Summer Special - Limited Time 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: top65certs

Cisco 350-401 Dumps

Page: 1 / 61
Total 983 questions

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR) Questions and Answers

Question 1

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 16 use?

Options:

A.

c0:41:43:64:13:10

B.

00:00:0c 07:ac:10

C.

00:05:5c:07:0c:16

D.

05:00:0c:07:ac:16

Question 2

Which two items are found in YANG data models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

HTTP return codes

B.

rpc statements

C.

JSON schema

D.

container statements

E.

XML schema

Question 3

What is a benefit of Type 1 hypervisors?

Options:

A.

Administrators are able to load portable virtual machine packages in OVA or QCOW2 formats.

B.

Network engineers are able to create virtual networks o interconnect virtual machines in Layer 2 topologies

C.

Operators are able to leverage orchestrators to manage workloads that run on multiple Type 1 hypervisors

D.

Storage engineers are able to leverage VMDK files to provide storage to virtual machine.

Question 4

Which method is used by an AP to join HA controllers and is configured in NVRAM?

Options:

A.

stored WLC information

B.

DNS

C.

IP Helper Addresses

D.

Primary/Secondary/Tertiary/Backup

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of these commands on the BR and HQ tunnel interfaces?

Options:

A.

The tunnel line protocol goes down when the keepalive counter reaches 6

B.

The keepalives are sent every 5 seconds and 3 retries

C.

The keepalives are sent every 3 seconds and 5 retries

D.

The tunnel line protocol goes down when the keepalive counter reaches 5

Question 6

What is one difference between EIGRP and OSPF?

Options:

A.

OSPF is a Cisco proprietary protocol, and EIGRP is an IETF open standard protocol.

B.

OSPF uses the DUAL distance vector algorithm, and EIGRP uses the Dijkstra link-state algorithm

C.

EIGRP uses the variance command lot unequal cost load balancing, and OSPF supports unequal cost balancing by default.

D.

EIGRP uses the DUAL distance vector algorithm, and OSPF uses the Dijkstra link-state algorithm

Question 7

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tools that they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 8

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that shows all logging that occurred on the appliance from Sunday until 9:00 p.m Thursday Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 9

What is the function of a control-plane node In a Cisco SD-Access solution?

Options:

A.

to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships

B.

to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric

C.

to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric

D.

to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer reconfigures the pot-channel between SW1 and SW2 from an access port to a trunk and immediately notices this error in SW1's log.

Which command set resolves this error?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 11

What is the structure of a JSON web token?

Options:

A.

three parts separated by dots: header payload, and signature

B.

header and payload

C.

three parts separated by dots: version header and signature

D.

payload and signature

Question 12

What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?

Options:

A.

The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions

B.

The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored

C.

The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB

D.

The FIB is populated based on RIB content

Question 13

What NTP Stratum level is a server that is connected directly to an authoritative time source?

Options:

A.

Stratum 0

B.

Stratum 1

C.

Stratum 14

D.

Stratum 15

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures the BGP adjacency between R1 and R2, however, it fails to establish Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Change the network statement on R1 to 172.16 10.0

B.

Change the remote-as number for 192 168.100.11.

C.

Enable synchronization on R1 and R2

D.

Change the remote-as number on R1 to 6500.

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco DNA Center has obtained the username of the client and the multiple devices that the client is using on the network. How is Cisco DNA Center getting these context details?

Options:

A.

The administrator had to assign the username to the IP address manually in the user database tool on Cisco DNA Center.

B.

Those details are provided to Cisco DNA Center by the Identity Services Engine

C.

Cisco DNA Center pulled those details directly from the edge node where the user connected.

D.

User entered those details in the Assurance app available on iOS and Android devices

Question 16

A network engineer must configure a router to send logging messages to a syslog server based on these requirements:

    uses syslog IP address: 10.10.10.1

    uses a reliable protocol

    must not use any well-known TCP/UDP ports

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

logging host 10.10.10.1 transport tcp port 1024

B.

logging origin-id 10.10.10.1

C.

logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1023

D.

logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1024

Question 17

Which cisco DNA center application is responsible for group-based accesss control permissions?

Options:

A.

Design

B.

Provision

C.

Assurance

D.

Policy

Question 18

What is required for a virtual machine to run?

Options:

A.

a Type 1 hypervisor and a host operating system

B.

a hypervisor and physical server hardware

C.

only a Type 1 hypervisor

D.

only a Type 2 hypervisor

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit:

An engineer configures VRRP and issues the show commands to verify operation. What does the engineer confirm about VRRP group 1 from the output?

Options:

A.

There is no route to 10.10.1.1/32 in R2’s routing table

B.

If R1 reboots, R2 becomes the master virtual router until R2 reboots

C.

Communication between VRRP members is encrypted using MD5

D.

R1 is primary if 10.10.1.1/32 is in its routing table

Question 20

When are multicast RPs required?

Options:

A.

RPs are required only when using protocol independent multicast dense mode.

B.

By default, the RP is needed penodically to maintain sessions with sources and receivers.

C.

RPs are required for protocol Independent multicast sparse mode and dense mode.

D.

By default, the RP Is needed only start new sessions with sources and receivers.

Question 21

How are map-register messages sent in a LISP deployment?

Options:

A.

egress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

B.

ingress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

C.

egress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

D.

ingress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropnate egress tunnel router

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit. Which command is required to verify NETCONF capability reply messages?

Options:

A.

show netconf | section rpc-reply

B.

show netconf rpc-reply

C.

show netconf xml rpc-reply

D.

show netconf schema | section rpc-reply

Question 23

In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer?

Options:

A.

provide QoS prioritization services such as marking, queueing, and classification for critical network traffic

B.

provide redundant Layer 3 point-to-point links between the core devices for more predictable and faster convergence

C.

provide advanced network security features such as 802. IX, DHCP snooping, VACLs, and port security

D.

provide redundant aggregation for access layer devices and first-hop redundancy protocols such as VRRP

Question 24

An engineer must create a new SSID on a Cisco 9800 wireless LAN controller. The client has asked to use a pre-shared key for authentication Which profile must the engineer edit to achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

RF

B.

Policy

C.

WLAN

D.

Flex

Question 25

An engineer must configure AAA on a Cisco 9800 WLC for central web authentication Which two commands are needed to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 26

Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 27

A network administrator is implementing a routing configuration change and enables routing debugs to track routing behavior during the change. The logging output on the terminal is interrupting the command typing process. Which two actions can the network administrator take to minimize the possibility of typing commands incorrectly? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the logging synchronous global configuration command

B.

Configure the logging delimiter feature

C.

Configure the logging synchronous command under the vty

D.

Press the TAB key to reprint the command in a new line

E.

increase the number of lines on the screen using the terminal length command

Question 28

Refer to the exhibit.

Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 29

An engineer must create an EEM applet that sends a syslog message in the event a change happens in the network due to trouble with an OSPF process. Which action should the engineer use?

Options:

A.

action 1 syslog msg "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

B.

action 1 syslog send "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

C.

action 1 syslog pattern "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

D.

action 1syslog write "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

Question 30

AN engineer is implementing a route map to support redistribution within BGP. The route map must configured to permit all unmatched routes. Which action must the engineer perform to complete this task?

Options:

A.

Include a permit statement as the first entry

B.

Include at least one explicit deny statement

C.

Remove the implicit deny entry

D.

Include a permit statement as the last entry

Question 31

Drag and drop characteristics of PIM dense mode from the left to the right.

Options:

Question 32

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer attempts to establish BGP peering between router CORP and two ISP routers. What is the root cause for the failure between CORP and ISP#2?

Options:

A.

Router ISP#2 is configured to use SHA-1 authentication.

B.

There is a password mismatch between router CORP and router ISP#2.

C.

Router CORP is configured with an extended access control list.

D.

MD5 authorization is configured incorrectly on router ISP#2.

Question 33

Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43?

Options:

A.

The WLC is running a different software version.

B.

The API is joining a primed WLC

C.

The AP multicast traffic unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3.

D.

The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2.

Question 34

An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on then OLTIs?

Options:

A.

over the DS

B.

adaptive R

C.

802.11V

D.

802.11k

Question 35

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, which protocol is used by an extended node to connect to a single edge node?

Options:

A.

VXLAN

B.

IS-IS

C.

802 1Q

D.

CTS

Question 36

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two facts does the device output confirm? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The device sends unicast messages to its peers

B.

The device's HSRP group uses the virtual IP address 10.0.3.242

C.

The standby device is configured with the default HSRP priority.

D.

The device is using the default HSRP hello timer

E.

The device is configured with the default HSRP priority

Question 37

What does the LAP send when multiple WLCs respond to the CISCO_CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain hostname during the CAPWAP discovery and join process?

Options:

A.

broadcast discover request

B.

join request to all the WLCs

C.

unicast discovery request to each WLC

D.

Unicast discovery request to the first WLS that resolves the domain name

Question 38

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set changes the neighbor state from Idle (Admin) to Active?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result when a technician adds the monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 223 command1?

Options:

A.

The RSPAN VLAN is replaced by VLAN 223.

B.

RSPAN traffic is sent to VLANs 222 and 223

C.

An error is flagged for configuring two destinations.

D.

RSPAN traffic is split between VLANs 222 and 223.

Question 40

When firewall capabilities are considered, which feature is found only in Cisco next-generation firewalls?

Options:

A.

malware protection

B.

stateful inspection

C.

traffic filtering

D.

active/standby high availability

Question 41

What is a VPN in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

common exchange point between two different services

B.

attribute to identify a set of services offered in specific places in the SD-WAN fabric

C.

virtualized environment that provides traffic isolation and segmentation in the SD-WAN fabric

D.

virtual channel used to carry control plane information

Question 42

A network engineer is enabling HTTPS access to the core switch, which requires a certificate to be installed on the switch signed by the corporate certificate authority Which configuration commands are required to issue a certificate signing request from the core switch?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 43

A network engineer is adding an additional 10Gps link to an exiting 2x10Gps LACP-based LAG to augment its capacity. Network standards require a bundle interface to be taken out of service if one of its member links goes down, and the new link must be added with minimal impact to the production network. Drag and drop the tasks that the engineer must perform from the left into the sequence on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit. PC-1 must access the web server on port 8080. To allow this traffic, which statement must be added to an access control list that is applied on SW2 port G0/0 in the inbound direction?

Options:

A.

permit host 172.16.0.2 host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080

B.

permit host 192.168.0.5 host 172.16.0.2 eq 8080

C.

permit host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080 host 172.16.0.2

D.

permit host 192.168.0.5 it 8080 host 172.16.0.2

Question 45

What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC?

Options:

A.

It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller.

B.

It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs.

C.

It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails.

D.

It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between Itself and the primary controller.

Question 46

Dragand drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code toconstruct a script that adds a prefix list to a route map and sets the local preference. Not all options are used

Options:

Question 47

Which method does Cisco DNA Center use to allow management of non-Cisco devices through southbound protocols?

Options:

A.

It creates device packs through the use of an SDK

B.

It uses an API call to interrogate the devices and register the returned data.

C.

It obtains MIBs from each vendor that details the APIs available.

D.

It imports available APIs for the non-Cisco device in a CSV format.

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineers reaching network 172 16 10 0/24 via the R1-R2-R4 path. Which configuration forces the traffic to take a path of R1-R3-R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 49

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line, but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 50

Options:

Question 51

Options:

Question 52

OR

OR

OR

Options:

Question 53

OR

Options:

Question 54

Options:

Question 55

Options:

Question 56

Options:

Question 57

Options:

Question 58

Options:

Question 59

Options:

Question 60

Options:

Question 61

Options:

Question 62

Options:

Question 63

Options:

Question 64

Options:

Question 65

Options:

Question 66

Options:

Question 67

Options:

Question 68

Options:

Question 69

Options:

Question 70

Options:

Question 71

Options:

Question 72

Options:

Question 73

What is one difference between the RIB and the FIB?

Options:

A.

The RIB works at the data plane, and the FIB works at the control plane.

B.

The RIB is known as the CEF table, and the FIB is known as the routing table.

C.

The FIB contains routing prefixes, and the RIB contains the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information necessary to make a forwarding decision.

D.

The RIB keeps all routing information received from peers, and the FIB keeps the minimum information necessary to make a forwarding decision.

Question 74

An engineer must contigure a rou'.er to allow users to run specHic configuration commands by validating the user against the router database. Which configuration must be applied?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication network default local

B.

aaa authentication exec default local

C.

aaa authorization exec default local

D.

aaa authorization network default local

Question 75

Why would an architect use an OSPF virtual link?

Options:

A.

to allow a stub area to transit another stub area

B.

to connect two networks that have overlapping private IP address space

C.

to merge two existing Area Os through a nonbackbone

D.

to connect a nonbackbone area to Area 0 through another nonbackbone area

Question 76

What are two benefits of using Cisco TrustSec? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

consistent network segmentation

B.

advanced endpoint protection against malware

C.

simplified management of network access

D.

unknown file analysis using sandboxing

E.

end-to-end traffic encryption

Question 77

A technician is assisting a user who cannot connect to a website. The technician attempts to ping the default gateway and DNS server of the workstation. According to troubleshooting methodology, this is an example of:

Options:

A.

a divide-and-conquer approach.

B.

a bottom-up approach.

C.

a top-to-bottom approach.

D.

implementing a solution.

Question 78

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator writes a script to fetch the list of devices that are registered with Cisco DNA Center. Why does the execution abort?

Options:

A.

The authentication URL is incorrect.

B.

The "dna-center" hostname cannot be resolved to an IP address.

C.

The TLS certificate of DNA Center is invalid.

D.

The username or the password is Incorrect.

Question 79

Which JSON script is properly formatted?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 80

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must update the existing configuration to achieve these results

    Only administrators from the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet can access the vty lines.

    Access to the vty lines using dear-text protocols is prohibited.

Which command set should be applied?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 81

Where is the wireless LAN controller located in a mobility express deployment?

Options:

A.

There is no wireless LAN controller in the network.

B.

The wireless LAN controller is embedded into the access point.

C.

The wireless LAN controller exists in the cloud.

D.

The wireless LAN controller exists in a server that is dedicated for this purpose.

Question 82

Simulation 04

Options:

Question 83

Refer to the exhibit. What does the Python code accomplish?

Options:

A.

It configures interface e1/32 to be in an admin down state

B.

It generates a status code of 403 because the type is incorrect.

C.

It configures interface e1/32 to be in an err-disable state

D.

It returns data in JSON-RPC format.

Question 84

Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the variable list after the code is run?

Options:

A.

[1, 2, 10]

B.

[1, 2, 3, 10]

C.

[1, 2, 10, 4]

D.

[1, 10, 10, 10]

Question 85

A company hires a network architect to design a new OTT wireless solution within a Cisco SD-Access Fabric wired network. The architect wants to register access points to the WLC to centrally switch the traffic. Which AP mode must the design include?

Options:

A.

Bridge

B.

Fabric

C.

FlexConnect

D.

local

Question 86

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command « required to validate that an IP SLA configuration matches the traffic between the branch office and the central site?

Options:

A.

R1# show ip sla configuration

B.

R1# show Ip sla group schedule

C.

RI1# show Ip route

D.

R1# show ip sla statistics

Question 87

How does the Cisco SD-Access control plane simplify traditional routing environments?

Options:

A.

Routing adjacencies are no longer required.

B.

Full routing tables are shared and ensure that all routers know all paths within the underlay fabric and overlay.

C.

Separation of EID and RLOC reduces the size of routing tables.

D.

Routers query all routes to the map server.

Question 88

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable R1 and R2 to advertise routes into OSPF? (Choose two)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E) Option E

Question 89

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left to the corresponding tools on the right.

Options:

Question 90

Which unit of measure is used to measure wireless RF SNR?

Options:

A.

mW

B.

bBm

C.

dB

D.

dBi

Question 91

An engineer must configure router R1 to validate user logins via RADIUS and fall back to the local user database if the RADIUS server is not available. Which configuration must be applied?

Options:

A.

aaa authorization exec default radius local

B.

aaa authorization exec default radius

C.

aaa authentication exec default radius local

D.

aaa authentication exec default radius

Question 92

Which method ensures the confidentiality ot data exchanged over a REST API?

Options:

A.

Use the POST method instead of URL-encoded GET to pass parameters.

B.

Encode sensitive data using Base64 encoding.

C.

Deploy digest-based authentication to protect the access to the API.

D.

Use TLS to secure the underlying HTTP session.

Question 93

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is needed to complete the EEM applet and use the Tel script to store the backup file?

Options:

A.

action 2.0 cli command "write_backup.tcl tcl"

B.

action 2.0 cli command "flash:write_backup.tcl"

C.

action 2.0 cli command "write_backup.tcl"

D.

action 2.0 cli command "telsh flash:write_backup.tcl"

Question 94

What is a benefit of yang?

Options:

A.

It enforces configuration constraints.

B.

It enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf list.

C.

It enforces the use of a specific encoding format for NETCONF.

D.

It collects statistical constraint analysis information.

Question 95

What is a characteristics of Cisco SD-WAN?

Options:

A.

operates over DTLS/TLS authenticated and secured tunnels

B.

requires manual secure tunnel configuration

C.

uses unique per-device feature templates

D.

uses control connections between routers

Question 96

Which of the following security methods uses physical characteristics of a person to authorize access to a location?

Options:

A.

Access control vestibule

B.

Palm scanner

C.

PIN pad

D.

Digital card reader

E.

Photo ID

Question 97

Which JSON script is properly formatted?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 98

Refer to the exhibit.

Which result Is achieved by the CoPP configuration?

Options:

A.

Traffic that matches entry 10 of ACL 100 is always allowed.

B.

Class-default traffic is dropped.

C.

Traffic that matches entry 10 of ACL 100 is always allowed with a limited CIR.

D.

Traffic that matches entry 10 of ACL 100 is always dropped.

Question 99

Which line must be added in the Python function to return the JSON object {"cat_9k": “FXS193202SE")?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 100

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 101

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

Options:

A.

SIP flow information

B.

Wi-Fi multimedia

C.

traffic specification

D.

VoIP media session awareness

Question 102

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to create a configuration to allow the Blue VRF to leak into the global routing table, but the configuration does not function as expected. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Change the access-list destination mask to a wildcard.

B.

Change the source network that Is specified in access-list 101.

C.

Change the route-map configuration to VRF_BLUE.

D.

Change the access-list number in the route map

Question 103

Which three methods does Cisco DNA Centre use to discover devices? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

LLDP

D.

ping

E.

NETCONF

F.

a specified range of IP addresses

Question 104

Refer to the exhibit. What does the error message relay to the administrator who is trying to configure a Cisco IOS device?

Options:

A.

A NETCONF request was made for a data model that does not exist.

B.

The device received a valid NETCONF request and serviced it without error.

C.

A NETCONF message with valid content based on the YANG data models was made, but the request failed.

D.

The NETCONF running datastore is currently locked.

Question 105

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

Options:

A.

EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF

B.

EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.

C.

EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors

D.

EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

Question 106

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures monitoring on SW1 and enters the show command to verify operation. What does the output confirm?

Options:

A.

SPAN session 1 monitors activity on VLAN 50 of a remote switch

B.

SPAN session 2 only monitors egress traffic exiting port FastEthernet 0/14.

C.

SPAN session 2 monitors all traffic entering and exiting port FastEthernet 0/15.

D.

RSPAN session 1 is incompletely configured for monitoring

Question 107

Which command set configures RSPAN to capture outgoing traffic from VLAN 3 on interface GigabitEthernet 0/3 while ignoring other VLAN traffic on the same interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 108

A network engineer is configuring Flexible Netflow and enters these commands

Sampler Netflow1

Mode random one-out-of 100

Interface fastethernet 1/0

Flow-sampler netflow1

Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional Netflow? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced.

B.

Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported

C.

The data export flow is more secure.

D.

The number of packets to be analyzed are reduced

E.

The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved

Question 109

What is the function of the LISP map resolver?

Options:

A.

to send traffic to non-LISP sites when connected to a service provider that does not accept nonroutable ElDs as packet sources

B.

to connect a site to the LISP-capable part of a core network publish the EID-to-RLOC mappings for the site, and respond to map-request messages

C.

to decapsulate map-request messages from ITRs and forward the messages to the MS.

D.

to advertise routable non-LISP traffic from one address family to LISP sites in a different address family

Question 110

A network administrator applies the following configuration to an IOS device.

What is the process of password checks when a login attempt is made to the device?

Options:

A.

A TACACS+server is checked first. If that check fail, a database is checked?

B.

A TACACS+server is checked first. If that check fail, a RADIUS server is checked. If that check fail. a local database is checked.

C.

A local database is checked first. If that fails, a TACACS+server is checked, if that check fails, a RADUIS server is checked.

D.

A local database is checked first. If that check fails, a TACACS+server is checked.

Question 111

Refer to the exhibit. After configurating an IPsec VPN, an engineer enters the show command to verify the ISAKMP SA status. What does the status show?

Options:

A.

ISAKMP SA is authenticated and can be used for Quick Mode.

B.

Peers have exchanged keys, but ISAKMP SA remains unauthenticated.

C.

VPN peers agreed on parameters for the ISAKMP SA

D.

ISAKMP SA has been created, but it has not continued to form.

Question 112

which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Oracle VM VirtualBox

B.

VMware server

C.

Citrix XenServer

D.

Microsoft Virtual PC

Question 113

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthemet 0/1. Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 114

Refer to the exhibit.

Router 1 is currently operating as the HSRP primary with a priority of 110 router1 fails and router2 take over the forwarding role. Which command on router1 causes it to take over the forwarding role when it return to service?

Options:

A.

standby 2 priority

B.

standby 2 preempt

C.

standby 2 track

D.

standby 2 timers

Question 115

Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 116

Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

MACsec

B.

IPsec

C.

SSL

D.

Cisco Trustsec

Question 117

A network administrator has designed a network with two multilayer switches on the distribution layer, which act as default gateways for the end hosts. Which two technologies allow every end host in a VLAN to use both gateways? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

GLBP

B.

HSRP

C.

MHSRP

D.

VSS

E.

VRRP

Question 118

What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?

Options:

A.

To collect traffic flow information toward external networks

B.

To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks

C.

To attach and register clients to the fabric

D.

To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.

Question 119

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts, drag and drop the commands into the configuration to achieve these results. Some commands may be used more than once. Not all commands are used.

Options:

Question 120

What is the data policy in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

list of ordered statements that define node configurations and authentication used within the SD-WAN overlay

B.

Set of statements that defines how data is forwarded based on IP packet information and specific VPNs

C.

detailed database mapping several kinds of addresses with their corresponding location

D.

group of services tested to guarantee devices and links liveliness within the SD-WAN overlay

Question 121

Refer to the exhibit.

Security policy requires all idle-exec sessions to be terminated in 600 seconds. Which configuration achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

line vty 0 15

absolute-timeout 600

B.

line vty 0 15

exec-timeout

C.

line vty 01 5

exec-timeout 10 0

D.

line vty 0 4

exec-timeout 600

Question 122

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the configuration in this WLAN security setting, Which method can a client use to authenticate to the network?

Options:

A.

text string

B.

username and password

C.

certificate

D.

RADIUS token

Question 123

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures a GRE tunnel and enters the show Interface tunnel command. What does the output confirm about the configuration?

Options:

A.

The keepalive value is modified from the default value.

B.

Interface tracking is configured.

C.

The tunnel mode is set to the default.

D.

The physical interface MTU is 1476 bytes.

Question 124

Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment?

Options:

A.

switch fabric

B.

VTEP

C.

VNID

D.

host switch

Question 125

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a script that appends the output of the show process cpu sorted command to a file.

Options:

A.

action 4.0 syslog command “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

B.

action 4.0 publish-event “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

C.

action 4.0 ens-event “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

D.

action 4.0 cli command “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

Question 126

When is an external antenna used inside a building?

Options:

A.

only when using Mobility Express

B.

when it provides the required coverage

C.

only when using 2 4 GHz

D.

only when using 5 GHz

Question 127

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between London and New York is down. Which command set must be applied to the NewYork switch to resolve the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 128

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration. Which interface or interface or interface are able to establish OSPF adjacency?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthemet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/1.40

B.

only GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

only GigabttEthernet0/0

D.

Gigabit Ethernet0/0 and GigabitEthemet0/1

Question 129

Which command must be applied to R2 for an OSPF neighborship to form?

Options:

A.

network 20.1.1.2.0.0.0.0 area 0

B.

network 20.1.1.2 255.255.0.0. area 0

C.

network 20.1.1.2.0.0.255.255 area 0

D.

network 20.1.1.2 255.255.255 area 0

Question 130

Running the script causes the output in the exhibit. Which change to the first line of the script resolves the error?

Options:

A.

from ncclient import

B.

import manager

C.

from ncclient import*

D.

import ncclient manager

Question 131

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

Options:

A.

Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.

B.

Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound

C.

Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.

D.

Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Question 132

Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting a network engineer finds that after the user a disconnect, the connection re-establishes automatically without any input required. The engineer also notices these message logs .

Which action reduces the user impact?

Options:

A.

increase the AP heartbeat timeout

B.

increase BandSelect

C.

enable coverage hole detection

D.

increase the dynamic channel assignment interval

Question 133

How are the different versions of IGMP compatible?

Options:

A.

IGMPv2 is compatible only with IGMPv1.

B.

IGMPv2 is compatible only with IGMPv2.

C.

IGMPv3 is compatible only with IGMPv3.

D.

IGMPv3 is compatible only with IGMPv1

Question 134

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit How was spanning-tree configured on this interface?

Options:

A.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast trunk in the interface configuration mode.

B.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast in the interface configuration mode

C.

By entering the command spanning-tree mst1 vlan 10,20,30,40 in the global configuration mode

D.

By entering the command spanning-tree vlan 10,20,30,40 root primary in the interface configuration mode

Question 136

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must simplify the IPsec configuration by enabling IPsec over GRE using IPsec profiles. Which two configuration changes accomplish this? (Choose two).

Options:

A.

Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set ACL, and apply the profile to the tunnel interface.

B.

Apply the crypto map to the tunnel interface and change the tunnel mode to tunnel mode ipsec ipv4.

C.

Remove all configuration related to crypto map from R1 and R2 and eliminate the ACL.

D.

Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set, and apply the profile to the tunnel interface.

E.

Remove the crypto map and modify the ACL to allow traffic between 10.10.0.0/24 to 10.20.0.0/24.

Question 137

What is a characteristic of a next-generation firewall?

Options:

A.

only required at the network perimeter

B.

required in each layer of the network

C.

filters traffic using Layer 3 and Layer 4 information only

D.

provides intrusion prevention

Question 138

Drag and drop the wireless elements on the left to their definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 139

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure a trunk between switch sw1 and switch SW2 using DTP, but the trunk does not form. Which command should the engineer apply to switch SW2 to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.

switchport nonegotiate

C.

no switchport

D.

switchport mode access

Question 140

Refer to the exhibit.Anetwork engineer configuresNATon R1 and enters theshowcommand to verity the configuration What does the output confirm?

Options:

A.

The first pocket triggered NAT to add on entry to NAT table

B.

R1 is configured with NAT overload parameters

C.

A Telnet from 160.1.1 1 to 10.1.1.10 has been initiated.

D.

R1 to configured with PAT overload parameters

Question 141

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

Options:

A.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514

B.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514

C.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514

D.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514

Question 142

Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

HEAD

B.

REMOVE

C.

PULL

D.

PATCH

E.

ADD

F.

PUSH

Question 143

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of the Identity Services Engine?

Options:

A.

It is leveraged for dynamic endpoint to group mapping and policy definition.

B.

It provides GUI management and abstraction via apps that share context.

C.

it is used to analyze endpoint to app flows and monitor fabric status.

D.

It manages the LISP EID database.

Question 144

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

When users attempt to connect to vty lines 0 through 4, the device will authenticate them against TACACS+ if local authentication fails

B.

The device will authenticate all users connecting to vty lines 0 through 4 against TACACS+

C.

The device will allow users at 192.168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 using the password ciscotestkey

D.

The device will allow only users at 192.166.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4

Question 145

In cisco SD_WAN, which protocol is used to measure link quality?

Options:

A.

OMP

B.

BFD

C.

RSVP

D.

IPsec

Question 146

An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the must be the active HSRP router. The peer router has been configured using the default priority value. Which command set is required?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 147

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/1 and Gi0/1 to on.

B.

Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/1 to active

C.

Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to trunk

D.

Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.

Question 148

A firewall address of 192 166.1.101 can be pinged from a router but, when running a traceroute to It, this output is received

What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The firewall blocks ICMP traceroute traffic.

B.

The firewall rule that allows ICMP traffic does not function correctly

C.

The firewall blocks ICMP traffic.

D.

The firewall blocks UDP traffic

Question 149

What is the rose of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WN environment?

Options:

A.

it performs authentication and authorization

B.

it manages the control plane.

C.

it is the centralized network management system

D.

it manages the data plane

Question 150

Refer to the exhibit.

These commands have been added to the configuration of a switch Which command flags an error if it is added to this configuration?

Options:

A.

monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 6

B.

monitor session 1 source vlan 10

C.

monitor session 1 source interface FatEtheret0/1 x

D.

monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 7,port-channel8

Question 151

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 30 use?

Options:

A.

00:05:0c:07:ac:30

B.

00:00:0c:07:ac:1e

C.

05:0c:5e:ac:07:30

D.

00:42:18:14:05:1e

Question 152

In lhe CiscoDNACenter Image Repository, what is a golden image?

Options:

A.

The latest software image that is available for a specific device type

B.

The Cisco recommended software image for a specific device type.

C.

A software image that is compatible with multiple device types.

D.

A software image that meets the compliance requirements of the organization.

Question 153

Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

golden image selection

B.

automation backup

C.

proxy configuration

D.

application updates

E.

system update

Question 154

Which LISP component decapsulates messages and forwards them to the map server responsible for the egress tunnel routers?

Options:

A.

Ingress Tunnel Router

B.

Map Resolver

C.

Proxy ETR

D.

Router Locator

Question 155

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer builds an EEM script to apply an access list. Which statement must be added to complete the script?

Options:

A.

event none

B.

action 2.1 cli command "ip action 3.1 ell command 101''

C.

action 6.0 ell command ''ip access-list extended 101''

D.

action 6.0 cli command ''ip access-list extended 101"

Question 156

Refer to the exhibit.

Which GRE tunnel configuration command is missing on R2?

Options:

A.

tunnel source 192.181.2

B.

tunnel source 172.16.1.0

C.

tunnel source 200.1.1.1

D.

tunnel destination 200.1.1.1

Question 157

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

Options:

A.

TCP connect

B.

ICMP echo

C.

ICMP jitter

D.

UDP jitter

Question 158

A customer has 20 stores located throughout a city. Each store has a single Cisco access point managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analysis for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements?

Options:

A.

angle of arrival

B.

hyperlocation

C.

trilateration

D.

presence

Question 159

How does Protocol Independent Multicast function?

Options:

A.

In sparse mode, it establishes neighbor adjacencies and sends hello messages at 5-second intervals.

B.

It uses the multicast routing table to perform the multicast forwarding function.

C.

It uses unicast routing information to perform the multicast forwarding function.

D.

It uses broadcast routing information to perform the multicast forwarding function.

Question 160

Refer to the exhibit.

A company has an internal wireless network with a hidden SSID and RADIUS-based client authentication for increased security. An employee attempts to manually add the company network to a laptop, but the laptop does not attempt to connect to the network. The regulatory domains of the access points and the laptop are identical. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the "Connect even if this network is not broadcasting" option is selected.

B.

Limit the enabled wireless channels on the laptop to the maximum channel range that is supported by the access points.

C.

Change the security type to WPA2-Personal AES.

D.

Use the empty string as the hidden SSID network name.

Question 161

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 15 use?

Options:

A.

05:5e:ac:07:0c:0f

B.

c0:42:34:03:73:0f

C.

00:00:0c:07:ac:0f

D.

05:af:1c:0f:ac:15

Question 162

How is a data modelling language used?

Options:

A.

To enable data to be easily structured, grouped, validated, and replicated.

B.

To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed.

C.

To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure

D.

To provide human readability to scripting languages

Question 163

In which two ways does the routing protocol OSPF differ from EIGRP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

OSPF supports an unlimited number of hops. EIGRP supports a maximum of 255 hops.

B.

OSPF provides shorter convergence time than EIGRP.

C.

OSPF is distance vector protocol.EIGRP is a link-state protocol.

D.

OSPF supports only equal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing.

E.

OSPF supports unequal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports only equal-cost load balancing.

Question 164

Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH traffic that a router accepts to 100 kbps?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 165

Based ontherouter's API output In JSON format below, which Python code will display the value of the 'role' key?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 166

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching architectures on the right.

Options:

Question 167

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes the root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1

B.

spanning-tree mstp vlan 10.20 root primary

C.

spanning-tree mil 1 root primary

D.

spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096

E.

spanning-tree mst vlan 10.20 priority root

Question 168

A customer has a wireless network deployed within a multi-tenant building. The network provides client access, location-based services, and is monitored using Cisco DNA Center. The security departmentwants to locate and track malicious devices based on threat signatures. Which feature is required for this solution?

Options:

A.

Cisco aWIPS policies on the WLC

B.

Cisco aWIPS policies on Cisco DNA Center

C.

malicious rogue rules on the WLC

D.

malicious rogue rules on Cisco DNA Center

Question 169

Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.

B.

A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.

C.

R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.

D.

R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.

E.

R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside address.

Question 170

An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

Options:

A.

logging buffer

B.

service timestamps log uptime

C.

logging host

D.

terminal monitor

Question 171

What is the result of applying this access control list?

Options:

A.

TCP traffic with the URG bit set is allowed

B.

TCP traffic with the SYN bit set is allowed

C.

TCP traffic with the ACK bit set is allowed

D.

TCP traffic with the DF bit set is allowed

Question 172

What does a YANG model provide?

Options:

A.

standardized data structure independent of the transport protocols

B.

creation of transport protocols and their interaction with the OS

C.

user access to interact directly with the CLI of the device to receive or modify network configurations

D.

standardized data structure that can be used only with NETCONF or RESTCONF transport protocols

Question 173

Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3. Which configuration corrects the issue?

Options:

A.

SW1(config)#intgi1/1

SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094

B.

SW2(config)#intgi1/2

SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

C.

SW2(config)#int gi1/2

SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094

D.

SWl(config)#intgi1/1

SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

Question 174

Refer to the exhibit.

Only administrators from the subnet 10.10.10.0/24 are permitted to have access to the router. A secure protocol must be used for the remote access and management of the router instead of clear-text protocols. Which configuration achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 175

What is one characteristic of Cisco DNA Center and vManage northbound APIs?

Options:

A.

They push configuration changes down to devices.

B.

They implement the RESTCONF protocol.

C.

They exchange XML-formatted content.

D.

They implement the NETCONF protocol.

Question 176

An engineer must create a script to append and modify device entries in a JSON-formatted file. The script must work as follows:

    Until interrupted from the keyboard, the script reads in the hostname of a device, its management IP address, operating system type, and CLI remote access protocol.

    After being interrupted, the script displays the entered entries and adds them to the JSON-formatted file, replacing existing entries whose hostname matches.

The contents of the JSON-formatted file are as follows:

Drag and drop the statements onto the blanks within the code to complete the script. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 177

Using the EIRP formula,what parameter is subtracted to determine the EIRP value?

Options:

A.

transmitter power

B.

antenna cable loss

C.

antenna again

D.

signal-to-noise ratio

Question 178

Drag the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 179

Refer to the exhibit.

Extended access-list 100 is configured on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 in an inbound direction, but it does not have the expected behavior of allowing only packets to or from 192.168.0.0/16. Which command set properly configures the access list?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#no access-list 100 seq 10

R1(config)#access-list 100 seq 40 deny ip any any

B.

R1(config)#ip access-list extended 100

R1(config-ext-nacl)#no 10

C.

R1(config)#no access-list 100 deny ip any any

D.

R1(config)#ip access-list extended 100

R1(config-ext-nacl)#5 permit to any any

Question 180

How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?

Options:

A.

It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.

B.

It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.

C.

It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.

D.

It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.

Question 181

Simulation 02

Configure HSRPbetweenDISTRO-SW1andDISTRO-SW2on VLAN 100 for hosts connected to ACCESS-SW1 to achieve these goals:

1. Configure group number 1 using the virtual IP address of 192.168.1.1/24.

2. Configure DlSTRO-SW1 as the active router using a priority value of 110 and DISTRO-SW2 as the standby router.

3. Ensure that DISTRO-SW2 will take over the active role when DISTRO-SW1 goes down, and when DISTRO-SW1 recovers, it automatically resumes the active role.

DISTRO-SW2

Options:

Question 182

In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints?

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

VXLAN

C.

SXP

D.

LISP

Question 183

If AP power level is increased from 25 mW to 100 mW. what is the power difference in dBm?

Options:

A.

6 dBm

B.

14 dBm

C.

17 dBm

D.

20 dBm

Question 184

What is an advantage of utilizing data models in a multivendor environment?

Options:

A.

lowering CPU load incurred to managed devices

B.

improving communication security with binary encoded protocols

C.

facilitating a unified approach to configuration and management

D.

removing the distinction between configuration and runtime state data

Question 185

Which two features are available only in next-generation firewalls? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

virtual private network

B.

deep packet inspection

C.

stateful inspection

D.

application awareness

E.

packet filtering

Question 186

Refer to the exhibit.

What is output by this code?

Options:

A.

8 7 6 5

B.

-4 -5 -6 -7

C.

-1 -2-3-4

D.

4 5 6 7

Question 187

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching architectures on the right.

Options:

Question 188

How do the RIB and the FIB differ?

Options:

A.

FIB contains routes learned through a dynamic routing protocol, and the RIB contains routes that are static or directly connected.

B.

RIB contains the interface for a destination, and the FIB contains the next hop information.

C.

FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the data plane.

D.

RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB.

Question 189

What is one characteristic of VXLAN?

Options:

A.

It supports a maximum of 4096 VLANs.

B.

It supports multitenant segments.

C.

It uses STP to prevent loops in the underlay network.

D.

It uses the Layer 2 header to transfer packets through the network underlay.

Question 190

What is one role of the VTEP in a VXLAN environment?

Options:

A.

to forward packets to non-LISP sites

B.

to encapsulate the tunnel

C.

to maintain VLAN configuration consistency

D.

to provide EID-to-RLOC mapping

Question 191

the following system log message ispresented after a network administrator configures a GRE tunnel:

%TUN-5-RECURDOWN Interface Tunnel 0 temporarily disabled due to recursive routing

Why is tunnel 0 disabled?

Options:

A.

Because dynamic routing is not enabled

B.

Because the tunnel cannot reach its tunnel destination

C.

Because the best path to the tunnel destination is through the tunnel itself

D.

Because the router cannot recursively identify its egress forwarding interface

Question 192

Refer to the exhibit.

Both controllers are in the same mobility group. Which result occurs when client 1 roams between APs that are registered to different controllers in the same WLAN?

Options:

A.

Client 1 contact controller B by using an EoIP tunnel.

B.

CAPWAP tunnel is created between controller A and controller B.

C.

Client 1 users an EoIP tunnel to contact controller A.

D.

The client database entry moves from controller A to controller B.

Question 193

Refer to the exhibit.

Why does the OSPF neighborship fail between the two interfaces?

Options:

A.

The IP subnet mask is not the same.

B.

There is a mismatch in the OSPF interface network type.

C.

The OSPF timers are different.

D.

The MTU is nor the same.

Question 194

Which QoS feature uses the IP Precedence bits in the ToS field of the IP packet header to partition traffic into different priority levels?

Options:

A.

marking

B.

shaping

C.

policing

D.

classification

Question 195

Witch two actions provide controlled Layer 2 network connectivity between virtual machines running on the same hypervisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Use a single trunk link to an external Layer2 switch.

B.

Use a virtual switch provided by the hypervisor.

C.

Use a virtual switch running as a separate virtual machine.

D.

Use a single routed link to an external router on stick.

E.

Use VXLAN fabric after installing VXLAN tunneling drivers on the virtual machines.

Question 196

Which Python library is used to work with YANG data models via NETCONF?

Options:

A.

Postman

B.

requests

C.

nccllent

D.

cURL

Question 197

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator troubleshoots an EtherChannel that keeps moving to err-disabled. Which two actions must be taken to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Reload the switch to force EtherChannel renegotiation

B.

Ensure that interfaces Gi1/0/2 and Gi1/0/3 connect to the same neighboring switch.

C.

Ensure that the switchport parameters of Port channel1 match the parameters of the port channel on the neighbor switch

D.

Ensure that the corresponding port channel interface on the neighbor switch is named Port-channel1.

E.

Ensure that the neighbor interfaces of Gi1/0/2 and Gi/0/3 are configured as members of the same EtherChannel

Question 198

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 32 use?

Options:

A.

00:5e:0c:07:ac:20

B.

04:18:20:83:2e:32

C.

05:5e:5c:ac:0c:32

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:20

Question 199

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an eBGP neighborship to Router B on Router A. The network that is connected to GO/1 on Router A must be advertised to Router B. Which configuration should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 200

What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?

Options:

A.

send join messages toward a multicast source SPT

B.

ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver

C.

receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers

D.

secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver

Question 201

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 202

Which two solutions are used for backing up a Cisco DNA Center Assurance database? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NFS share

B.

non-linux server

C.

local server

D.

remote server

E.

bare metal server

Question 203

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer checks connectivity between two routers. The engineer can ping the remote endpoint but cannot see an ARP entry. Why is there no ARP entry?

Options:

A.

The ping command must be executed in the global routing table.

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/0 Is configured in VRF CUST-A, so the ARP entry is also in that VRF.

C.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol must be enabled In each VRF.

D.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol is disabled in the global routing table.

Question 204

An engineer must configure a router to leak routes between two VRFs Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 205

What is a characteristic of the overlay network in the Cisco SD-Access architecture?

Options:

A.

It uses a traditional routed access design to provide performance and high availability to the network.

B.

It consists of a group of physical routers and switches that are used to maintain the network.

C.

It provides isolation among the virtual networks and independence from the physical network.

D.

It provides multicast support to enable Layer 2 Hooding capability in the underlay network.

Question 206

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

Options:

A.

NetFlow updates to the collector are sent 50% less frequently.

B.

Every second IPv4 packet is forwarded to the collector for inspection.

C.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced when compared with what is required for full NetFlow.

D.

The resolution of sampling data increases, but it requires more performance from the router.

Question 207

Refer to the exhibit .

Which command must be configured for RESTCONF to operate on port 8888?

Options:

A.

ip http port 8888

B.

restconf port 8888

C.

ip http restconf port 8888

D.

restconf http port 8888

Question 208

What is one benefit of adopting a data modeling language?

Options:

A.

augmenting management process using vendor centric actions around models

B.

refactoring vendor and platform specific configurations with widely compatible configurations

C.

augmenting the use of management protocols like SNMP for status subscriptions

D.

deploying machine-friendly codes to manage a high number of devices

Question 209

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

ideal for data center

B.

complicated deployment

C.

ideal for client/end-user system

D.

referred to as bare-metal

Question 210

What is a TLOC in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

value that identifies a specific tunnel within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay

B.

identifier that represents a specific service offered by nodes within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay

C.

attribute that acts as a next hop for network prefixes

D.

component set by the administrator to differentiate similar nodes that offer a common service

Question 211

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 212

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left to the table types on the right.

Options:

Question 213

Which protocol is responsible for data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

VXLAN

B.

IS-IS

C.

OSPF

D.

LISP

Question 214

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow all users in the 10.2.2.0/24 subnet to access the Internet. To conserve address space the public Interface address of 209 165 201.1 must be usedfor all external communication. Which command set accomplishes these requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 215

What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?

Options:

A.

EIRP

B.

mW

C.

dBm

D.

dBi

Question 216

Refer to the exhibit. What is generated by the script?

Options:

A.

the cdp neighbors

B.

the routing table

C.

the router processes

D.

the running configuration

Question 217

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured an IP SLA for UDP echo’s. Which command is needed to start the IP SLA to test every 30 seconds and continue until stopped?

Options:

A.

ip sla schedule 100 start-time now life forever

B.

ip sla schedule 30 start-time now life forever

C.

ip sla schedule 100 start-time now life 30

D.

ip sla schedule 100 life forever

Question 218

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 14 use?

Options:

A.

04.16.19.09.4c.0e

B.

00:05:5e:19:0c:14

C.

00:05:0c:07:ac:14

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:0e

Question 219

What Is a characteristic of a WLC that is in master controller mode?

Options:

A.

All wireless LAN controllers are managed by the master controller.

B.

All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller.

C.

Configuration on the master controller is executed on all wireless LAN controllers.

D.

The master controller is responsible for load balancing all connecting clients to other controllers

Question 220

Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

Options:

A.

IKF

B.

TLS

C.

IPsec

D.

ESP

Question 221

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Options:

Question 222

Refer to the exhibit.

Object tracking has been configured for VRRP-enabled routers Edge-01 and Edge-02 Which commands cause Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 in the event that interface G0/0 goes down on Edge-01?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 223

What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?

Options:

A.

The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match.

B.

The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

C.

Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM.

D.

TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

Question 224

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment types on the right.

Options:

Question 225

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set must be applied on R1 to establish a BGP neighborship with R2 and to allow communication from R1 to reach the networks?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 226

An engineer is configuring Local WebAuth on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. According to RFC 5737, WHICH VIRTUAL IP address must be used in this configuration?

Options:

A.

192.0.2.1

B.

172.20.10.1

C.

1.1.1.1

D.

192.168.0.1

Question 227

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

Options:

A.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 gets 'logging directly to console'

B.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg 'log directly to console'

C.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 puts 'logging directly to console'

D.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 string 'logging directly to console'

Question 228

Which function does a fabric AP perform in a cisco SD-access deployment?

Options:

A.

It updates wireless clients' locations in the fabric

B.

It connects wireless clients to the fabric.

C.

It manages wireless clients' membership information in the fabric

D.

It configures security policies down to wireless clients in the fabric.

Question 229

Drag and drop the LIPS components on the left to the correct description on the right.

Options:

Question 230

Refer to the exhibit. Which EEM script generates a critical-level syslog message and saves a copy of the running configuration to the bootflash when an administrator saves the running configuration to the startup configuration?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 231

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer tries to log in to router R1. Which configuration enables a successful login?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 232

Refer to the exhibit. Which python code parses the response and prints “18:32:21.474 UTC sun Mar 10 2019?

Options:

A.

print(response['resut'][0||'simple_time']}

B.

print(response[result']['body']['simple_time']}

C.

print(response['body']['simple_time']}

D.

print(response[jresult']['body']['simple_time']}

Question 233

An engineer must configure an ACL that permits packets which include an ACK in the TCP header Which entry must be included in the ACL?

Options:

A.

access-list 10 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack

B.

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack

C.

access-list 10 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

D.

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

Question 234

Refer to the exhibit. What is achieved by this code?

Options:

A.

It unshuts the loopback interface

B.

It renames the loopback interface

C.

It deletes the loopback interface

D.

It displays the loopback interface

Question 235

What is one characteristic of the Cisco SD-Access control plane?

Options:

A.

It is based on VXLAN technology.

B.

Each router processes every possible destination and route

C.

It allows host mobility only in the wireless network.

D.

It stores remote routes in a centralized database server

Question 236

How do EIGRP metrics compare to OSPF metrics?

Options:

A.

EIGRP metrics are based on a combination of bandwidth and packet loss, and OSPF metrics are based on interface bandwidth.

B.

EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm, and OSPF uses The DUAL algorithm

C.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is undefined

D.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is 110

Question 237

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set must be added to permit and log all traffic that comes from 172.20.10.1 in interface GigabitEthernet0/1 without impacting the functionality of the access list?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 238

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is able to ping the R3 fa0/1 Interface. Why do the extended pings fail?

Options:

A.

The DF bit has been set

B.

The maximum packet size accepted by the command is 147G bytes

C.

R2 and R3 do not have an OSPF adjacency

D.

R3 is missing a return route to 10.99.69.0/30

Question 239

Which function does a fabric wireless LAN controller perform In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

manages fabric-enabled APs and forwards client registration and roaming information to the Control Plane Node

B.

coordinates configuration of autonomous nonfabric access points within the fabric

C.

performs the assurance engine role for both wired and wireless clients

D.

is dedicated to onboard clients in fabric-enabled and nonfabric-enabled APs within the fabric

Question 240

A network engineer is configuring OSPF on a router. The engineer wants to prevent having a route to 177.16.0.0/16 learned via OSPF. In the routing table and configures a prefix list using the command ip prefix-list OFFICE seq S deny 172.16.0.0/16. Winch two identical configuration commands must be applied to accomplish the goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

distribute-list prefix OFFICE in under the OSPF process

B.

Ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 Ie 32

C.

ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 ge 32

D.

distribute-list OFFICE out under the OSPF process

E.

distribute-list OFFICE in under the OSPF process

Question 241

In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?

Options:

A.

NSF/NSR

B.

SSO

C.

HSRP

D.

VRRP

Question 242

Drag and drop the LISP components on the left to their descriptions on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 243

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of the API request?

Options:

A.

The "params" variable sends data fields to the network appliance.

B.

The native interface information is read from the network appliance.

C.

The Information for all interfaces is read from the network appliance.

D.

The "params" variable reads data fields from the network appliance

Question 244

Which definition describes JWT in regard to REST API security?

Options:

A.

an encrypted JSON token that is used for authentication

B.

an encrypted JSON token that is used for authorization

C.

an encoded JSON token that is used to securely exchange information

D.

an encoded JSON token that is used for authentication

Question 245

Which option must be used to support a WLC with an IPv6 management address and 100 Cisco Aironet 2800 Series access points that will use DHCP to register?

Options:

A.

43

B.

52

C.

60

D.

82

Page: 1 / 61
Total 983 questions