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Free and Premium ECCouncil 712-50 Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 494 questions

EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to measure the effectiveness of security controls on a perimeter network?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability scan of the network

B.

External penetration testing by a qualified third party

C.

Internal Firewall ruleset reviews

D.

Implement network intrusion prevention systems

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Question 2

An organization licenses and uses personal information for business operations, and a server containing that information has been compromised. What kind of law would require notifying the owner or licensee of this incident?

Options:

A.

Data breach disclosure

B.

Consumer right disclosure

C.

Security incident disclosure

D.

Special circumstance disclosure

Question 3

A security officer wants to implement a vulnerability scanning program. The officer is uncertain of the state of vulnerability resiliency within the organization’s large IT infrastructure. What would be the BEST approach to minimize scan data output while retaining a realistic view of system vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Scan a representative sample of systems

B.

Perform the scans only during off-business hours

C.

Decrease the vulnerabilities within the scan tool settings

D.

Filter the scan output so only pertinent data is analyzed

Question 4

When a critical vulnerability has been discovered on production systems and needs to be fixed immediately, what is the BEST approach for a CISO to mitigate the vulnerability under tight budget constraints?

Options:

A.

Transfer financial resources from other critical programs

B.

Take the system off line until the budget is available

C.

Deploy countermeasures and compensating controls until the budget is available

D.

Schedule an emergency meeting and request the funding to fix the issue

Question 5

According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-40, which of the following considerations are MOST important when creating a vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Susceptibility to attack, mitigation response time, and cost

B.

Attack vectors, controls cost, and investigation staffing needs

C.

Vulnerability exploitation, attack recovery, and mean time to repair

D.

Susceptibility to attack, expected duration of attack, and mitigation availability

Question 6

What is the BEST way to achieve on-going compliance monitoring in an organization?

Options:

A.

Only check compliance right before the auditors are scheduled to arrive onsite.

B.

Outsource compliance to a 3rd party vendor and let them manage the program.

C.

Have Compliance and Information Security partner to correct issues as they arise.

D.

Have Compliance direct Information Security to fix issues after the auditors report.

Question 7

In MOST organizations which group periodically reviews network intrusion detection system logs for all systems as part of their daily tasks?

Options:

A.

Internal Audit

B.

Database Administration

C.

Information Security

D.

Compliance

Question 8

How often should an environment be monitored for cyber threats, risks, and exposures?

Options:

A.

Weekly

B.

Monthly

C.

Quarterly

D.

Daily

Question 9

Which of the following provides an audit framework?

Options:

A.

Control Objectives for IT (COBIT)

B.

Payment Card Industry-Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)

C.

International Organization Standard (ISO) 27002

D.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-30

Question 10

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27002 standard?

Options:

A.

To give information security management recommendations to those who are responsible for initiating, implementing, or maintaining security in their organization.

B.

To provide a common basis for developing organizational security standards

C.

To provide effective security management practice and to provide confidence in inter-organizational dealings

D.

To established guidelines and general principles for initiating, implementing, maintaining, and improving information security management within an organization

Question 11

Who is responsible for securing networks during a security incident?

Options:

A.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

B.

Security Operations Center (SO

C.

Disaster Recovery (DR) manager

D.

Incident Response Team (IRT)

Question 12

In accordance with best practices and international standards, how often is security awareness training provided to employees of an organization?

Options:

A.

High risk environments 6 months, low risk environments 12 months

B.

Every 12 months

C.

Every 18 months

D.

Every six months

Question 13

An employee successfully avoids becoming a victim of a sophisticated spear phishing attack due to knowledge gained through the corporate information security awareness program. What type of control has been effectively utilized?

Options:

A.

Management Control

B.

Technical Control

C.

Training Control

D.

Operational Control

Question 14

Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliance requirements are based on what criteria?

Options:

A.

The types of cardholder data retained

B.

The duration card holder data is retained

C.

The size of the organization processing credit card data

D.

The number of transactions performed per year by an organization

Question 15

A Chief Information Security Officer received a list of high, medium, and low impact audit findings. Which of the following represents the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

If the findings impact regulatory compliance, try to apply remediation that will address the most findings for the least cost.

B.

If the findings do not impact regulatory compliance, remediate only the high and medium risk findings.

C.

If the findings impact regulatory compliance, remediate the high findings as quickly as possible.

D.

If the findings do not impact regulatory compliance, review current security controls.

Question 16

When an organization claims it is secure because it is PCI-DSS certified, what is a good first question to ask towards assessing the effectiveness of their security program?

Options:

A.

How many credit card records are stored?

B.

How many servers do you have?

C.

What is the scope of the certification?

D.

What is the value of the assets at risk?

Question 17

Step-by-step procedures to regain normalcy in the event of a major earthquake is PRIMARILY covered by which of the following plans?

Options:

A.

Incident response plan

B.

Business Continuity plan

C.

Disaster recovery plan

D.

Damage control plan

Question 18

The remediation of a specific audit finding is deemed too expensive and will not be implemented. Which of the following is a TRUE statement?

Options:

A.

The asset is more expensive than the remediation

B.

The audit finding is incorrect

C.

The asset being protected is less valuable than the remediation costs

D.

The remediation costs are irrelevant; it must be implemented regardless of cost.

Question 19

In which of the following cases, would an organization be more prone to risk acceptance vs. risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

The organization uses exclusively a quantitative process to measure risk

B.

The organization uses exclusively a qualitative process to measure risk

C.

The organization’s risk tolerance is high

D.

The organization’s risk tolerance is lo

Question 20

The mean time to patch, number of virus outbreaks prevented, and number of vulnerabilities mitigated are examples of what type of performance metrics?

Options:

A.

Risk metrics

B.

Management metrics

C.

Operational metrics

D.

Compliance metrics

Question 21

The Information Security Management program MUST protect:

Options:

A.

all organizational assets

B.

critical business processes and /or revenue streams

C.

intellectual property released into the public domain

D.

against distributed denial of service attacks

Question 22

Which of the following are primary concerns for management with regard to assessing internal control objectives?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, Availability, Integrity

B.

Compliance, Effectiveness, Efficiency

C.

Communication, Reliability, Cost

D.

Confidentiality, Compliance, Cost

Question 23

Which of the following intellectual Property components is focused on maintaining brand recognition?

Options:

A.

Trademark

B.

Patent

C.

Research Logs

D.

Copyright

Question 24

Within an organization’s vulnerability management program, who has the responsibility to implement remediation actions?

Options:

A.

Security officer

B.

Data owner

C.

Vulnerability engineer

D.

System administrator

Question 25

Which of the following international standards can be BEST used to define a Risk Management process in an organization?

Options:

A.

National Institute for Standards and Technology 800-50 (NIST 800-50)

B.

International Organization for Standardizations – 27005 (ISO-27005)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)

D.

International Organization for Standardizations – 27004 (ISO-27004)

Question 26

Risk appetite directly affects what part of a vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Staff

B.

Scope

C.

Schedule

D.

Scan tools

Question 27

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001?

Options:

A.

Use within an organization to formulate security requirements and objectives

B.

Implementation of business-enabling information security

C.

Use within an organization to ensure compliance with laws and regulations

D.

To enable organizations that adopt it to obtain certifications

Question 28

The PRIMARY objective of security awareness is to:

Options:

A.

Ensure that security policies are read.

B.

Encourage security-conscious employee behavior.

C.

Meet legal and regulatory requirements.

D.

Put employees on notice in case follow-up action for noncompliance is necessary

Question 29

A method to transfer risk is to:

Options:

A.

Implement redundancy

B.

move operations to another region

C.

purchase breach insurance

D.

Alignment with business operations

Question 30

When briefing senior management on the creation of a governance process, the MOST important aspect should be:

Options:

A.

information security metrics.

B.

knowledge required to analyze each issue.

C.

baseline against which metrics are evaluated.

D.

linkage to business area objectives.

Question 31

Which security technologies are MOST critical to implementing a zero trust model?

Options:

A.

Firewalls, IPS, WAF

B.

DLP, SIFM, IP5

C.

ACLs, secure gateways, IPS

D.

MFA, IAM, Endpoint Security

Question 32

What Enterprise Architecture Framework is business-centric and is composed of eight phases?

Options:

A.

Federal Enterprise Architecture

B.

The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF)

C.

Zochman

D.

Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture

Question 33

Which of the following refers to the quantity or quality of project deliverables expanding from the original project plan?

Options:

A.

Deliverable expansion

B.

Scope creep

C.

Deadline extension

D.

Scope modification

Question 34

In which of the following cases would an organization be more prone to risk acceptance vs. risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance is high

B.

The organization uses exclusively a qualitative process to measure risk

C.

The organization uses exclusively a quantitative process to measure risk

D.

The organization's risk tolerance is low

Question 35

While Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA) is the easiest calculation among financial tools, what is its main weakness?

Options:

A.

it is not effective for smaller investments

B.

It is not accepted by many accounting rules

C.

lt is the least precise

D.

positive result is an indication that the effort should be pursued

Question 36

Which of the following statements below regarding Key Performance indicators (KPIs) are true?

Options:

A.

Development of KPI’s are most useful when done independently

B.

They are a strictly quantitative measure of success

C.

They should be standard throughout the organization versus domain-specific so they are more easily correlated

D.

They are a strictly qualitative measure of success

Question 37

From the CISO’s perspective in looking at financial statements, the statement of retained earnings of an organization:

Options:

A.

Has a direct correlation with the CISO’s budget

B.

Represents, in part, the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls

C.

Represents the sum of all capital expenditures

D.

Represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls

Question 38

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to secure the physical hardware hosts in a virtualized environment?

Options:

A.

Apply existing information security controls

B.

Apply virtualized controls to the physical host

C.

Secure the virtualized platform

D.

Secure the virtualized workload

Question 39

Which of the following areas are beyond the duties of the CISO?

Options:

A.

IT security compliance

B.

lnformation Technology (IT) portfolio management

C.

Network monitoring

D.

Cybersecurity policy

Question 40

When reviewing a Solution as a Service (SaaS) provider’s security health and posture, which key document should you review?

Options:

A.

SaaS provider’s website certifications and representations (certs and reps)

B.

SOC-2 Report

C.

Metasploit Audit Report

D.

Statement from SaaS provider attesting their ability to secure your data

Question 41

You have been promoted to the CISO of a big-box retail store chain reporting to the Chief Information Officer (CIO). The CIO’s first mandate to you is to develop a cybersecurity compliance framework that will meet all the store’s compliance requirements.

Which of the following compliance standard is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

Question 42

What is defined as the friction or opposition resulting from actual or perceived differences or incompatibilities?

Options:

A.

Disgruntlement

B.

Silos

C.

Conflict

D.

Disagreement

Question 43

An organization recently acquired a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution, and two months after the implementation, it was found that sensitive data was posted to numerous Dark Web sites. The DLP application was checked, and there are no apparent malfunctions and no errors.

What is the MOST likely reason why the sensitive data was posted?

Options:

A.

The DLP Solution was not integrated with mobile device anti-malware

B.

Data classification was not properly performed on the assets

C.

The sensitive data was not encrypted while at rest

D.

A risk assessment was not performed after purchasing the DLP solution

Question 44

What is protected by Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) 140-2?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Non-repudiation

D.

Availability

Question 45

Over 90% of successful cyber-attacks currently include: Social engineering

Options:

A.

Social engineering

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

All of these

D.

Phishing Attacks

Question 46

What is the purpose of the statement of retained earnings of an organization?

Options:

A.

It represents the sum of all capital expenditures

B.

It represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls

C.

It represents the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls

D.

It has a direct correlation with the CISO’s budget

Question 47

The alerting, monitoring, and lifecycle management of security-related events are typically managed by the:

Options:

A.

Security controls group

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance tools

C.

Security Threat and vulnerability management process

D.

Risk assessment process

Question 48

What is a key goal of information security?

Options:

A.

Creation of controls and processes to security the organization's data and information resources

B.

The documentation and qualification of risk be the organization to facilitate better decision making by management

C.

The confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization s data and information resources

D.

to reduce adverse impacts on the organization to an acceptable level of risk

Question 49

With a focus on the review and approval aspects of board responsibilities, the Data Governance Council recommends that the boards provide strategic oversight regarding information and information security, include these four things:

Options:

A.

Metrics tracking security milestones, understanding criticality of information and information security, visibility into the types of information and how it is used, endorsement by the board of directors

B.

Annual security training for all employees, continual budget reviews, endorsement of the development and implementation of a security program, metrics to track the program

C.

Understanding criticality of information and information security, review investment in information security, endorse development and implementation of a security program, and require regular reports on adequacy and effectiveness

D.

Endorsement by the board of directors for security program, metrics of security program milestones, annual budget review, report on integration and acceptance of program

Question 50

A CISO must conduct risk assessments using a method where the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) receives impact data in financial terms to use as input to select the proper level of coverage in a new cybersecurity insurance policy.

What is the MOST effective method of risk analysis to provide the CFO with the information required?

Options:

A.

Conduct a quantitative risk assessment

B.

Conduct a hybrid risk assessment

C.

Conduct a subjective risk assessment

D.

Conduct a qualitative risk assessment

Question 51

In defining a strategic security plan for an organization, what should a CISO first analyze?

Options:

A.

Reach out to a business similar to yours and ask for their plan

B.

Set goals that are difficult to attain to drive more productivity

C.

Review business acquisitions for the past 3 years

D.

Analyze the broader organizational strategic plan

Question 52

What is the primary difference between Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)?

Options:

A.

Only IDS is susceptible to false positives

B.

An IPS examines network traffic flows to detect and actively stop exploits and attacks

C.

IPS identify potentially malicious traffic based on signature or behavior and IDS does not

D.

IDS are typically deployed behind the firewall and IPS are deployed in front of the firewall

Question 53

Which of the following is the MOST effective method to counter phishing attacks?

Options:

A.

User awareness and training

B.

Host based Intrusion Detection System (IPS)

C.

Acceptable use guide signed by all system users

D.

Antispam solution

Question 54

Which of the following are the triple constraints of project management?

Options:

A.

Time, quality, and scope

B.

Cost, quality, and time

C.

Scope, time, and cost

D.

Quality, scope, and cost

Question 55

When information security falls under the Chief Information Officer (CIO), what is their MOST essential role?

Options:

A.

Oversees the organization’s day-to-day operations, creating the policies and strategies that govern operations

B.

Enlisting support from key executives the information security program budget and policies

C.

Charged with developing and implementing policies designed to protect employees and customers’ data from unauthorized access

D.

Responsible for the success or failure of the IT organization and setting strategic direction

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT an approach for ethical decision making?

Options:

A.

Common good

B.

Utilitarian

C.

Risk based

D.

Fairness

Question 57

As the Risk Manager of an organization, you are task with managing vendor risk assessments. During the assessment, you identified that the vendor is engaged with high profiled clients, and bad publicity can jeopardize your own brand.

Which is the BEST type of risk that defines this event?

Options:

A.

Compliance Risk

B.

Reputation Risk

C.

Operational Risk

D.

Strategic Risk

Question 58

A key cybersecurity feature of a Personal Identification Verification (PIV) Card is:

Options:

A.

Inability to export the private certificate/key

B.

It can double as physical identification at the DMV

C.

It has the user’s photograph to help ID them

D.

It can be used as a secure flash drive

Question 59

Which of the following is considered the MOST effective tool against social engineering?

Options:

A.

Anti-phishing tools

B.

Effective Security awareness program

C.

Anti-malware tools

D.

Effective Security Vulnerability Management Program

Question 60

Providing oversight of an information security program for the organization is the primary responsibility of which group?

Options:

A.

Office of the Auditor

B.

Senior Executives

C.

Office of the General Counsel

D.

All employees and users

Question 61

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 62

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

Question 63

SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:

Options:

A.

‘ o 1=1 - -

B.

/../../../../

C.

“DROPTABLE USERNAME”

D.

NOPS

Question 64

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

Question 65

Which of the following statements about Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is true?

Options:

A.

It is an IPSec protocol.

B.

It is a text-based communication protocol.

C.

It uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer.

D.

It uses UDP port 22

Question 66

The ability to hold intruders accountable in a court of law is important. Which of the following activities are needed to ensure the highest possibility for successful prosecution?

Options:

A.

Well established and defined digital forensics process

B.

Establishing Enterprise-owned Botnets for preemptive attacks

C.

Be able to retaliate under the framework of Active Defense

D.

Collaboration with law enforcement

Question 67

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

Question 68

The process of identifying and classifying assets is typically included in the

Options:

A.

Threat analysis process

B.

Asset configuration management process

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Disaster Recovery plan

Question 69

Physical security measures typically include which of the following components?

Options:

A.

Physical, Technical, Operational

B.

Technical, Strong Password, Operational

C.

Operational, Biometric, Physical

D.

Strong password, Biometric, Common Access Card

Question 70

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

Question 71

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

Options:

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

Question 72

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

Question 73

Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Hot site

C.

Warm site

D.

Mobile backup site

Question 74

What is the term describing the act of inspecting all real-time Internet traffic (i.e., packets) traversing a major Internet backbone without introducing any apparent latency?

Options:

A.

Traffic Analysis

B.

Deep-Packet inspection

C.

Packet sampling

D.

Heuristic analysis

Question 75

You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?

Options:

A.

Execute

B.

Read

C.

Administrator

D.

Public

Question 76

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

Question 77

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

Options:

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

Question 78

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

Question 79

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

Question 80

Security related breaches are assessed and contained through which of the following?

Options:

A.

The IT support team.

B.

A forensic analysis.

C.

Incident response

D.

Physical security team.

Question 81

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

Question 82

What type of attack requires the least amount of technical equipment and has the highest success rate?

Options:

A.

War driving

B.

Operating system attacks

C.

Social engineering

D.

Shrink wrap attack

Question 83

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

Question 84

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

Question 85

Which of the following is the MAIN security concern for public cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Unable to control physical access to the servers

B.

Unable to track log on activity

C.

Unable to run anti-virus scans

D.

Unable to patch systems as needed

Question 86

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

Question 87

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

Options:

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

Question 88

As a CISO you need to understand the steps that are used to perform an attack against a network. Put each step into the correct order.

1.Covering tracks

2.Scanning and enumeration

3.Maintaining Access

4.Reconnaissance

5.Gaining Access

Options:

A.

4, 2, 5, 3, 1

B.

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

C.

4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D.

4, 3, 5, 2, 1

Question 89

In terms of supporting a forensic investigation, it is now imperative that managers, first-responders, etc., accomplish the following actions to the computer under investigation:

Options:

A.

Secure the area and shut-down the computer until investigators arrive

B.

Secure the area and attempt to maintain power until investigators arrive

C.

Immediately place hard drive and other components in an anti-static bag

D.

Secure the area.

Question 90

An anonymity network is a series of?

Options:

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

Question 91

When gathering security requirements for an automated business process improvement program, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Type of data contained in the process/system

B.

Type of connection/protocol used to transfer the data

C.

Type of encryption required for the data once it is at rest

D.

Type of computer the data is processed on

Question 92

A system was hardened at the Operating System level and placed into the production environment. Months later an audit was performed and it identified insecure configuration different from the original hardened state. Which of the following security issues is the MOST likely reason leading to the audit findings?

Options:

A.

Lack of asset management processes

B.

Lack of change management processes

C.

Lack of hardening standards

D.

Lack of proper access controls

Question 93

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Alignment with the business

B.

Effective use of existing technologies

C.

Leveraging existing implementations

D.

Proper budget management

Question 94

Which of the following is considered one of the most frequent failures in project management?

Options:

A.

Overly restrictive management

B.

Excessive personnel on project

C.

Failure to meet project deadlines

D.

Insufficient resources

Question 95

Which of the following is a major benefit of applying risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk management governance becomes easier since most risks remain low once mitigated

B.

Resources are not wasted on risks that are already managed to an acceptable level

C.

Risk budgets are more easily managed due to fewer identified risks as a result of using a methodology

D.

Risk appetite can increase within the organization once the levels are understood

Question 96

Which of the following functions evaluates risk present in IT initiatives and/or systems when implementing an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Management

B.

Risk Assessment

C.

System Testing

D.

Vulnerability Assessment

Question 97

Which of the following best summarizes the primary goal of a security program?

Options:

A.

Provide security reporting to all levels of an organization

B.

Create effective security awareness to employees

C.

Manage risk within the organization

D.

Assure regulatory compliance

Question 98

A stakeholder is a person or group:

Options:

A.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative regardless of budget implications.

B.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative and is tied to the project budget.

C.

That has budget authority.

D.

That will ultimately use the system.

Question 99

A CISO sees abnormally high volumes of exceptions to security requirements and constant pressure from business units to change security processes. Which of the following represents the MOST LIKELY cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Poor audit support for the security program

B.

A lack of executive presence within the security program

C.

Poor alignment of the security program to business needs

D.

This is normal since business units typically resist security requirements

Question 100

You manage a newly created Security Operations Center (SOC), your team is being inundated with security alerts and don’t know what to do. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

Options:

A.

Tell the team to do their best and respond to each alert

B.

Tune the sensors to help reduce false positives so the team can react better

C.

Request additional resources to handle the workload

D.

Tell the team to only respond to the critical and high alerts

Question 101

A severe security threat has been detected on your corporate network. As CISO you quickly assemble key members of the Information Technology team and business operations to determine a modification to security controls in response to the threat. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Business continuity planning

C.

Security Incident Response

D.

Thought leadership

Question 102

The ultimate goal of an IT security projects is:

Options:

A.

Increase stock value

B.

Complete security

C.

Support business requirements

D.

Implement information security policies

Question 103

Which business stakeholder is accountable for the integrity of a new information system?

Options:

A.

CISO

B.

Compliance Officer

C.

Project manager

D.

Board of directors

Question 104

This occurs when the quantity or quality of project deliverables is expanded from the original project plan.

Options:

A.

Scope creep

B.

Deadline extension

C.

Scope modification

D.

Deliverable expansion

Question 105

When operating under severe budget constraints a CISO will have to be creative to maintain a strong security organization. Which example below is the MOST creative way to maintain a strong security posture during these difficult times?

Options:

A.

Download open source security tools and deploy them on your production network

B.

Download trial versions of commercially available security tools and deploy on your production network

C.

Download open source security tools from a trusted site, test, and then deploy on production network

D.

Download security tools from a trusted source and deploy to production network

Question 106

Which of the following can the company implement in order to avoid this type of security issue in the future?

Options:

A.

Network based intrusion detection systems

B.

A security training program for developers

C.

A risk management process

D.

A audit management process

Question 107

Acme Inc. has engaged a third party vendor to provide 99.999% up-time for their online web presence and had them contractually agree to this service level agreement. What type of risk tolerance is Acme exhibiting? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

low risk-tolerance

B.

high risk-tolerance

C.

moderate risk-tolerance

D.

medium-high risk-tolerance

Question 108

A recommended method to document the respective roles of groups and individuals for a given process is to:

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed internal organization chart

B.

Develop a telephone call tree for emergency response

C.

Develop an isolinear response matrix with cost benefit analysis projections

D.

Develop a Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed (RACI) chart

Question 109

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful project?

Options:

A.

it is completed on time or early as compared to the baseline project plan

B.

it meets most of the specifications as outlined in the approved project definition

C.

it comes in at or below the expenditures planned for in the baseline budget

D.

the deliverables are accepted by the key stakeholders

Question 110

Which one of the following BEST describes which member of the management team is accountable for the day-to-day operation of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Security administrators

B.

Security mangers

C.

Security technicians

D.

Security analysts

Question 111

Which of the following represents the best method of ensuring business unit alignment with security program requirements?

Options:

A.

Provide clear communication of security requirements throughout the organization

B.

Demonstrate executive support with written mandates for security policy adherence

C.

Create collaborative risk management approaches within the organization

D.

Perform increased audits of security processes and procedures

Question 112

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Alignment with the business

B.

Effective use of existing technologies

C.

Leveraging existing implementations

D.

Proper budget management

Question 113

A newly appointed security officer finds data leakage software licenses that had never been used. The officer decides to implement a project to ensure it gets installed, but the project gets a great deal of resistance across the organization. Which of the following represents the MOST likely reason for this situation?

Options:

A.

The software license expiration is probably out of synchronization with other software licenses

B.

The project was initiated without an effort to get support from impacted business units in the organization

C.

The software is out of date and does not provide for a scalable solution across the enterprise

D.

The security officer should allow time for the organization to get accustomed to her presence before initiating security projects

Question 114

A department within your company has proposed a third party vendor solution to address an urgent, critical business need. As the CISO you have been asked to accelerate screening of their security control claims. Which of the following vendor provided documents is BEST to make your decision:

Options:

A.

Vendor’s client list of reputable organizations currently using their solution

B.

Vendor provided attestation of the detailed security controls from a reputable accounting firm

C.

Vendor provided reference from an existing reputable client detailing their implementation

D.

Vendor provided internal risk assessment and security control documentation

Question 115

In effort to save your company money which of the following methods of training results in the lowest cost for the organization?

Options:

A.

Distance learning/Web seminars

B.

Formal Class

C.

One-One Training

D.

Self –Study (noncomputerized)

Question 116

Risk appetite is typically determined by which of the following organizational functions?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Business units

C.

Board of Directors

D.

Audit and compliance

Question 117

How often should the Statements of Standards for Attestation Engagements-16 (SSAE16)/International Standard on Assurance Engagements 3402 (ISAE3402) report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Bi-annually

D.

Annually

Question 118

Which of the following methods are used to define contractual obligations that force a vendor to meet customer expectations?

Options:

A.

Terms and Conditions

B.

Service Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Statement of Work

D.

Key Performance Indicators (KPI)

Question 119

An organization has a stated requirement to block certain traffic on networks. The implementation of controls will disrupt a manufacturing process and cause unacceptable delays, resulting in sever revenue disruptions. Which of the following is MOST likely to be responsible for accepting the risk until mitigating controls can be implemented?

Options:

A.

The CISO

B.

Audit and Compliance

C.

The CFO

D.

The business owner

Question 120

To get an Information Security project back on schedule, which of the following will provide the MOST help?

Options:

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

Stakeholder support

D.

Extend work hours

Question 121

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

In what phase of the response will the team extract information from the affected systems without altering original data?

Options:

A.

Response

B.

Investigation

C.

Recovery

D.

Follow-up

Question 122

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

After determining the audit findings are accurate, which of the following is the MOST logical next activity?

Options:

A.

Begin initial gap remediation analyses

B.

Review the security organization’s charter

C.

Validate gaps with the Information Technology team

D.

Create a briefing of the findings for executive management

Question 123

A CISO has implemented a risk management capability within the security portfolio. Which of the following

terms best describes this functionality?

Options:

A.

Service

B.

Program

C.

Portfolio

D.

Cost center

Question 124

Which of the following terms is used to describe countermeasures implemented to minimize risks to physical

property, information, and computing systems?

Options:

A.

Security frameworks

B.

Security policies

C.

Security awareness

D.

Security controls

Question 125

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

Which of the following is the FIRST action the CISO will perform after receiving the audit report?

Options:

A.

Inform peer executives of the audit results

B.

Validate gaps and accept or dispute the audit findings

C.

Create remediation plans to address program gaps

D.

Determine if security policies and procedures are adequate

Question 126

What is meant by password aging?

Options:

A.

An expiration date set for passwords

B.

A Single Sign-On requirement

C.

Time in seconds a user is allocated to change a password

D.

The amount of time it takes for a password to activate

Question 127

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for performing assessments of the security portfolio?

Options:

A.

To assure that the portfolio is aligned to the needs of the broader organization

B.

To create executive support of the portfolio

C.

To discover new technologies and processes for implementation within the portfolio

D.

To provide independent 3rd party reviews of security effectiveness

Question 128

Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.

Recently, members of your organization have been targeted through a number of sophisticated phishing attempts and have compromised their system credentials. What action can you take to prevent the misuse of compromised credentials to change bank account information from outside your organization while still allowing employees to manage their bank information?

Options:

A.

Turn off VPN access for users originating from outside the country

B.

Enable monitoring on the VPN for suspicious activity

C.

Force a change of all passwords

D.

Block access to the Employee-Self Service application via VPN

Question 129

The newly appointed CISO of an organization is reviewing the IT security strategic plan. Which of the following is the MOST important component of the strategic plan?

Options:

A.

There is integration between IT security and business staffing.

B.

There is a clear definition of the IT security mission and vision.

C.

There is an auditing methodology in place.

D.

The plan requires return on investment for all security projects.

Question 130

Simon had all his systems administrators implement hardware and software firewalls to ensure network

security. They implemented IDS/IPS systems throughout the network to check for and stop any unauthorized

traffic that may attempt to enter. Although Simon and his administrators believed they were secure, a hacker

group was able to get into the network and modify files hosted on the company's website. After searching

through the firewall and server logs, no one could find how the attackers were able to get in. He decides that

the entire network needs to be monitored for critical and essential file changes. This monitoring tool alerts

administrators when a critical file is altered. What tool could Simon and his administrators implement to

accomplish this?

Options:

A.

They need to use Nessus.

B.

They can implement Wireshark.

C.

Snort is the best tool for their situation.

D.

They could use Tripwire.

Question 131

Scenario: You are the newly hired Chief Information Security Officer for a company that has not previously had a senior level security practitioner. The company lacks a defined security policy and framework for their Information Security Program. Your new boss, the Chief Financial Officer, has asked you to draft an outline of a security policy and recommend an industry/sector neutral information security control framework for implementation.

Your Corporate Information Security Policy should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Information security theory

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Incident response contacts

D.

Desktop configuration standards

Question 132

Scenario: Your corporate systems have been under constant probing and attack from foreign IP addresses for more than a week. Your security team and security infrastructure have performed well under the stress. You are confident that your defenses have held up under the test, but rumors are spreading that sensitive customer data has been stolen and is now being sold on the Internet by criminal elements. During your investigation of the rumored compromise you discover that data has been breached and you have discovered the repository of stolen data on a server located in a foreign country. Your team now has full access to the data on the foreign server.

Your defenses did not hold up to the test as originally thought. As you investigate how the data was compromised through log analysis you discover that a hardworking, but misguided business intelligence analyst posted the data to an obfuscated URL on a popular cloud storage service so they could work on it from home during their off-time. Which technology or solution could you deploy to prevent employees from removing corporate data from your network? Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Security Guards posted outside the Data Center

B.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

C.

Rigorous syslog reviews

D.

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)

Question 133

The formal certification and accreditation process has four primary steps, what are they?

Options:

A.

Evaluating, describing, testing and authorizing

B.

Evaluating, purchasing, testing, authorizing

C.

Auditing, documenting, verifying, certifying

D.

Discovery, testing, authorizing, certifying

Question 134

Involvement of senior management is MOST important in the development of:

Options:

A.

IT security implementation plans.

B.

Standards and guidelines.

C.

IT security policies.

D.

IT security procedures.

Question 135

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

From an Information Security Leadership perspective, which of the following is a MAJOR concern about the CISO’s approach to security?

Options:

A.

Lack of risk management process

B.

Lack of sponsorship from executive management

C.

IT security centric agenda

D.

Compliance centric agenda

Question 136

Access Control lists (ACLs), Firewalls, and Intrusion Prevention Systems are examples of

Options:

A.

Network based security preventative controls

B.

Software segmentation controls

C.

Network based security detective controls

D.

User segmentation controls

Question 137

During the last decade, what trend has caused the MOST serious issues in relation to physical security?

Options:

A.

Data is more portable due to the increased use of smartphones and tablets

B.

The move from centralized computing to decentralized computing

C.

Camera systems have become more economical and expanded in their use

D.

The internet of Things allows easy compromise of cloud-based systems

Question 138

SCENARIO: A CISO has several two-factor authentication systems under review and selects the one that is most sufficient and least costly. The implementation project planning is completed and the teams are ready to implement the solution. The CISO then discovers that the product it is not as scalable as originally thought and will not fit the organization’s needs.

The CISO is unsure of the information provided and orders a vendor proof of concept to validate the system’s scalability. This demonstrates which of the following?

Options:

A.

An approach that allows for minimum budget impact if the solution is unsuitable

B.

A methodology-based approach to ensure authentication mechanism functions

C.

An approach providing minimum time impact to the implementation schedules

D.

A risk-based approach to determine if the solution is suitable for investment

Question 139

Annual Loss Expectancy is derived from the function of which two factors?

Options:

A.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Asset Value

B.

Single Loss Expectancy and Exposure Factor

C.

Safeguard Value and Annual Rate of Occurrence

D.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Single Loss Expectancy

Question 140

Which of the following is the MOST logical method of deploying security controls within an organization?

Options:

A.

Obtain funding for all desired controls and then create project plans for implementation

B.

Apply the simpler controls as quickly as possible and use a risk-based approach for the more difficult and

costly controls

C.

Apply the least costly controls to demonstrate positive program activity

D.

Obtain business unit buy-in through close communication and coordination

Question 141

During the 3rd quarter of a budget cycle, the CISO noticed she spent more than was originally planned in her

annual budget. What is the condition of her current budgetary posture?

Options:

A.

The budget is in a temporary state of imbalance

B.

The budget is operating at a deficit

C.

She can realign the budget through moderate capital expense (CAPEX) allocation

D.

She has a surplus of operational expenses (OPEX)

Question 142

Michael starts a new job and discovers that he has unnecessary access to a variety of systems. Which of the

following best describes the problem he has encountered?

Options:

A.

Rights collision

B.

Excessive privileges

C.

Privilege creep

D.

Least privileges

Question 143

Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates.

What is one proven method to account for common elements found within separate regulations and/or standards?

Options:

A.

Hire a GRC expert

B.

Use the Find function of your word processor

C.

Design your program to meet the strictest government standards

D.

Develop a crosswalk

Question 144

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

What phase of the response provides measures to reduce the likelihood of an incident from recurring?

Options:

A.

Response

B.

Investigation

C.

Recovery

D.

Follow-up

Question 145

If the result of an NPV is positive, then the project should be selected. The net present value shows the present

value of the project, based on the decisions taken for its selection. What is the net present value equal to?

Options:

A.

Net profit – per capita income

B.

Total investment – Discounted cash

C.

Average profit – Annual investment

D.

Initial investment – Future value

Question 146

Scenario: Your company has many encrypted telecommunications links for their world-wide operations. Physically distributing symmetric keys to all locations has proven to be administratively burdensome, but symmetric keys are preferred to other alternatives.

How can you reduce the administrative burden of distributing symmetric keys for your employer?

Options:

A.

Use asymmetric encryption for the automated distribution of the symmetric key

B.

Use a self-generated key on both ends to eliminate the need for distribution

C.

Use certificate authority to distribute private keys

D.

Symmetrically encrypt the key and then use asymmetric encryption to unencrypt it

Question 147

What is the difference between encryption and tokenization?

Options:

A.

Tokenization combined with hashing is always better than encryption

B.

Encryption can be mathematically reversed to provide the original information

C.

The token contains the all original information

D.

Tokenization can be mathematically reversed to provide the original information

Question 148

The total cost of security controls should:

Options:

A.

Be equal to the value of the information resource being protected

B.

Be greater than the value of the information resource being protected

C.

Be less than the value of the information resource being protected

D.

Should not matter, as long as the information resource is protected

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Total 494 questions