Weekend Sale 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: save70

Free and Premium PRINCE2 PRINCE2-Agile-Foundation Dumps Questions Answers

PRINCE2 Agile Foundation (Version 2) Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which two statements about tailoring the business case in an agile environment are CORRECT?

1. It should be unnecessary because products of the highest value will be delivered first.

2. It should identify the minimum viable product and when it will be delivered.

3. It should take into account that the scope may be reduced during the course of the project.

4. It should show the features, the order in which they will be delivered and any dependencies.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Buy Now
Question 2

How does PRINCE2 Agile describe Scrum?

Options:

A.

Scrum is an IT method

B.

Scrum is agile and agile is Scrum

C.

Scrum is the most well-known agile framework

D.

Scrum is a project management framework

Question 3

Which of the following levels of psychological safety encourages sharing ideas and skills openly?

Options:

A.

Challenger safety

B.

Contributor safety

C.

Inclusion safety

D.

Learner safety

Question 4

Which of the following is a common challenge when merging project management and Agile?

Options:

A.

Lack of clear processes

B.

The use of different terminology

C.

Lack of guidance at project level

D.

The use of a flexible framework

Question 5

How is the ‘learn from experience’ principle applied in an agile context?

Options:

A.

By ensuring control through lots of short stages during innovative projects

B.

By using the Agilometer to assess risks associated with the agile way of working

C.

By continual customer involvement to obtain feedback during the project

D.

By prioritizing quality criteria to focus the project on the delivery of value

Question 6

Which is a purpose of the plans theme?

Options:

A.

To identify any deviations from the project’s objectives

B.

To control any approved changes to the baseline

C.

To monitor actual achievements against those planned

D.

To communicate the approach for delivering products

Question 7

Which TWO statements about the supplier subject matter expert are CORRECT?

1) They provide a wider picture of the customer view.

2) They prioritize requirements at the detailed level.

3) They should be focused on the customer.

4) They ensure that the work is compliant with project standards.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 8

Which statement about the waterfall methodology definition is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It states that deadlines should not be moved

B.

It has distinct goals for each stage of development

C.

It is a behavior that involves making things transparent

D.

It promotes the use of experiments carried out in a scientific way

Question 9

Which workshop is used to assess the project’s status and address any challenges?

Options:

A.

Team planning workshop

B.

Project retrospective workshop

C.

Team retrospective workshop

D.

Progress review workshop

Question 10

What is the definition of a timebox?

Options:

A.

A tool to write a requirement in the form of who, what and why

B.

A regular event that looks at how processes can be improved

C.

A description of the rate of progress a team is making

D.

A period where work is carried out to achieve a goal

Question 11

Which is a collaborative technique for defining decision-making within teams?

Options:

A.

Delegation poker

B.

Team skills matrix

C.

Personas

D.

Magic estimation

Question 12

Which statement about the ‘directing a project’ process is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The project board should attend regular project progress meetings

B.

The project board should make decisions based on the Agilometer risks

C.

A project board member should fulfill the product owner role within a delivery team

D.

The project board should increase the stage-level time tolerance

Question 13

Which statement about the ‘protect the level of quality’ target is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It is achieved by ensuring that all features are delivered

B.

It is unlikely to be achieved if incomplete user documentation is provided

C.

It allows change at the detailed level to be handled dynamically

D.

It avoids the use of extra people to improve progress during a timebox

Question 14

Which statement describes how the “risk” practice should be applied?

Options:

A.

Agile adoption issues should be identified by using the Agilometer

B.

Trading should be used to handle emerging changes

C.

An objectives and key results framework should be used

D.

A set of criteria in the Definition of Done should be identified

Question 15

How should team working agreements be created?

Options:

A.

By the supplier subject matter expert agreeing what should be included

B.

By the customer representative deciding what should be included

C.

By team members agreeing on what should be included

D.

By the project manager deciding what should be included

Question 16

Which of the following is a benefit of an organization being and doing agile?

Options:

A.

Faster time-to-market

B.

Using agile techniques

C.

Focusing on completing tasks

D.

Setting all tolerances to zero

Question 17

Which statement describes the Kanban approach?

Options:

A.

It is used to make system improvements using visualization and by controlling work in progress

B.

It is an iterative timeboxed approach that helps teams generate value

C.

It was originally focused in creating new companies and is now used to speed up product delivery

D.

It has defined processes, products and roles used to iteratively deliver outputs using timeboxing

Question 18

Which TWO project board responsibilities are specifically assigned to the senior user?

1) Demonstrating the achievement of benefits.

2) Specifying the needs of those impacted by the outputs.

3) Balancing business, user and supplier demands.

4) Ensuring that the project delivers value for money.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 19

Which is NOT one of the core concepts of Lean Startup that apply to PRINCE2?

Options:

A.

To use empiricism, based on knowledge that comes from experience

B.

To build, measure, learn from your experiences

C.

To create a minimum viable product to manage uncertainty

D.

To fail fast, if you are going to fail

Question 20

What is a purpose of the 'project closure' workshop?

Options:

A.

Align teams with project vision

B.

Create benefits management approach

C.

Update the project documentation

D.

Refine the release map for the next stage

Question 21

Which statement BEST describes the PRINCE2 Agile guidance for change?

Options:

A.

The delivery team should be authorized to make changes at the detailed level

B.

The delivery team should quickly approve changes to the project baseline

C.

The executive should manage changes dynamically at the detailed level

D.

The executive should approve delivery level changes to harness the benefits of positive change

Question 22

Which statement about the ‘embrace change’ target is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It minimizes the time needed to train a new team member

B.

It reduces the planning of dependencies between projects

C.

It reduces testing in order to meet deadlines

D.

It encourages the customer to raise new ideas

Question 23

Which of the following describes co-creation?

Options:

A.

Motivating people to make sure they meet objectives

B.

Agreeing ways of working to ensure they are adopted

C.

Shared attitudes, values, and goals

D.

Instructing the execution of tasks

Question 24

Which is the BEST method of communication to gather feedback?

Options:

A.

Receiving emailed diagrams to encourage discussion

B.

Conducting online surveys to obtain a range of opinions

C.

Meeting face-to-face to encourage an exchange of views

D.

Discussing over the telephone to gather feedback quickly from stakeholders

Question 25

Which organizational level is responsible for day-to-day management and decision making within the constraints established by the project manager?

Options:

A.

Commissioning

B.

Directing

C.

Managing

D.

Delivering

Question 26

Which statement about the ‘keep teams stable’ target is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It applies primarily to the long term, such as a project or a program

B.

It is the primary reason why the tolerance for cost is set to zero

C.

It prevents compromising the overall quality level of the product

D.

It results in the early delivery of a minimum viable product

Question 27

How is the ‘tailor to suit the project’ principle applied in an agile context?

Options:

A.

By flexing what is produced to stay in control and deliver value

B.

By emphasizing tolerances on what is being delivered

C.

By using the Agilometer to assess the project environment

D.

By fitting releases into planned management stages

Question 28

How should a minor quality control failure during the creation of a product be addressed initially?

Options:

A.

By escalating the issue to the project manager

B.

By performing an independent review of the product

C.

By revisiting the development and test activities

D.

By discussing with the chief product owner

Question 29

Which technique is used in the ’Issues' practice?

Options:

A.

Trading/swapping

B.

Objectives and key results

C.

Refactoring

D.

Delegation poker

Question 30

Which workshop focuses on team growth and improvements in working practices?

Options:

A.

Project kickoff workshop

B.

Team retrospective workshop

C.

Progress review workshop

D.

Team planning workshop

Question 31

Which statement describes the focus of “being Agile” and not “doing Agile”?

Options:

A.

Task completion within strict timelines

B.

Adaptability and collaboration

C.

Document-driven processes

D.

Agile techniques for efficiency

Question 32

To help with prioritization, what is MOST important when understanding the difference between scope and quality?

Options:

A.

Combining functional and non-functional requirements

B.

Creating non-functional requirements with user stories

C.

Differentiating functional from non-functional requirements

D.

Defining non-functional requirements before functional requirements

Question 33

When should PRINCE2 Agile be used?

Options:

A.

When a team is created to deliver a specific product

B.

When delivering an ongoing service to a customer

C.

When an established team performs product maintenance

D.

When simple requests to update a product are implemented

Question 34

What should the business case state about the minimum viable product (MVP)?

Options:

A.

When the MVP will be defined

B.

That the MVP must go into operational use

C.

What the MVP is

D.

That the MVP is the same as project viability

Question 35

What is the purpose of the 'progress' practice?

Options:

A.

To provide a forecast for the project's viability

B.

To identify and assess opportunities and threats

C.

To identify the user needs and requirements

D.

To establish accountability for the project

Question 36

Which TWO statements about the typical tailoring of a checkpoint report in an agile environment are CORRECT?

1) It should be replaced by the project manager attending a daily stand-up.

2) It should be displayed in the form of an information radiator in a team room.

3) It should be produced when the amount to be delivered will result in tolerance being exceeded.

4) It should be produced in a product backlog in the form of prioritized user stories.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 37

What is a responsibility of the team coach?

Options:

A.

To liaise with the agile coach

B.

To liaise with the project manager

C.

To liaise with the chief product owner

D.

To liaise with project assurance

Question 38

Which workshop revisits and refines personas and any evolving user needs?

Options:

A.

Team retrospective workshop

B.

Project kickoff workshop

C.

Release planning workshop

D.

Agile enablement workshop

Question 39

Which practice has the purpose of controlling uncertainties that would affect the project’s objectives?

Options:

A.

Plans

B.

Issues

C.

Quality

D.

Risk

Question 40

Which statement about the ‘initiating a project’ process is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The initiation stage plan should form part of the project plan

B.

The impact of frequent releases on quality management should be assessed

C.

The process should take more time than usual for disruptive projects

D.

The project solution should be documented in detail in the project product description

Question 41

Which workshop reflects on lessons learned?

Options:

A.

Team planning workshop

B.

Agile enablement workshop

C.

Project kickoff workshop

D.

Project closure workshop

Question 42

What is a good criterion to include in the Definition of Ready?

Options:

A.

The product is ready to hand over

B.

All components are complete

C.

Acceptance criteria are measurable

D.

The product has passed the quality checks

Question 43

Which of the following uses a flow-based approach to control work in progress?

Options:

A.

Agilometer

B.

Lean

C.

Kanban

D.

Scrum

Question 44

What is a purpose of the 'team planning' workshop?

Options:

A.

To update the project dashboard

B.

To update the product backlog

C.

To update the release map

D.

To update the OKRs

Question 45

Which Agile approach is an iterative and timeboxed approach to product delivery?

Options:

A.

Scrum

B.

Kanban

C.

Agilometer

D.

Lean

Question 46

How does agile address the risk associated with the project not being fully understood at the beginning?

Options:

A.

By allowing a lot of detail at the start

B.

By avoiding too much detail at the start

C.

By requiring details at the start

D.

By preventing the analysis of details at the start

Question 47

Which is an advantage of frequent releases?

Options:

A.

Releases can be used to replace management stages

B.

A ‘one-team’ culture in the project team is encouraged

C.

Configuration management becomes less important

D.

The delivery team becomes more experienced at product handover

Question 48

Which artifact identifies risks associated with using an iterative project management approach?

Options:

A.

Project backlog

B.

Agilometer

C.

Risk management approach

D.

Definition of Done