correct prior audit findings are insufficient. Before adjusting controls, what original document should be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Business recovery plan

B.

Business Impact Analysis

C.

Security process catalogue

D.

Annual report to shareholders

Question 25

What is the MOST important result of the management response within the audit process?

Options:

A.

Highlighting common deficiencies across business units

B.

Communicating the root cause of the failure

C.

Adding additional security controls for proper oversight

D.

Determining if resources will be allocated for remediation

Question 26

Which of the following would be used to measure the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System (ISMS)?

Options:

A.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

B.

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)

C.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27004

D.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27005

Question 27

What is the MOST probable explanation for a security policy that is often ignored and unenforced?

Options:

A.

Lack of formal risk management capabilities

B.

Lack of proper policy governance

C.

Lack of a formal security awareness program policy

D.

Lack of formal definition of roles and responsibilities within the policy

Question 28

Which of the following statements below regarding Key Performance indicators (KPIs) are true?

Options:

A.

Development of KPI’s are most useful when done independently

B.

They are a strictly quantitative measure of success

C.

They should be standard throughout the organization versus domain-specific so they are more easily correlated

D.

They are a strictly qualitative measure of success

Question 29

Which of the following is the MOST important result of a business-aligned security program?

Options:

A.

Employees provide input to security policies

B.

Employees are encouraged to make good risk decisions

C.

Security training is entertaining

D.

Clear communication of audit schedules

Question 30

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to measure the effectiveness of security controls on a perimeter network?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability scan of the network

B.

External penetration testing by a qualified third party

C.

Internal Firewall ruleset reviews

D.

Implement network intrusion prevention systems

Question 31

ABC Limited has recently suffered a security breach with customers’ social security number available on the dark web for sale. The CISO, during the time of the incident, has been fired, and you have been hired as the replacement. The analysis of the breach found that the absence of an insider threat program, lack of least privilege policy, and weak access control was to blame. You would like to implement key performance indicators to mitigate the risk.

Which metric would meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Number of times third parties access critical information systems

B.

Number of systems with known vulnerabilities

C.

Number of users with elevated privileges

D.

Number of websites with weak or misconfigured certificates

Question 32

What type of control is used when patching systems with the latest updates?

Options:

A.

Detection

B.

Dynamic blocking

C.

Zero day

D.

Corrective

Question 33

An organization has implemented a change management process for all changes to the IT production environment. This change management process follows best practices and is expected to help stabilize the availability and integrity of the organization’s IT environment. Which of the following can be used to measure the effectiveness of this newly implemented process:

Options:

A.

Number of change orders rejected

B.

Number and length of planned outages

C.

Number of unplanned outages

D.

Number of change orders processed

Question 34

Which of the following provides an audit framework?

Options:

A.

Control Objectives for IT (COBIT)

B.

Payment Card Industry-Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)

C.

International Organization Standard (ISO) 27002

D.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-30

Question 35

What should an organization do to ensure that they have a sound Business Continuity (BC) Plan?

Options:

A.

Test every three years to ensure that things work as planned

B.

Conduct periodic tabletop exercises to refine the BC plan

C.

Outsource the creation and execution of the BC plan to a third party vendor

D.

Conduct a Disaster Recovery (DR) exercise every year to test the plan

Question 36

When information security falls under the Chief Information Officer (CIO), what is their MOST essential role?

Options:

A.

Oversees the organization’s day-to-day operations, creating the policies and strategies that govern operations

B.

Enlisting support from key executives the information security program budget and policies

C.

Charged with developing and implementing policies designed to protect employees and customers’ data from unauthorized access

D.

Responsible for the success or failure of the IT organization and setting strategic direction

Question 37

Scenario: You are the CISO and are required to brief the C-level executive team on your information security audit for the year. During your review of the audit findings you discover that many of the controls that were put in place the previous year to correct some of the findings are not performing as needed. You have thirty days until the briefing.

To formulate a remediation plan for the non-performing controls what other document do you need to review before adjusting the controls?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Business Continuity plan

C.

Security roadmap

D.

Annual report to shareholders

Question 38

Which regulation or policy governs protection of personally identifiable user data gathered during a cyber investigation?

Options:

A.

ITIL

B.

Privacy Act

C.

Sarbanes Oxley

D.

PCI-DSS

Question 39

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

During initial investigation, the team suspects criminal activity but cannot initially prove or disprove illegal actions. What is the MOST critical aspect of the team’s activities?

Options:

A.

Regular communication of incident status to executives

B.

Eradication of malware and system restoration

C.

Determination of the attack source

D.

Preservation of information

Question 40

You manage a newly created Security Operations Center (SOC), your team is being inundated with security alerts and don’t know what to do. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

Options:

A.

Tell the team to do their best and respond to each alert

B.

Tune the sensors to help reduce false positives so the team can react better

C.

Request additional resources to handle the workload

D.

Tell the team to only respond to the critical and high alerts

Question 41

Which publication serves as a resource of enterprise security-based standards and BEST practices?

Options:

A.

NIS Standard Publication 800-53 R5

B.

HIPAA

C.

ISO 27004

D.

PCI DSS

Question 42

Which of the following best describes a portfolio?

Options:

A.

The portfolio is used to manage and track individual projects

B.

The portfolio is used to manage incidents and events

C.

A portfolio typically consists of several programs

D.

A portfolio delivers one specific service or program to the business

Question 43

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how

hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles

does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Effective use of existing technologies

B.

Create a comprehensive security awareness program and provide success metrics to business units

C.

Proper budget management

D.

Leveraging existing implementations

Question 44

Which of the following is the BEST method to manage data that no longer provides business value?

Options:

A.

Follow requirements in the data retention policy

B.

Protect it according to general best practices guidelines

C.

Audit it to make sure the data is complete

D.

Determine disposition according to database administrator processes

Question 45

The primary responsibility for assigning entitlements to a network share lies with which role?

Options:

A.

CISO

B.

Data owner

C.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

D.

Security system administrator

Question 46

The effectiveness of an audit is measured by?

Options:

A.

The number of actionable items in the recommendations

B.

How it exposes the risk tolerance of the company

C.

How the recommendations directly support the goals of the company

D.

The number of security controls the company has in use

Question 47

An information security department is required to remediate system vulnerabilities when they are discovered. Please select the three primary remediation methods that can be used on an affected system.

Options:

A.

Install software patch, Operate system, Maintain system

B.

Discover software, Remove affected software, Apply software patch

C.

Install software patch, configuration adjustment, Software Removal

D.

Software removal, install software patch, maintain system

Question 48

Which of the following are the MOST important factors for proactively determining system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Subscribe to vendor mailing list to get notification of system vulnerabilities

B.

Deploy Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and install anti-virus on systems

C.

Configure firewall, perimeter router and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

D.

Conduct security testing, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing

Question 49

What key technology can mitigate ransomware threats?

Options:

A.

Use immutable data storage

B.

Phishing exercises

C.

Application of multiple end point anti-malware solutions

D.

Blocking use of wireless networks

Question 50

Which of the following is MOST useful when developing a business case for security initiatives?

Options:

A.

Budget forecasts

B.

Request for proposals

C.

Cost/benefit analysis

D.

Vendor management

Question 51

A business unit within your organization intends to deploy a new technology in a manner that places it in violation of existing information security standards. What immediate action should the information security manager take?

Options:

A.

Enforce the existing security standards and do not allow the deployment of the new technology.

B.

Amend the standard to permit the deployment.

C.

If the risks associated with that technology are not already identified, perform a risk analysis to quantify the risk, and allow the business unit to proceed based on the identified risk level.

D.

Permit a 90-day window to see if an issue occurs and then amend the standard if there are no issues.

Question 52

A missing/ineffective security control is identified. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Perform an audit to measure the control formally

B.

Escalate the issue to the IT organization

C.

Perform a risk assessment to measure risk

D.

Establish Key Risk Indicators

Question 53

As the CISO, you have been tasked with the execution of the company’s key management program. You

MUST ensure the integrity of encryption keys at the point of generation. Which principal of encryption key

control will ensure no single individual can constitute or re-constitute a key?

Options:

A.

Dual Control

B.

Separation of Duties

C.

Split Knowledge

D.

Least Privilege

Question 54

When deploying an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) the BEST way to get maximum protection from the system is to deploy it

Options:

A.

In promiscuous mode and only detect malicious traffic.

B.

In-line and turn on blocking mode to stop malicious traffic.

C.

In promiscuous mode and block malicious traffic.

D.

In-line and turn on alert mode to stop malicious traffic.

Question 55

As the Business Continuity Coordinator of a financial services organization, you are responsible for ensuring assets are recovered timely in the event of a disaster. Which is the BEST Disaster Recovery performance indicator to validate that you are prepared for a disaster?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Disaster Recovery Plan

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Business Continuity Plan

Question 56

A global health insurance company is concerned about protecting confidential information. Which of the following is of MOST concern to this organization?

Options:

A.

Compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) regulations.

B.

Alignment with financial reporting regulations for each country where they operate.

C.

Alignment with International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards.

D.

Compliance with patient data protection regulations for each country where they operate.

Question 57

A CISO must conduct risk assessments using a method where the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) receives impact data in financial terms to use as input to select the proper level of coverage in a new cybersecurity insurance policy.

What is the MOST effective method of risk analysis to provide the CFO with the information required?

Options:

A.

Conduct a quantitative risk assessment

B.

Conduct a hybrid risk assessment

C.

Conduct a subjective risk assessment

D.

Conduct a qualitative risk assessment

Question 58

Which of the following is an example of risk transference?

Options:

A.

Writing specific language in an agreement that puts the burden back on the other party

B.

Outsourcing the function on run 3rd party

C.

Implementing changes to current operating procedure

D.

Purchasing cyber insurance

Question 59

Risk transference is BEST represented by which of the following actions?

Options:

A.

Communicating the risk to all business units

B.

Outsourcing data storage operations to a third party

C.

Procuring cyber insurance

D.

Changing current processes for data retention

Question 60

Which of the following is the MOST critical step when establishing a security governance program?

Options:

A.

Prepare a security budget

B.

Conduct a workshop for all end users

C.

Obtain senior-level sponsorship

D.

Create a risk management program

Question 61

Which of the following represents the best method of ensuring business unit alignment with security program requirements?

Options:

A.

Provide clear communication of security requirements throughout the organization

B.

Demonstrate executive support with written mandates for security policy adherence

C.

Create collaborative risk management approaches within the organization

D.

Perform increased audits of security processes and procedures

Question 62

In accordance with best practices and international standards, how often is security awareness training provided to employees of an organization?

Options:

A.

High risk environments 6 months, low risk environments 12 months

B.

Every 12 months

C.

Every 18 months

D.

Every six months

Question 63

Which risk analysis method is the MOST effective for determining the exact financial impact of risks in an organization?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Quantitative risk analysis

C.

Qualitative risk analysis

D.

Penetration testing

Question 64

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

The CISO has been able to implement a number of technical controls and is able to influence the Information Technology teams but has not been able to influence the rest of the organization. From an organizational perspective, which of the following is the LIKELY reason for this?

Options:

A.

The CISO does not report directly to the CEO of the organization

B.

The CISO reports to the IT organization

C.

The CISO has not implemented a policy management framework

D.

The CISO has not implemented a security awareness program

Question 65

Which of the following BEST describes countermeasures that minimize risk?

Options:

A.

Security operations

B.

Security controls

C.

Security guidelines

D.

Security audits

Question 66

What cloud computing environment allows access and use by several organizations for information sharing?

Options:

A.

Community cloud

B.

Public cloud

C.

Private cloud

D.

Hybrid cloud

Question 67

What is the name of a formal statement that defines the strategy, approach, or expectations related to specific concerns within an organization:

Options:

A.

Policy

B.

standard

C.

Procedure

D.

Guideline

Question 68

Which of the following terms is used to describe the estimate of all direct and indirect costs associated with an asset or acquisition over its entire life cycle?

Options:

A.

Total Cost of Production

B.

Total Cost of Ownership

C.

Total Cost of Product

D.

Return on Investment

Question 69

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

Question 70

Which of the following is considered one of the most frequent failures in project management?

Options:

A.

Overly restrictive management

B.

Excessive personnel on project

C.

Failure to meet project deadlines

D.

Insufficient resources

Question 71

If a competitor wants to cause damage to your organization, steal critical secrets, or put you out of business,

they just have to find a job opening, prepare someone to pass the interview, have that person hired, and they

will be in the organization. How would you prevent such type of attacks?

Options:

A.

Conduct thorough background checks before you engage them

B.

Hire the people through third-party job agencies who will vet them for you

C.

Investigate their social networking profiles

D.

It is impossible to block these attacks

Question 72

The purpose of NIST SP 800-53 as part of the NIST System Certification and Accreditation Project is to establish a set of standardized, minimum security controls for IT systems addressing low, moderate, and high levels of concern for

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability

B.

Assurance, Compliance and Availability

C.

International Compliance

D.

Integrity and Availability

Question 73

When is an application security development project complete?

Options:

A.

When the application is retired.

B.

When the application turned over to production.

C.

When the application reaches the maintenance phase.

D.

After one year.

Question 74

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

Question 75

Which of the following methodologies references the recommended industry standard that Information security project managers should follow?

Options:

A.

The Security Systems Development Life Cycle

B.

The Security Project And Management Methodology

C.

Project Management System Methodology

D.

Project Management Body of Knowledge

Question 76

A global retail company is creating a new compliance management process. Which of the following standards would be of PRIMARY importance?

Options:

A.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

B.

National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)

D.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

Question 77

What is the BEST approach for managing shared elements from multiple regulations and standards?

Options:

A.

Develop a compliance crosswalk to manage overlapping requirements

B.

Design your program to meet the strictest requirements from each statute

C.

Retain all compliance requirements in a central database

D.

Ensure the audit team is aware of their responsibility to communicate critical needs to the organization

Question 78

The mean time to patch, number of virus outbreaks prevented, and number of vulnerabilities mitigated are examples of what type of performance metrics?

Options:

A.

Defined metrics

B.

Operational metrics

C.

Audit metrics

D.

Management metrics

Question 79

Involvement of senior management is MOST important in the development of:

Options:

A.

IT security implementation plans.

B.

Standards and guidelines.

C.

IT security policies.

D.

IT security procedures.

Question 80

Access Control lists (ACLs), Firewalls, and Intrusion Prevention Systems are examples of

Options:

A.

Network based security preventative controls

B.

Software segmentation controls

C.

Network based security detective controls

D.

User segmentation controls

Question 81

When dealing with risk, the information security practitioner may choose to:

Options:

A.

assign

B.

transfer

C.

acknowledge

D.

defer

Question 82

Scenario: Your corporate systems have been under constant probing and attack from foreign IP addresses for more than a week. Your security team and security infrastructure have performed well under the stress. You are confident that your defenses have held up under the test, but rumors are spreading that sensitive customer data has been stolen and is now being sold on the Internet by criminal elements. During your investigation of the rumored compromise you discover that data has been breached and you have discovered the repository of stolen data on a server located in a foreign country. Your team now has full access to the data on the foreign server.

What action should you take FIRST?

Options:

A.

Destroy the repository of stolen data

B.

Contact your local law enforcement agency

C.

Consult with other C-Level executives to develop an action plan

D.

Contract with a credit reporting company for paid monitoring services for affected customers

Question 83

Devising controls for information security is a balance between?

Options:

A.

Governance and compliance

B.

Auditing and security

C.

Budget and risk tolerance

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

Question 84

What is the MAIN reason for conflicts between Information Technology and Information Security programs?

Options:

A.

Technology governance defines technology policies and standards while security governance does not.

B.

Security governance defines technology best practices and Information Technology governance does not.

C.

Technology Governance is focused on process risks whereas Security Governance is focused on business risk.

D.

The effective implementation of security controls can be viewed as an inhibitor to rapid Information Technology implementations.

Question 85

What type of test is performed by an auditor when a sample of programs is selected to determine if software source and object versions are the same?

Options:

A.

A sample test of program library features

B.

A sample test of programming object reuse controls

C.

A compliance test of program compiler operations

D.

A compliance test of program library controls

Question 86

Your incident response plan should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Procedures for litigation

B.

Procedures for reclamation

C.

Procedures for classification

D.

Procedures for charge-back

Question 87

Which of the following is critical for maintaining a successful information security management program?

Options:

A.

A successful Chief Information Officer

B.

Vendor awareness and guidance

C.

Leadership support

D.

Focused security guidelines

Question 88

When managing a project, the MOST important activity in managing the expectations of stakeholders is:

Options:

A.

To force stakeholders to commit ample resources to support the project

B.

To facilitate proper communication regarding outcomes

C.

To assure stakeholders commit to the project start and end dates in writing

D.

To finalize detailed scope of the project at project initiation

Question 89

IT control objectives are useful to IT auditors as they provide the basis for understanding the:

Options:

A.

Desired results or purpose of implementing specific control procedures.

B.

The audit control checklist.

C.

Techniques for securing information.

D.

Security policy

Question 90

Which represents PROPER separation of duties in the corporate environment?

Options:

A.

Information Security and Identity Access Management teams perform two distinct functions

B.

Developers and Network teams both have admin rights on servers

C.

Finance has access to Human Resources data

D.

Information Security and Network teams perform two distinct functions

Question 91

Which of the following is the BEST security control for reducing the threat of phishing attacks?

Options:

A.

Create a data loss prevention capability

B.

Security awareness and training

C.

Implement antivirus within the email system

D.

Increase helpdesk staff

Question 92

Creating a secondary authentication process for network access would be an example of?

Options:

A.

Nonlinearities in physical security performance metrics

B.

Defense in depth cost enumerated costs

C.

System hardening and patching requirements

D.

Anti-virus for mobile devices

Question 93

Why is it vitally important that senior management endorse a security policy?

Options:

A.

So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.

B.

So that employees will follow the policy directives.

C.

So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.

D.

So that they can be held legally accountable.

Question 94

You have purchased a new insurance policy as part of your risk strategy. Which of the following risk strategy options have you engaged in?

Options:

A.

Risk Avoidance

B.

Risk Acceptance

C.

Risk Transfer

D.

Risk Mitigation

Question 95

The executive board has requested that the CISO define Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) to measure the effectiveness of the security awareness program. Which information would be MOST useful?

Options:

A.

Annual number of help desk tickets with the word “security” in them

B.

Total number of employees that reported unsuccessful social engineering attacks

C.

Month-by-month percentages of employees that failed phishing tests

D.

Number of alerts detected by the Security Operations Center

Question 96

An example of professional unethical behavior is:

Options:

A.

Gaining access to an affiliated employee’s work email account as part of an officially sanctioned internal investigation

B.

Sharing copyrighted material with other members of a professional organization where all members have legitimate access to the material

C.

Copying documents from an employer’s server which you assert that you have an intellectual property claim to possess, but the company disputes

D.

Storing client lists and other sensitive corporate internal documents on a removable thumb drive

Question 97

A security manager regualrly checks work areas after buisness hours for security violations; such as unsecured files or unattended computers with active sessions. This activity BEST demonstrates what part of a security program?

Options:

A.

Audit validation

B.

Physical control testing

C.

Compliance management

D.

Security awareness training

Question 98

When working in the Payment Card Industry (PCI), how often should security logs be review to comply with the standards?

Options:

A.

Daily

B.

Hourly

C.

Weekly

D.

Monthly

Question 99

Which of the following is an accurate description of a balance sheet?

Options:

A.

The percentage of earnings that are retained by the organization for reinvestment in the business

B.

The details of expenses and revenue over a long period of time

C.

A summarized statement of all assets and liabilities at a specific point in time

D.

A review of regulations and requirements impacting the business from a financial perspective

Question 100

Which of the following can the company implement in order to avoid this type of security issue in the future?

Options:

A.

Network based intrusion detection systems

B.

A security training program for developers

C.

A risk management process

D.

A audit management process

Question 101

Which of the following is the MOST effective method to counter phishing attacks?

Options:

A.

User awareness and training

B.

Host based Intrusion Detection System (IPS)

C.

Acceptable use guide signed by all system users

D.

Antispam solution

Question 102

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT) is which of the following?

Options:

A.

An Information Security audit standard

B.

An audit guideline for certifying secure systems and controls

C.

A framework for Information Technology management and governance

D.

A set of international regulations for Information Technology governance

Question 103

What standard would you use to help define key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

ITIL

B.

GDPR

C.

ISO 31000

D.

NIST SP 800-55

Question 104

Which of the following is the MOST effective technology to counter phishing attacks?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning software

B.

Additional monitoring of low-risk individuals

C.

Email anti-spam solutions

D.

Email antivirus solutions

Question 105

Which of the following is a benefit of a risk-based approach to audit planning?

Options:

A.

Resources are allocated to the areas of the highest concern

B.

Scheduling may be performed months in advance

C.

Budgets are more likely to be met by the IT audit staff

D.

Staff will be exposed to a variety of technologies

Question 106

The patching and monitoring of systems on a consistent schedule is required by?

Options:

A.

Local privacy laws

B.

Industry best practices

C.

Risk Management frameworks

D.

Audit best practices

Question 107

When updating the security strategic planning document what two items must be included?

Options:

A.

Alignment with the business goals and the vision of the CIO

B.

The risk tolerance of the company and the company mission statement

C.

The executive summary and vision of the board of directors

D.

The alignment with the business goals and the risk tolerance

Question 108

Risk appetite directly affects what part of a vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Staff

B.

Scope

C.

Schedule

D.

Scan tools

Question 109

During the course of a risk analysis your IT auditor identified threats and potential impacts. Next, your IT auditor should:

Options:

A.

Identify and evaluate the existing controls.

B.

Disclose the threats and impacts to management.

C.

Identify information assets and the underlying systems.

D.

Identify and assess the risk assessment process used by management.

Question 110

What is the primary reason for performing vendor management?

Options:

A.

To understand the risk coverage that are being mitigated by the vendor

B.

To establish a vendor selection process

C.

To document the relationship between the company and the vendor

D.

To define the partnership for long-term success

Question 111

Which of the following is the MOST effective method to measure the effectiveness of security controls in a perimeter network?

Options:

A.

Implement network intrusion prevention systems

B.

External penetration testing by an independent third party

C.

Performing a vulnerability scan of servers using current tools and processes

D.

Internally review firewall configurations

Question 112

When operating under severe budget constraints a CISO will have to be creative to maintain a strong security organization. Which example below is the MOST creative way to maintain a strong security posture during these difficult times?

Options:

A.

Download open source security tools and deploy them on your production network

B.

Download trial versions of commercially available security tools and deploy on your production network

C.

Download open source security tools from a trusted site, test, and then deploy on production network

D.

Download security tools from a trusted source and deploy to production network

Question 113

The Security Operations Center (SOC) just purchased a new intrusion prevention system (IPS) that needs to be deployed in-line for best defense. The IT group is concerned about putting the new IPS in-line because it might negatively impact network availability. What would be the BEST approach for the CISO to reassure the IT group?

Options:

A.

Work with the IT group and tell them to put IPS in-line and say it won’t cause any network impact

B.

Explain to the IT group that the IPS won’t cause any network impact because it will fail open

C.

Explain to the IT group that this is a business need and the IPS will fail open however, if there is a network failure the CISO will accept responsibility

D.

Explain to the IT group that the IPS will fail open once in-line however it will be deployed in monitor mode for a set period of time to ensure that it doesn’t block any legitimate traffic

Question 114

If a CISO wants to understand the liabilities of the company, she will refer to the:

Options:

A.

Statement of Proxy

B.

Statement of Retained Earnings

C.

once Sheet

D.

Profit and Loss Statement

Question 115

Scenario: As you begin to develop the program for your organization, you assess the corporate culture and determine that there is a pervasive opinion that the security program only slows things down and limits the performance of the “real workers.”

Which group of people should be consulted when developing your security program?

Options:

A.

Peers

B.

End Users

C.

Executive Management

D.

All of the above

Question 116

What would be the MOST likely reason a CISO sees abnormally high volumes of security exceptions within a number of business functions?

Options:

A.

Weak audit support for the security program

B.

This is normal since business units resist security requirements

C.

A lack of executive presence within the security program

D.

Poor alignment of the security program to the organization

Question 117

Which of the following provides enterprise security-based standards and best practices?

Options:

A.

NIST Special Publication 800-53

B.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 23009

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)

D.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Question 118

How is an Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) calculated?

Options:

A.

Single Loss Expectancy multiplied by the Annual Rate of Occurrence

B.

Total loss frequency multiplied by the total loss probability

C.

Replacement cost multiplied by the total loss expectancy

D.

Value of the asset multiplied by the lifecycle loss expectancy

Question 119

Which of the following illustrates an operational control?

Options:

A.

Conducting weekly audits of configuration management processes

B.

Establishing procurement guidelines for vendors

C.

Classifying an information system as part of a document assessment

D.

Installing a fire suppression system in a data center

Question 120

The exposure factor of a threat to your organization is defined by?

Options:

A.

Asset value times exposure factor

B.

Annual rate of occurrence

C.

Annual loss expectancy minus current cost of controls

D.

Percentage of loss experienced due to a realized threat event

Question 121

How often should the SSAE16 report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Annually

D.

Bi-annually

Question 122

A large number of accounts in a hardened system were suddenly compromised to an external party. Which of

the following is the MOST probable threat actor involved in this incident?

Options:

A.

Poorly configured firewalls

B.

Malware

C.

Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

D.

An insider

Question 123

With a focus on the review and approval aspects of board responsibilities, the Data Governance Council recommends that the boards provide strategic oversight regarding information and information security, include these four things:

Options:

A.

Metrics tracking security milestones, understanding criticality of information and information security, visibility into the types of information and how it is used, endorsement by the board of directors

B.

Annual security training for all employees, continual budget reviews, endorsement of the development and implementation of a security program, metrics to track the program

C.

Understanding criticality of information and information security, review investment in information security, endorse development and implementation of a security program, and require regular reports on adequacy and effectiveness

D.

Endorsement by the board of directors for security program, metrics of security program milestones, annual budget review, report on integration and acceptance of program

Question 124

When a critical vulnerability has been discovered on production systems and needs to be fixed immediately, what is the BEST approach for a CISO to mitigate the vulnerability under tight budget constraints?

Options:

A.

Transfer financial resources from other critical programs

B.

Take the system off line until the budget is available

C.

Deploy countermeasures and compensating controls until the budget is available

D.

Schedule an emergency meeting and request the funding to fix the issue

Question 125

Which of the following activities must be completed BEFORE you can calculate risk?

Options:

A.

Determining the likelihood that vulnerable systems will be attacked by specific threats

B.

Calculating the risks to which assets are exposed in their current setting

C.

Assigning a value to each information asset

D.

Assessing the relative risk facing the organization’s information assets

Question 126

What oversight should the information security team have in the change management process for application security?

Options:

A.

Information security should be informed of changes to applications only

B.

Development team should tell the information security team about any application security flaws

C.

Information security should be aware of any significant application security changes and work with developer to test for vulnerabilities before changes are deployed in production

D.

Information security should be aware of all application changes and work with developers before changes are deployed in production

Question 127

What is the primary reason for performing a return on investment analysis?

Options:

A.

To decide between multiple vendors

B.

To decide is the solution costs less than the risk it is mitigating

C.

To determine the current present value of a project

D.

To determine the annual rate of loss

Question 128

The ultimate goal of an IT security projects is:

Options:

A.

Increase stock value

B.

Complete security

C.

Support business requirements

D.

Implement information security policies

Question 129

Dataflow diagrams are used by IT auditors to:

Options:

A.

Order data hierarchically.

B.

Highlight high-level data definitions.

C.

Graphically summarize data paths and storage processes.

D.

Portray step-by-step details of data generation.

Question 130

When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common sources for obtaining computer evidence?

Options:

A.

Configurations and software patch level

B.

Unallocated system storage and removable drives

C.

Persistent and volatile data

D.

Screen captures and keystroke logs

Question 131

What standard provides a framework for information security risk management within organizations?

Options:

A.

Information Security Management System (ISMS)

B.

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)

C.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

D.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27005

Question 132

Scenario: You are the CISO and have just completed your first risk assessment for your organization. You find many risks with no security controls, and some risks with inadequate controls. You assign work to your staff to create or adjust existing security controls to ensure they are adequate for risk mitigation needs.

You have identified potential solutions for all of your risks that do not have security controls. What is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Get approval from the board of directors

B.

Screen potential vendor solutions

C.

Verify that the cost of mitigation is less than the risk

D.

Create a risk metrics for all unmitigated risks

Question 133

Which of the following best describes the sensors designed to project and detect a light beam across an area?

Options:

A.

Smoke

B.

Thermal

C.

Air-aspirating

D.

Photo electric

Question 134

Effective information security management programs require the active involvement of_________

Options:

A.

ClOS

B.

All employees

C.

Security Managers

D.

Executives

Question 135

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

Question 136

When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common data sources for obtaining evidence from a computer and mobile devices?

Options:

A.

RAM and unallocated space

B.

Unallocated space and RAM

C.

Slack space and browser cache

D.

Persistent and volatile data

Question 137

Which of the following is a critical operational component of an Incident Response Program (IRP)?

Options:

A.

Weekly program budget reviews to ensure the percentage of program funding remains constant.

B.

Annual review of program charters, policies, procedures and organizational agreements.

C.

Daily monitoring of vulnerability advisories relating to your organization’s deployed technologies.

D.

Monthly program tests to ensure resource allocation is sufficient for supporting the needs of the organization

Question 138

The process to evaluate the technical and non-technical security controls of an IT system to validate that a given design and implementation meet a specific set of security requirements is called

Options:

A.

Security certification

B.

Security system analysis

C.

Security accreditation

D.

Alignment with business practices and goals.

Question 139

Who is responsible for securing networks during a security incident?

Options:

A.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

B.

Security Operations Center (SO

C.

Disaster Recovery (DR) manager

D.

Incident Response Team (IRT)

Question 140

To have accurate and effective information security policies how often should the CISO review the organization policies?

Options:

A.

Every 6 months

B.

Quarterly

C.

Before an audit

D.

At least once a year

Question 141

Which of the following compliance standards is the MOST common among retail businesses?

Options:

A.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

B.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

C.

Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

D.

ISO 27002

Question 142

The new CISO was informed of all the Information Security projects that the organization has in progress. Two projects are over a year behind schedule and over budget. Using best business practices for project management you determine that the project correctly aligns with the company goals.

Which of the following needs to be performed NEXT?

Options:

A.

Verify the scope of the project

B.

Verify the regulatory requirements

C.

Verify technical resources

D.

Verify capacity constraints

Question 143

During a cyber incident, which non-security personnel might be needed to assist the security team?

Options:

A.

Threat analyst, IT auditor, forensic analyst

B.

Network engineer, help desk technician, system administrator

C.

CIO, CFO, CSO

D.

Financial analyst, payroll clerk, HR manager

Question 144

Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.

Once supervisors and data owners have approved requests, information system administrators will implement

Options:

A.

Technical control(s)

B.

Management control(s)

C.

Policy control(s)

D.

Operational control(s)

Question 145

Knowing the potential financial loss an organization is willing to suffer if a system fails is a determination of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Cost benefit

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Business continuity

D.

Likelihood of impact

Question 146

Many times a CISO may have to speak to the Board of Directors (BOD) about their cyber security posture. What would be the BEST choice of security metrics to present to the BOD?

Options:

A.

All vulnerabilities found on servers and desktops

B.

Only critical and high vulnerabilities on servers and desktops

C.

Only critical and high vulnerabilities that impact important production servers

D.

All vulnerabilities that impact important production servers

Question 147

Which security technologies are critical for a zero trust model?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication, Identity and Access Management (IAM), and endpoint security

B.

Coding libraries, secure network gateways, and endpoint antivirus

C.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP), Security Information and Event Management (SIEM), and network integrations

D.

Firewalls, intrusion prevention, and Web Application Firewalls (WAF)

Question 148

In what phase of an incident management process will malware antivirus signatures be distributed to infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Distribution

B.

Eradication

C.

Containment

D.

Collection

Question 149

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding capital expenses?

Options:

A.

They are easily reduced through the elimination of usage, such as reducing power for lighting of work areasduring off-hours

B.

Capital expenses can never be replaced by operational expenses

C.

Capital expenses are typically long-term investments with value being realized through their use

D.

The organization is typically able to regain the initial cost by selling this type of asset

Question 150

When evaluating a Managed Security Services Provider (MSSP), which service(s) is/are most important:

Options:

A.

Patch management

B.

Network monitoring

C.

Ability to provide security services tailored to the business’ needs

D.

24/7 tollfree number

Question 151

A Security Operations Center (SOC) manager is informed that a database containing highly sensitive corporate strategy information is under attack. Information has been stolen, and the database server was disconnected. Who must be informed of this incident?

Options:

A.

Internal audit

B.

All management staff

C.

Government regulators

D.

The data owner

Question 152

Your IT auditor is reviewing significant events from the previous year and has identified some procedural oversights. Which of the following would be the MOST concerning?

Options:

A.

Lack of notification to the public of disclosure of confidential information.

B.

Lack of periodic examination of access rights

C.

Failure to notify police of an attempted intrusion

D.

Lack of reporting of a successful denial of service attack on the network.

Question 153

Which of the following is true regarding expenditures?

Options:

A.

Capital expenditures are never taxable

B.

Operating expenditures are for acquiring assets, capital expenditures are for support costs of that asset

C.

Capital expenditures are used to define depreciation tables of intangible assets

D.

Capital expenditures are for acquiring assets, whereas operating expenditures are for support costs of thatasset

Question 154

During an audit, what should the auditor do after identifying threats and potential impact?

Options:

A.

Perform an asset classification

B.

Identify and evaluate the existing controls

C.

Create the audit checklist

D.

Create a threat findings report

Question 155

Which of the following would be the MOST concerning security audit finding?

Options:

A.

Failure to notify police of an attempted intrusion

B.

Notification was not provided for a breach of personal information

C.

Lack of reporting of a successful denial-of-service attack

D.

Identified lack of weekly access rights reviews

Question 156

An organization has a stated requirement to block certain traffic on networks. The implementation of controls will disrupt a manufacturing process and cause unacceptable delays, resulting in sever revenue disruptions. Which of the following is MOST likely to be responsible for accepting the risk until mitigating controls can be implemented?

Options:

A.

The CISO

B.

Audit and Compliance

C.

The CFO

D.

The business owner

Question 157

SCENARIO: A CISO has several two-factor authentication systems under review and selects the one that is most sufficient and least costly. The implementation project planning is completed and the teams are ready to implement the solution. The CISO then discovers that the product it is not as scalable as originally thought and will not fit the organization’s needs.

What is the MOST logical course of action the CISO should take?

Options:

A.

Review the original solution set to determine if another system would fit the organization’s risk appetite and budgetregulatory compliance requirements

B.

Continue with the implementation and submit change requests to the vendor in order to ensure required functionality will be provided when needed

C.

Continue with the project until the scalability issue is validated by others, such as an auditor or third party assessor

D.

Cancel the project if the business need was based on internal requirements versus regulatory compliance requirements

Question 158

From the CISO’s perspective in looking at financial statements, the statement of retained earnings of an organization:

Options:

A.

Has a direct correlation with the CISO’s budget

B.

Represents, in part, the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls

C.

Represents the sum of all capital expenditures

D.

Represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls

Question 159

What is the BEST way to achieve on-going compliance monitoring in an organization?

Options:

A.

Only check compliance right before the auditors are scheduled to arrive onsite.

B.

Outsource compliance to a 3rd party vendor and let them manage the program.

C.

Have Compliance and Information Security partner to correct issues as they arise.

D.

Have Compliance direct Information Security to fix issues after the auditors report.

Question 160

Due to staff shortages during off-hours, the Security Operations Center (SOC) manager is considering outsourcing off-hour coverage. What type of SOC is being considered?

Options:

A.

Virtual

B.

In-house

C.

Cyber Center of Excellence

D.

Hybrid

Question 161

What does a security control objective provide for auditors?

Options:

A.

Policy guidance for controls and implementations

B.

Desired results or purpose of implementing a specific control

C.

Techniques that were used for securing information

D.

The framework for the audit control object checklist

Question 162

Which of the following is the BEST reason for having a formal Request for Proposal (RFP) process?

Options:

A.

Allows small companies to compete with larger companies

B.

Creates a timeline for purchasing and budgeting

C.

Informs the supplier that the organization is going to make a purchase

D.

Identifies risks and benefits before funding is allocated

Question 163

A method to transfer risk is to:

Options:

A.

Implement redundancy

B.

move operations to another region

C.

purchase breach insurance

D.

Alignment with business operations

Question 164

An audit was conducted and many critical applications were found to have no disaster recovery plans in place. You conduct a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) to determine impact to the company for each application. What should be the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Determine the annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Create a crisis management plan

C.

Create technology recovery plans

D.

Build a secondary hot site

Question 165

What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if someone on your guest wireless network is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Provide logging and analysis for all access points

B.

Disable SSID broadcast and enable address filtering on access points

C.

Install firewall software on all access points

D.

Provide the IP address, MAC address, and other pertinent information

Question 166

What is the purpose of a purple security testing team?

Options:

A.

They defend against simulated hacker attacks during war gaming

B.

They oversee security war-gaming exercises for performance reviews

C.

They integrate defensive tactics with discovered threats and vulnerabilities

D.

They emulate hackers to compromise systems within the network environment

Question 167

Which of the following is a PRIMARY task of a risk management function within the security program?

Options:

A.

Creating and communicating Key Performance Indicators

B.

Deciding the organization's risk appetite

C.

Coordinating schedules of risk assessments

D.

Creating and approving risk mitigation

Question 168

Which of the following conditions would be the MOST probable reason for a security project to be rejected by the executive board of an organization?

Options:

A.

The Net Present Value (NPV) of the project is negative

B.

The Return on Investment (ROI) is less than 10 months

C.

The Return on Investment (ROI) is longer than 10 months

D.

The Net Present Value (NPV) of the project is positive

Question 169

What should an auditor do after discovering that a security analyst is working a late-night shift every week as the senior server administrator?

Options:

A.

Inform the security officer of the need for an exception

B.

Inform senior management of the risk

C.

Immediately review the system logs of all servers

D.

Ensure additional monitoring is applied to the security analyst

Question 170

When gathering security requirements for an enterprise software solution, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Type of encryption provided for data at rest

B.

Type of data contained in the system and how it is used

C.

Type of connection and protocol used to transfer configuration information

D.

Brand of platform the application is hosted on

Question 171

Which of the following is considered to be an IT governance framework and a supporting toolset that allows for managers to bridge the gap between control requirements, technical issues, and business risks?

Options:

A.

Control Objective for Information Technology (COBIT)

B.

Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO)

C.

Payment Card Industry (PCI)

D.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

Question 172

Which International Organization for Standardization (ISO) below BEST describes the performance of risk management, and includes a five-stage risk management methodology.

Options:

A.

ISO 27001

B.

ISO 27002

C.

ISO 27004

D.

ISO 27005

Question 173

An application vulnerability assessment has identified a security flaw in an application. This is a flaw that was previously identified and remediated on a prior release of the application. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recurring issue?

Options:

A.

Ineffective configuration management controls

B.

Lack of change management controls

C.

Lack of version/source controls

D.

High turnover in the application development department

Question 174

The regular review of a firewall ruleset is considered a

Options:

A.

Procedural control

B.

Organization control

C.

Technical control

D.

Management control

Question 175

Scenario: Your program is developed around minimizing risk to information by focusing on people, technology, and operations.

An effective way to evaluate the effectiveness of an information security awareness program for end users, especially senior executives, is to conduct periodic:

Options:

A.

Controlled spear phishing campaigns

B.

Password changes

C.

Baselining of computer systems

D.

Scanning for viruses

Question 176

A system is designed to dynamically block offending Internet IP-addresses from requesting services from a secure website. This type of control is considered

Options:

A.

Zero-day attack mitigation

B.

Preventive detection control

C.

Corrective security control

D.

Dynamic blocking control

Question 177

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 178

The single most important consideration to make when developing your security program, policies, and processes is:

Options:

A.

Budgeting for unforeseen data compromises

B.

Streamlining for efficiency

C.

Alignment with the business

D.

Establishing your authority as the Security Executive

Question 179

To reduce the threat of spear phishing, which of the following is the MOST critical security control to implement?

Options:

A.

Security awareness and training

B.

Firewall

C.

Data loss prevention

D.

Antivirus

Question 180

Acme Inc. has engaged a third party vendor to provide 99.999% up-time for their online web presence and had them contractually agree to this service level agreement. What type of risk tolerance is Acme exhibiting? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

low risk-tolerance

B.

high risk-tolerance

C.

moderate risk-tolerance

D.

medium-high risk-tolerance

Question 181

Which of the following is considered a project versus a managed process?

Options:

A.

monitoring external and internal environment during incident response

B.

ongoing risk assessments of routine operations

C.

continuous vulnerability assessment and vulnerability repair

D.

installation of a new firewall system

Question 182

The Board of Directors of a publicly-traded company is concerned about the security implications of a strategic project that will migrate 50% of the organization’s information technology assets to the cloud. They have requested a briefing on the project plan and a progress report of the security stream of the project. As the CISO, you have been tasked with preparing the report for the Chief Executive Officer to present.

Using the Earned Value Management (EVM), what does a Cost Variance (CV) of -1,200 mean?

Options:

A.

The project is over budget

B.

The project budget has reserves

C.

The project cost is in alignment with the budget

D.

The project is under budget

Question 183

Which of the following is a fundamental component of an audit record?

Options:

A.

Date and time of the event

B.

Failure of the event

C.

Originating IP-Address

D.

Authentication type

Question 184

Which of the following is the MOST effective method for discovering common technical vulnerabilities within the

IT environment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing system administrator logs

B.

Auditing configuration templates

C.

Checking vendor product releases

D.

Performing system scans

Question 185

As the Risk Manager of an organization, you are task with managing vendor risk assessments. During the assessment, you identified that the vendor is engaged with high profiled clients, and bad publicity can jeopardize your own brand.

Which is the BEST type of risk that defines this event?

Options:

A.

Compliance Risk

B.

Reputation Risk

C.

Operational Risk

D.

Strategic Risk

Question 186

A newly appointed security officer finds data leakage software licenses that had never been used. The officer decides to implement a project to ensure it gets installed, but the project gets a great deal of resistance across the organization. Which of the following represents the MOST likely reason for this situation?

Options:

A.

The software license expiration is probably out of synchronization with other software licenses

B.

The project was initiated without an effort to get support from impacted business units in the organization

C.

The software is out of date and does not provide for a scalable solution across the enterprise

D.

The security officer should allow time for the organization to get accustomed to her presence before initiating security projects

Question 187

What are the primary reasons for the development of a business case for a security project?

Options:

A.

To estimate risk and negate liability to the company

B.

To understand the attack vectors and attack sources

C.

To communicate risk and forecast resource needs

D.

To forecast usage and cost per software licensing

Question 188

A severe security threat has been detected on your corporate network. As CISO you quickly assemble key members of the Information Technology team and business operations to determine a modification to security controls in response to the threat. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Business continuity planning

C.

Security Incident Response

D.

Thought leadership

Question 189

Credit card information, medical data, and government records are all examples of:

Options:

A.

Confidential/Protected Information

B.

Bodily Information

C.

Territorial Information

D.

Communications Information

Question 190

Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to determine if the source and object versions are the same?

Options:

A.

A substantive test of program library controls

B.

A compliance test of program library controls

C.

A compliance test of the program compiler controls

D.

A substantive test of the program compiler controls

Question 191

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

Options:

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

Exam Detail
Vendor: ECCouncil
Certification: CCISO
Exam Code: 712-50
Last Update: Jan 28, 2026
712-50 Question Answers
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Total 494 questions