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CIMA F1 Dumps

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Total 248 questions

Financial Reporting Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which THREE of the following statements are true?

Options:

A.

Tax depreciation replaces accounting depreciation when calculating the taxable profit.

B.

Tax depreciation increases the taxable profit.

C.

Balancing allowances increase the taxable profit.

D.

Balancing charges increase the taxable profit.

E.

Balancing charges reduce the taxable profit.

F.

Balancing allowances reduce the taxable profit.

Question 2

Which THREE of the following matters should an entity consider when determining the credit terms granted to a customer?

Options:

A.

Typical credit terms operating within the industry

B.

Risk of non-payment

C.

Selling price of the goods being sold to the customer

D.

Bargaining power of the customer

E.

Number of suppliers

F.

Discount offered by suppliers for early payment

Question 3

In accordance with IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements, which of the following will be shown in the statement of changes in equity?

Options:

A.

Proceeds from share issue, dividends received and profit for the period.

B.

Proceeds from share issue, other income and profit for the period.

C.

Proceeds from share issue, dividends paid and revaluation surplus.

D.

Other income, dividends paid and revaluation surplus.

Question 4

Which of the following does the phrase 'events after the reporting period' refer to?

Options:

A.

Material events which occur between the statement of financial position date and the date on which the financial statements are approved

B.

Material events which occur after the release of the statement of financial position

C.

Material events which occur before the statement of financial position date

D.

Material events which occur between the income statement date and the statement of financial position date

Question 5

KL has S90.000 of plant and machinery which was acquired on 1 June 20X4. Tax depreciation rates on plant and machinery are 20% reducing balance. All plant and machinery was sold for 560,000 on 1 June 20X6

Calculate the tax balancing allowance or charge on disposal tor the year ended 31 May 20X7 and state the effect on the taxable profit.

Options:

A.

A balancing allowance of $2,400 reduces taxable profit.

B.

A balancing charge of $2,400 reduces taxable profit.

C.

A balancing charge of $2,400 increases taxable profit.

D.

A balancing allowance of $2,400 increases taxable profit.

Question 6

The following data has been extracted from GH's accounting records:

What is GH's average inventory days for the year ended 31 March 20X3?

Options:

A.

39 days

B.

43 days

C.

25 days

D.

28 days

Question 7

While conducting their audit, auditor 0 did not encounter issues which significantly limited the scope of their audit, however they did run into problems in that they disagreed with the management on facts in the

statements.

These disagreements were somewhat material, but they did not affect the auditor's overall opinion of the business. Which of the following statements should auditor 0 issue?

Options:

A.

Emphasis of matter

B.

Unqualified report

C.

'Except for' qualification

D.

Adverse audit opinion

E.

Disclaimer of opinion

Question 8

Which of the following is a characteristic of a defined contribution post-employment benefit scheme?

Options:

A.

The amount of the post-employment benefits paid to former employees depends on how well the scheme's investments have performed.

B.

The employer would make additional contributions into the scheme if the actuary predicted a shortfall in the funds available to pay post-employment benefits.

C.

The amount of the post-employment benefits paid to former employees is determined at the date of their retirement using a predefined formula.

D.

The employer may take a contributions holiday and stop paying contributions for a period, if the scheme's assets appear to be more than are required to meet the scheme's obligations.

Question 9

Country X levies corporate income tax at a rate of 25% and charges income tax on all profits irrespective of whether they are distributed by way of dividend. Country Y levies corporate income tax at a rate of 20%.

A, who is resident in Country X, pays a divided to B, who is resident in Country Y. B is required to pay corporate income tax on the dividend received from A, but a deduction can be made for the tax suffered on this dividend restricted to a rate of 20%.

Which method of relief for foreign tax does this describe?

Options:

A.

Exemption

B.

Deduction

C.

Tax credit

D.

Restricted

Question 10

AB sells to ST, a group entity, 10,000 units at $2.50 each. The market value was $6 each.

The effect on AB of the transfer pricing legislation on this transaction would be to: .

Options:

Question 11

Which THREE of the following statements about government grants are INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

A grant is recognised as revenue

B.

Grants must not be deducted from the related expenses in financial statements

C.

Capital grants relate to cash inflow and outflow

D.

A compensatory grant should be recognised in statements when it is received, not when the expenses it applies to occurred

E.

A grant is recognised only when there is reasonable assurance that the entity will comply with any conditions attached to the grant

Question 12

Entity T operates within several countries, but its country of residence is Country F. In 20X5, Entity T made $8.4 million in Country M. Country M has a flat rate corporation tax of 5.9%.

Country F and Country M operate a double taxation treaty which uses a foreign tax credit system. In Country F, there is a tax of 10% tax on all foreign income.

Taking into account the credit, what is the total tax liability that Entity T owes on its Country M income, in Country F?

Options:

A.

$344,400

B.

$495,600

C.

$840,000

D.

$450,000

Question 13

Which THREE of the following must an auditor consider in order to form an opinion on the truth and fairness of an entity's financial statements?

Options:

A.

Whether the entity has kept proper accounting records.

B.

Whether the entity has complied with the relevant legislator requirements in respect of the necessary disclosures.

C.

Whether all the information and explanations necessary for the purposes of the audit have been received.

D.

Whether every transaction that underpins the financial statements has been correctly recorded.

E.

Whether the entity has been exposed to any fraud.

Question 14

Which of the following would be classified as a parent and subsidiary relationship in accordance with IFRS 10 Consolidated Financial Statements?

Options:

A.

Entity A owns 30% of another entity's equity shares and has the power to appoint or remove the majority of the members of the board of directors and control of the entity is through that board.

B.

Entity B owns 20% of another entity's equity shares and has an agreement with other equity shareholders of that entity that gives it power over a further 20% of the equity voting rights.

C.

Entity C owns 45% of another entity's equity shares and can exercise significant influence over that entity's financial and operating policy decisions.

D.

Entity D owns 25% of another entity's equity shares and associated voting rights and 100% of its preference shares.

Question 15

The following information is extracted from the trial balance of YY at 30 September 20X3.

i. Included in revenue is a refundable deposit of $20 million for a sales transaction that is due to take place on 14 October 20X3.

ii. The cost of closing inventory is $28 million, however, the net realisable value is estimated at $25 million.

iii. The interest free loan was obtained on 1 January 20X3. The loan is repayable in 12 quarterly installments starting on 31 March 20X3. All installments to date have been paid on time.

Calculate the cost of sales that would be shown in YY's statement of profit or loss for the year ended 30 September 20X3.

Give your answer to the nearest $ million.

Options:

Question 16

An asset cost $250,000 on 1 January 20X1 and on that date was assessed to have a residual value of $40,000 and a useful economic life of six years. On 1 January 20X4 management assessed that the remaining useful economic life of the asset was five years and that the asset had a residual value of nil.

What is the depreciation charge for this asset in the year ended 31 December 20X4?

Give your answer to the nearest whole number.

Options:

Question 17

A conservative policy for financing working capital is one where short-term finance is used to fund:

Options:

A.

All of the fluctuating current assets and part of the permanent current assets.

B.

Part of the fluctuating current assets, but no part of the permanent current assets.

C.

All of the fluctuating current assets, but no part of the permanent current assets.

D.

Part of the fluctuating current assets and part of the permanent current assets.

Question 18

The subsidiary company of Group XY has purchased £150,00 worth of goods its parent company. However the goods purchased have yet to arrive at the subsidiary at the end of the financial year 20X4, meaning there is

a disagreement in the current account balances between the parent and subsidiary.

With Group XY looking to produce its CSOFP for the end of the financial year, which of the following statements are true in relation to accounting for this disagreement? Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

The adjustments to resolve this disagreement, need to be accelerated, so they can be included in the consolidation of assets for the CSOFP for 20X4

B.

£150,000 worth of inventory will be debited into the subsidiary's inventory account

C.

As the goods have not reached the subsidiary by the end of the financial year 20X4, they will be included in the CSOFPfor the next financial year

D.

£150,000 worth of inventory will be credited into the subsidiary's inventory account

E.

£150,000 will be debited to the payables account of the parent company

F.

£150,000 will be credited to the payables account of the subsidiary company

G.

£150,000 will be credited into the receivables account of the parent company

Question 19

UK purchased an asset, with a useful economic life of 10 years, on 1 January 20X5 for $40,000. The asset was revalued on 31 December 20X6 to 544,000 and the directors believed its total useful economic life remained unchanged On 31 December 20X7 UK sells the asset for $50,000

How much will be recorded as a profit on disposal of the asset in UK's statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X7?

Give your answer to the nearest $.

Options:

Question 20

Which of the following is correct?

The primary purpose of a cash budget prepared on a monthly basis is to determine:

Options:

A.

next month's sales volumes.

B.

the amount of inventory to purchase in the following month.

C.

when to pay employees salaries.

D.

whether there will be sufficient cash in the bank to meet requirements.

Question 21

To apply the fundamental principles of the Code of Ethics, existing and potential threats to the entity first need to be identified and evaluated.

Which THREE of the following are identified in the Code as threats?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality threat

B.

Self-interest threats

C.

Self-review threats

D.

Familiarity threats

E.

Integrity threats

F.

Objectivity threats

Question 22

An entity has an inventory holding period of 52 days.

This means that the inventory:

Options:

A.

takes 52 days to arrive after it has been ordered.

B.

stays in the entity's warehouse for an average of 52 days before it is sold.

C.

takes 52 days to manufacture.

D.

takes 52 days to be paid for.

Question 23

In which of the following concepts is profit an increase in the nominal value of capital over a period?

Options:

A.

Inflationary capital maintenance

B.

financial capital maintenance

C.

Operating capital maintenance

D.

Physical capital maintenance

Question 24

Which TWO of the following would improve a company's short term cash flow position?

Options:

A.

Postponing non essential capital expenditure

B.

Increasing the working capital cycle by making payments to suppliers early

C.

Taking advantage of bulk discounts offered on inventory purchases

D.

Reducing levels of inventory by implementing a just in time system for purchasing

E.

Paying a bonus to staff for exceptional performance

Question 25

Which of the following methods could be used by a tax authority to reduce tax evasion and avoidance?

Options:

A.

Increase tax rates to compensate for losses due to evasion.

B.

Reduce penalties for avoidance.

C.

Reduce requirements to have tax returns audited.

D.

Simplify the tax structure, minimizing allowances and exemptions.

Question 26

Options:

Question 27

RS purchased an asset on 1 May 20X1 for $200,000, exclusive of import duties of $25,000.

The asset was sold on 1 December 20X3 for $450,000, incurring costs to sell of $15,000.

RS is resident in Country Y where indexation is allowable from the date of purchase to the date of sale.

The indexation factor increased by 40% in the period 1 May 20X1 to 1 December 20X3.

Capital gains are taxed at 25%.

What is the capital tax due from RS on disposal of the asset?

Options:

A.

$120,000

B.

$38,750

C.

$30,000

D.

$28,500

Question 28

Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of the term 'factoring'?

Options:

A.

Where a business sells its accounts receivable to a third party at a discount

B.

Where a business borrows a loan with short-term conditions from a third party

C.

Where a business sells equity to third parties to gain short-term finance

D.

Where a business is provided with a highly flexible regular source of short-term finance by a bank

Question 29

The following information relates to ABC.

Which of the following would be a reason for the movement in the trade receivable days?

Options:

A.

A new credit controller was appointed during the year ended 30 June 20X3 who has been chasing customers for payment.

B.

A system of early settlement discount was introduced during the year ended 30 June 20X3 which was taken up by quite a few customers.

C.

One customer who regularly took 120 days to pay their invoices stopped buying goods from ABC during the year ended 30 June 20X3.

D.

It was decided during the year ended 30 June 20X3 to stop undertaking credit checks on new customers.

Question 30

Identify which of the following are powers that a government would typically grant it's tax authority by placing the appropriate response beside each power.

Options:

Question 31

Country X levies a duty on alcoholic drinks. Where the alcohol content is above 40% by volume the duty levied is $5 per 1 litre bottle.

What type of tax is this duty?

Options:

A.

Specific unit tax

B.

Ad valorem tax

C.

Direct tax

D.

Single-stage sales tax

Question 32

Which TWO of the following are features of a bank overdraft?

Options:

A.

A fixed amount of interest is determined for the period of the overdraft

B.

Repayments are scheduled in advance

C.

The amount off overdraft utilised will fluctuate according to the needs off the borrowing entity.

D.

The bank cannot demand repayment of the overdraft before the end of the agreed period.

E.

Interest is charged on the balance outstanding.

Question 33

Statements of financial position as at 31 December 20X8 for JK, LM and PQ are as follows:

[1] JK purchased 80% of LM's $1 equity shares on 1 January 20X8 for $260,000 when the retained earnings of JK were $110,000. At that date the non-controlling interest had a fair value of $63,000.

[2] JK purchased 25% of PQ's $1 equity shares on 1 January 20X8 for $90,000 when the retained earnings of PQ were $96,000.

[3] During the year JK sold goods to LM for $32,000 at a mark up of 33.33% on cost. Half of the goods were still in LM's inventory at 31 December 20X8.

[4] LM transferred $32,000 to JK on 30 December 20X8 in settlement of the inter-group trade. JK did not record the cash in its financial records until 2 January 20X9.

Calculate the value of inventory that would be included in JK's consolidated statement of financial position at 31 December 20X8.

Give your answer to the nearest $.

Options:

Question 34

An entity has a working capital cycle of 120 days which has been calculated in part from the following data:

What is the stock holding period on the basis of 365 days in a year?

Give your answer to the nearest whole day.

Options:

Question 35

BCD owns an item of plant which cost $20,000 and at the time of purchase was assessed to have a useful economic life of 8 years and a residual value of $2,000

The carrying amount of the plant at 1 January 20X8 is $11,000. On that date BCD's directors estimate that the plant's remaining useful life is now 6 years The residual value remains unchanged at $2,000

What is the depreciation charge for this plant for the year ended 31 December 20X8?

Give your answer to the nearest $.

Options:

Question 36

For an incorporated business, the taxation of trading income is a form of direct taxation which is based on:

Options:

A.

business profits where the tax is paid by the shareholders to the tax authorities.

B.

dividends paid to shareholders where the tax is paid by the business to the tax authorities.

C.

dividends paid to shareholders where the tax is paid by the shareholders to the tax authorities.

D.

business profits where the tax is paid by the business to the tax authorities.

Question 37

In accordance with the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting, which of the following describes the historical cost measurement basis for an asset?

Options:

A.

The amount paid when the asset was purchased.

B.

The present value of future cash flows generated from the asset.

C.

The cost to acquire an equivalent asset at the measurement date.

D.

The amount that would be received on the sale of the asset.

Question 38

Which THREE of the following are included in the International Accounting Standards Board's "The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting"?

Options:

A.

The objective of financial statements

B.

Specification of the financial statements that must be presented

C.

Qualitative characteristics of financial statements

D.

Definition of the headings to use in financial statements

E.

The elements of financial statements

F.

The formats of financial statements

Question 39

What does the exemption method of giving double taxation relief mean?

Options:

A.

The countries agree that all types of income will be exempt or partially exempt in one country or the other.

B.

The countries agree on certain types of income which will be exempt or partially exempt in one country or the other.

C.

The countries agree on certain types of income which will be exempt or partially exempt in both countries.

D.

The countries agree that all types of income will be exempt or partially exempt in both countries.

Question 40

DE purchased an asset on 1 January 20X1 for $60,000 with a useful economic life of six years and a residual value of $3,000.

DE uses straight line depreciation for this asset.

On 31 December 20X3 the asset has a value in use of $ $28,000 and a fair value of $26,000.

Which of the following values should be used for the asset in DE's statement of financial position as at 31 December 20X3?

Options:

A.

$28,000

B.

$26,000

C.

$30,000

D.

$31,500

Question 41

An entity's inventory days are 45 days.

An entity ceased to manufacture a product in 20X4. Raw materials used solely in the manufacture of that product are still held in inventory at 31 December 20X4.

Place the appropriate response below to show how inventory days will be affected if this raw material inventory is written off as obsolete.

Options:

Question 42

OP holds an investment property purchased on 1 January 20X3 for $700,000 with a useful economic life of 25 years.

At 31 December 20X5 the fair value of the investment property was $750,000 with a revised useful economic life of 25 years from that date.

OP has been carrying the investment property using the cost model until 31 December 20X5.

The directors wish to change their valuation method to fair value in accordance with IAS 40 Investment Property.

Which of the following is the correct treatment of the revaluation gain and the value of the property in the statement of financial position at 31 December 20X5?

Options:

A.

A gain of $134,000 taken to the statement of profit or loss and $750,000 shown on the statement of financial position.

B.

A gain of $106,000 taken to the statement of profit or loss and $720,000 shown on the statement of financial position.

C.

A gain of $134,000 taken to other comprehensive income and $750,000 is shown on the statement of financial position.

D.

A gain of $106,000 taken to other comprehensive income and $720,000 is shown on the statement of financial position.

Question 43

An entity opens a new factory and receives a government grant of $25,000 towards the cost of new plant and equipment. This new plant and equipment originally costs $100,000.

The entity uses the net cost method allowed by IAS 20 Accounting for Government Grants and Disclosure of Government Assistance to record government grants of this nature. All plant and equipment is depreciated at 20% a year on a straight line basis.

Calculate the amount of depreciation to be included for this plant and equipment in the statement of profit of loss for the factory's first year of operation.

Give your answer to the nearest whole $.

Options:

Question 44

The following information relates to AA.

Extract of Trial Balance at 31 December 20X4;

Notes

(i) Inventory at 31 December 20X4 was valued at cost at $30.

(ii) The loan which was received on 1 July 20X4 is repayable in 20X9.

(iii) Corporate income tax represents an over-provision of tax for the year ended 31 December 20X3. AA reported a loss for tax purposes for the year ended 31 December 20X4 and a tax refund is expected amounting to $20.

(iv) Cost of sales, administration and distribution costs need to be adjusted for the following:

What figures should be entered in the Statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended 31 December 20X4 in relation to Administration and Distribution costs?

Options:

A.

Adminsitration $136 Distribution $120

B.

Administration $120 Distribution $87

C.

Administration $141 Distribution $117

D.

Administration $146 Distribution $114

Question 45

Which of the following would NOT be a source of taxation rules for a country?

Options:

A.

Double tax treaties

B.

Directives from international bodies

C.

International accounting standards

D.

Precedents based on previous legislation

Question 46

Below are extracts from LLL's financial statements for the year ended 31 December 20X2.

Depreciation of $25,000 was charged on properly, plant and equipment in the year and there were no disposals

What is the cash generated from operations for inclusion in LLL's statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 December 20X2?

Options:

A.

$355 000

B.

$390,000

C.

$415,000

D.

$435,000

Question 47

On 1 January 20X2 an entity began work on constructing a factory. It purchased the land for $14 million, built the factory buildings for $11 million and installed plant and equipment for $7 million. The project was completed on 31 December 20X3 when the factory was deemed ready to use, however, the factory did not start operations until 1 June 20X4.

To fund the project the entity borrowed $25 million on 1 January 20X2, with interest at 10% per year.

The loan was repaid in full on 31 December 20X4.

Calculate the total amount to be added to the cost of property, plant and equipment in respect of the above development.

Give your answer to the nearest $ million.

Options:

Question 48

Which THREE of the following are part of the International Accounting Standards Committee (IASC) Foundation structure?

Options:

A.

International Accounting Standards Board

B.

Standards Advisory Council

C.

International Financial Reporting Interpretations Committee

D.

International Organisation of Securities Commission

E.

Standards Application Council

F.

International Financial Reporting Evaluations Committee

Question 49

Statements of financial position for YZ, BC and DE at 31 March 20X2 include the following balances:

YZ purchased 90% of BC's equity shares for $508,000 on 1 January 20X2. On 1 January 20X2 BC's retained earnings were $183,000. YZ uses the proportion of net assets method to value non-controlling interest at acquisition.

YZ purchased 30% of DE's equity shares on 1 April 20X1 for $112,000. DE's retained earnings at 1 April 20X1 were $88,000.

On 1 February 20X2 YZ sold goods to BC for $28,000 at a mark up of 25% on cost. All the goods were still in BC's inventory at 31 March 20X2.

Calculate the amount of the non-controlling interest to be included in YZ's consolidated statement of financial position at 31 March 20X2.

Give your answer to the nearest whole $.

Options:

Question 50

Country A permits the following deductions in an entity's annual corporate income tax return in relation to entertaining expenses and gifts;

1 Employee entertaining up to a value of $150 a head

2 Entertaining of overseas customers.

3 Individual gifts not to exceed $10 in value

Which THREE of the following actions would be regarded as tax evasion?

Options:

A.

Delay the next entertainment event for staff until the next financial year so that the $150 limit is not breached.

B.

Inflate the number of employees that are recorded as being entertained so that the overall employee entertainment bill falls below $150 a head.

C.

Split any gifts made so that any gift does not exceed $10 on an individual basis.

D.

Ensure that employees reimburse their employers for any entertaining incurred which exceeds the $150 a head limit

E.

Record customers who do not meet the overseas criteria as overseas customers.

F.

Deduct all entertaining expenses without any analysis of what the entertaining relates to.

Question 51

Which TWO of the following are implications of employee income tax being paid to the tax authority through a Pay-As-You-Earn scheme?

Options:

A.

The government can budget its cash flows more easily.

B.

The risk of employees defaulting on the payment of tax due is reduced

C.

The tax authority deals directly with the employees rather than the employers.

D.

The tax is paid after the employee completes a tax return.

E.

Most of the administrative costs of collecting the tax are borne by the tax authority

Question 52

An entity bought a capital item for $110,000 on 1 March 20X4 incurring legal fees at the date of purchase of $2,500.

On 1 May 20X4 additional costs classified as capital expenditure by the tax rules of the country of $25,000 were incurred in respect of the asset. On 1 June 20X4 repairs not classified as capital expenditure were incurred at a cost of $15,000.

The asset was sold for $250,000 on 30 November 20X8 and costs to sell were incurred of $4,300.

Calculate the chargeable gain on the disposal.

Give your answer to the nearest $.

Options:

Question 53

Country Q has the following rules in respect of capital tax on the disposal of assets:

*Capital gains are subject to tax at 25%.

*Capital losses can only be carried forward and offset against future capital gains.

The following data relates to ABC:

How much capital tax will be payable on the capital gain recorded in 20X3?

Give your answer to the nearest $.

Options:

Question 54

Which of the following would be the most immediate impact of overtrading?

Options:

A.

An inability to pay trade payables.

B.

Having to offer bulk discounts to customers.

C.

An inability to pay dividends to shareholders.

D.

A shortage of inventory

Question 55

In accordance with The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting, faithful representation is a fundamental qualitative characteristic.

To be a faithful representation financial information must be as far as possible which THREE of the following?

Options:

A.

Timely

B.

Understandable

C.

Free from error

D.

Complete

E.

Comparable

F.

Neutral

Question 56

Corporate governance is the means by which an entity is operated and

Options:

Question 57

BC manufactures product X and on 1 February 20X4 started a project to develop a new material for use in its production. The development project is due to be completed by 31 December 20X4 with the new material being used in production from 1 January 20X5. The development project costs have been reliably estimated at $200,000 and it is anticipated that the new material will increase the margin achieved on product X by 20%.

You are a CIMA accountant within BC and are considering how to treat the development costs of $200,000 in the financial statements for the year ended 31 December 20X4.

In accordance with the ethical principle of professional competence and due care, which of the following statements correctly explains how these costs should be accounted for?

Options:

A.

Expense to profit or loss because the development project will be completed by the end of the year.

B.

Expense to profit or loss because the development has not changed the nature of product X.

C.

Capitalise and amortise from 1 February 20X4 because this is the date that the project commenced.

D.

Capitalise but do not amortise until 1 January 20X5 because this is the date that the new material will start to be used.

Question 58

On 1 May 20X8 DEF enters into a contract to lease plant with a fair value of $200,000. Annual lease payments of $50,000 are to be paid in advance and DEF incurred direct costs to arrange the lease of S2.000 The present value of future lease payments at 1 May 20X8 is $190,000.

What is the amount to be recognised as a right-of-use asset on 1 May 20X8?

Options:

A.

$192 000

B.

$200,000

C.

$240,000

D.

$242000

Question 59

From the list below identify the item that appears in the statement of financial position.

Options:

A.

The amount of interest charged on loans during the year.

B.

The amount of loans outstanding at the year end.

C.

The amount of loans repaid during the year.

D.

The amount of interest actually paid during the year.

Question 60

The United Kingdom (UK) uses a principle based approach to corporate governance which means:

Options:

Question 61

EF purchased an asset on 1 September 20X4 for $800,000, exclusive of import duties of $30,000. EF is resident in country Y where indexation is allowed on purchase costs when the asset is disposed of.

EF sold the asset on 31 August 20X9 for $1,500,000 incurring transaction charges of $20,000. The indexation factor increased by 40% in the period from 1 September 20X4 to 31 August 20X9.

Capital gains are taxed at 30%.

What is the tax due on disposal of the asset?

Options:

A.

$108,000

B.

$101,400

C.

$102,600

D.

$95,400

Question 62

When calculating the gam chargeable to tax on the disposal of a building, which of the following would NOT be an allowable deduction?

Options:

A.

Interest on a loan that was used to assist with its original purchase.

B.

Costs of constructing an extension to the building.

C.

Legal fees arising on the original purchase of the building.

D.

Estate agent's fee payable on its sale.

Question 63

You work in the finance department of an entity. A director has approached you and asked you to falsify sales invoices which would significantly inflate revenue. The CIMA Code of Ethics suggests that you should deal with such an ethical dilemma by following a number of stages.

Place each of the stages identified below into chronological order.

Options:

Question 64

The legislation in Country S provides for an indexation allowance in the calculation of capital tax. STU operates in Country S where the indexation factor for the period 1 January 20X1 to 31 December 20X6 is 20%

STU purchased a building for $64,000 on 1 January 20X1, incurring legal fees of $4,000. STU sold the building for $86,000 on 31 December 20X6 before selling fees of $3,500

What is the chargeable capital gam arising on STU's disposal of the building?

Options:

A.

S11,600

B.

$5,700

C.

S900

D.

$200

Question 65

ABC uses an aggressive approach to managing its working capital. XYZ uses a conservative approach to managing its working capital.

Which of the following is ABC more at risk of compared to XYZ?

Options:

A.

Inventory obsolescence

B.

Running out of cash

C.

High finance costs

D.

Receivables not paying on time

Question 66

RST operates in Country X where the tax rules state entertaining costs and accounting depreciation are disallowable for tax purposes.

In year ending 31 May 20X4, XYZ made an accounting profit of $480,000.

Profit included $16,300 of entertaining costs and $15,150 of income exempt from taxation.

XYZ has plant and machinery with accounting depreciation amounting to $24,200 and tax depreciation amounting to $45,200.

Calculate the tax charge for the year ended 31 May 20X4 assuming all profits are taxed at 25%.

Options:

A.

$115,038

B.

$114,463

C.

$125,538

D.

$124,963

Question 67

At 31 December 20X4 the directors of MNO decide to revalue its property. Before revaluation adjustments the balances relating to property are as follows:

The property has been revalued at $1,600,000.

How much will be included within MNO's statement of financial position at 31 December 20X4 for revaluation surplus?

Options:

A.

$400,000

B.

$1,190,000

C.

$1,600,000

D.

$810,000

Question 68

Which of the following would NOT be a risk or impact of overtrading?

Options:

A.

Increase in interest payments

B.

Increased borrowings

C.

Shortage of working capital

D.

Expanding too quickly

Question 69

Which of the following is not a possible tax rate structure?

Options:

A.

Progressive

B.

Proportional

C.

Direct

D.

Regressive

Question 70

Options:

Question 71

The statement of profit or loss for PQ, ST and AB for the year ended 31 December 20X0 are shown below:

1. PQ acquired 80% of its subsidiary, ST, on 1 January 20X0 and 40% of its associate, AB, on 1 September 20X0.

2. Since acquistion PQ has sold goods to ST and AB for $20,000 and $30,000 respectively. At the year end both ST and AB have 50% of these goods remaining in inventory. PQ uses a mark-up of 20% on all of its sales.

3. Since acquisition the goodwill in respect of ST has been impaired by $8,000 and the investment in AB has been impaired by $2,000.

4. PQ uses the fair value method for non-controlling interest at acquisition.

What is the revenue figure to be included in PQ's consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X0?

Options:

A.

$450,000

B.

$440,000

C.

$480,000

D.

$476,000

Question 72

EF is a large manufacturing entity with several of its manufacturing sites in different locations. Currently all of the sites have a local procurement department. EF's board are looking to implement a centralized purchasing system.

Match the tokens according to whether you believe each statement is either an advantage or disadvantage of implementing a centralized purchasing system for EF.

Options:

Question 73

Country ZZ allows the cost of a capital asset to be adjusted for an indexation allowance which takes into consideration the effect of inflation, although the indexation allowance cannot convert a chargeable gain into a chargeable loss.

The following data relates to the sale of an asset ABC has the following working capital ratios at 31 December 20X2:

Dunng the year ended 31 December 20X4 credit purchases wefe $1,700,000 and at 31 December 20X4 the outstanding trade payables balance was $340,000

Calculate the working capital cycle for ABC.

Give your answer to the nearest whole number of days and assume there are 365 days in a year. March 20X4:

Calculate the chargeable gain or loss in respect of the sale of this asset.

Give your answer to the nearest $.

Options:

Question 74

Why are excise duties an attractive method of raising tax for governments?

Select TWO that apply.

Options:

A.

Low cost of collection compared to other forms of taxation.

B.

High yields from the tax.

C.

Encourages consumption of products such as alcohol.

D.

Popular form of tax for the tax payer as it can be reclaimed.

E.

Ensures that the tax levied on all taxpayers is the same irrespective of their spending habits.

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Total 248 questions