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GARP 2016-FRR Dumps

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Total 342 questions

Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is a common implicit assumption that is made when computing VaR using parametric methods?

Options:

A.

The expected returns are constant, but the standard deviation changes over time.

B.

The standard deviations of returns are constant, but the mean changes over time.

C.

The mean of and the standard deviations of returns are both constant.

D.

The mean and standard deviation of returns change periodically in response to crises.

Question 2

Arnold Wu owns a floating rate bond. He is concerned that the rates may fall in the future decreasing his payment amount. Which of the following instruments should he buy to hedge against the fall in interest rates?

Options:

A.

Interest rate floor

B.

Interest rate cap

C.

Index amortizing swap

D.

Interest rate swap that receives floating and pays fixed

Question 3

An options trader for a large institutional investor takes a long equity option position. Which of the following risks need to be considered when taking this position?

I. All the risks of underlying equities

II. Perceived volatility changes

III. Future dividends yields

IV. Risk-free interest rates

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV

Question 4

The probability of default on a bond is 3%, and in the case of default, investors expect to lose 70% of their investment. The bond's risk premium is 1.9%. The expected loss and the credit spread of the bond are, respectively:

Options:

A.

1.6% and 2.5%.

B.

2.1% and 3%.

C.

1.6% and 3.5%.

D.

2.1% and 4%.

Question 5

Which one of the following four exercise features is typical for the most exchange-traded equity options?

Options:

A.

Asian exercise feature

B.

American exercise feature

C.

European exercise feature

D.

A shout option exercise feature

Question 6

On January 1, 2010 the TED (treasury-euro dollar) spread was 0.9%, and on January 31, 2010 the TED spread is 0.4%. As a risk manager, how would you interpret this change?

Options:

A.

The decrease in the TED spread indicates a decrease in credit risk on interbank loans.

B.

The decrease in the TED spread indicates an increase in credit risk on interbank loans.

C.

Increase in interest rates on both interbank loans and T-bills.

D.

Increase in credit risk on T-bills.

Question 7

James Johnson bought a 3-year plain vanilla bond that has yield of 4.7% and 4% coupon paid annually, for $87,139. Macauley's duration of the bond is 2.94 years. Rate volatility is 20% of the yield. The bond's annualized volatility is therefore:

Options:

A.

3.15%.

B.

2.90%.

C.

2.81%.

D.

2.64%.

Question 8

A large multinational bank is concerned that their duration measures may not be accurate since the yield curve shifts are not parallel. Which of the following statements would be typically observed regarding variability of interest rates?

Options:

A.

Short-term rates are more variable than long-term rates.

B.

Short-term rates are less variable than long-term rates.

C.

Short-term rates are equally variable as long-term rates.

D.

Short-term rates and long-term rates always move in opposite directions.

Question 9

Which one of the following four interest rate related yield curves is used to revalue loan and deposit positions in banks?

Options:

A.

Derivative

B.

Bond

C.

Cash

D.

Basis

Question 10

Which one of the following four physical commodities markets has the right combination of characteristics that generally allows short selling in the market, without making the short-selling transaction prohibitively expensive?

Options:

A.

Oil

B.

Natural Gas

C.

Grain

D.

Gold

Question 11

Which one of the following four relationships should be used to price equity forwards or futures?

Options:

A.

Equity forward or futures price = market equity price + (1 + risk-free rate – expected dividend rate)t

B.

Equity forward or futures price = market equity price x (1 - risk-free rate – expected dividend rate)t

C.

Equity forward or futures price = market equity price x (1 + risk-free rate – expected dividend rate)t

D.

Equity forward or futures price = market equity price + (1 + risk-free rate + expected dividend rate)t

Question 12

Which one of the following four statements represents a possible disadvantage of using total return swap to manage equity portfolio risks?

Options:

A.

Similar to the formal portfolio rebalancing strategy, the total return receiver needs to modify the size of the trading position.

B.

The total return receiver needs to incur the transaction costs of establishing an equity position.

C.

Similar to an equity forward position, the total return receiver does not get paid the dividend.

D.

The total return receiver does not have any voting rights.

Question 13

To hedge equity exposure without buying or selling shares of stock or otherwise rebalancing the portfolio, a risk manager could initiate

Options:

A.

A short total return swap position.

B.

A long total return swap position.

C.

A short debt-for-equity swap.

D.

A long debt-for-equity swap.

Question 14

Which one of the four following activities is NOT a component of the daily VaR computing process?

Options:

A.

Updating individual risk factor models.

B.

Computing portfolio risk by delta-normal or delta-gamma method.

C.

Updating factor interrelationships.

D.

Producing the VaR report.

Question 15

James Arthur is a customer of a bank who has taken a floating rate loan from the bank. He is concerned that the rates may rise in the future increasing his payment amount. Which of the following instruments should he buy to hedge against the rise in interest rates?

Options:

A.

Interest rate floor

B.

Interest rate cap

C.

Index amortizing swap

D.

Interest rate swap that receives fixed and pays floating

Question 16

When the cost of gold is $1,100 per bullion and the 3-month forward contract trades at $900, a commodity trader seeks out arbitrage opportunities in this relationship. To capitalize on any arbitrage opportunities, the trader could implement which one of the following four strategies?

Options:

A.

Short-sell physical gold and take a long position in the futures contract

B.

Take a long position in physical gold and short-sell the futures contract

C.

Short-sell both physical gold and futures contract

D.

Take long positions in both physical gold and futures contract

Question 17

James Johnson bought a coupon bond yielding 4.7% for $1,000. Assuming that the price drops to $976 when yield increases to 4.71%, what is the PVBP of the bond.

Options:

A.

$26.

B.

$76.

C.

$870.

D.

$976.

Question 18

Which of the following statements describes a bank's reasons to set risk limits?

I. To control and minimize a bank's current risk exposure.

II. To predict future risks.

III. To allocate risks to business units.

IV. To keep risk within tolerance levels.

Options:

A.

I and II

B.

III and IV

C.

I, II, and III

D.

I, III, and IV

Question 19

Which one of the following four statements correctly defines a typical carry trade?

Options:

A.

A bank borrows funds in a high-interest currency and places the funds in a long-term low volatility investment vehicle.

B.

A bank borrows funds in a high-interest currency and invests the funds into high-yield emerging market debt.

C.

A bank borrows funds in a low-interest currency and places the funds on deposit in a high-interest currency.

D.

A bank borrows funds in a low-interest currency, accumulates reserves, and lends in another low-interest currency.

Question 20

Which of the following statements depicts a difference between funding liquidity risks and trading liquidity risks?

Options:

A.

Funding liquidity risks are associated with how fast prices move in the market while trading liquidity risks originate out of bank trades.

B.

Funding liquidity risks are concerned with the ability of the bank to fund deposits withdrawals while trading liquidity risks are concerned with the change in bid-offer spreads of asset values.

C.

Funding liquidity risks are short term risks while trading liquidity risks are longer term risks.

D.

Funding liquidity risks are associated only with the bank assets while trading liquidity risks are associated with both assets and liabilities of the bank.

Question 21

Alpha Bank, a small bank,has a long position with larger BetaBank and has an identical short position with another larger bank GammaBank. Each large bank requires a 20% initial collateral to support the trade. As prices fluctuate in either direction, one large bank will require additional collateral from the small bank, while the risk of loss to the other large bank will increase. By running the trades through a clearinghouse, the small bank can achieve all of the following objectives EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Eliminating the collateral requirement

B.

Protecting itself against increases in future collateral demands

C.

Protecting against the risk of the failure of one of the large banks

D.

Mitigating option hedging risks and altering margin requirement

Question 22

Which statements correctly describe the features of using subscription databases for operational loss data analysis?

Subscription databases

I. Provide central data repositories and benchmarking services to their members.

II. Can provide insight into whether the losses in a firm reflect the usual losses in their industry.

III. Assist with mapping the events to the appropriate business lines, risk categories and causes.

IV. Reflect only events that are interesting to the press and are reported in the press.

Options:

A.

I and II

B.

II and III

C.

I, II and III

D.

II, III, and IV

Question 23

Which of the following statements about endogenous and external types of liquidity are accurate?

I. Endogenous liquidity is the liquidity inherent in the bank's assets themselves.

II. External liquidity is the liquidity provided by the bank's liquidity structure to fund its assets and maturing liabilities.

III. External liquidity is the non-contractual and contingent capital supplied by investors to support the bank in times of liquidity stress.

IV. Endogenous liquidity is the same as funding liquidity.

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

I, III

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, IV

Question 24

The main building blocks of an operational risk framework include all of the following options EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Loss data collection

B.

Risk and control self-assessment

C.

Compliance document preparation

D.

Scenario analysis

Question 25

A customer asks a broker employed by AlphaBank to buy Eureka Corporation bonds for her account. While this trade was executed correctly and the bonds were bought, the trade was mistakenly accounted for as a sell order. If the price of Eureka Corporation bonds goes up, this trade would result in a significantly larger loss than if the market had remained stable. However, if the market drops, the customer will benefit from the incorrect accounting and gain from this trade. This trading scenario can serve as an example that

Options:

A.

Market risk in this transaction can magnify operational risk.

B.

Credit risk in this transaction can magnify operational risk.

C.

Liquidity risk in this transaction can magnify operational risk.

D.

Strategic risk in this transaction can magnify operational risk.

Question 26

An asset and liability manager for a large financial institution has to recognize that retail products ___ include embedded options, which are often not rationally exercised, while wholesale products ___ carry penalties for repayment or include rights to terminate wholesale contracts on very different terms than are common in retail products.

Options:

A.

Frequently; typically

B.

Hardly ever; typically

C.

Frequently; rarely

D.

Hardly ever; rarely

Question 27

An asset-sensitive bank will have a ___ cumulative gap and will benefit from ___ interest rates.

Options:

A.

Positive; dropping

B.

Positive; rising

C.

Negative; dropping

D.

Negative; rising

Question 28

DeltaFin wants to develop a control scoring method for its RCSA program. Which of the following statements regarding scoring methods are correct?

I. DeltaFin can develop a control scoring method that assesses both the design and the performance of the control.

II. DeltaFin can combine the design and performance scores for each control to produce an overall control effectiveness score.

III. DeltaFin can use the control performance scores to compute an overall risk severity score.

IV. DeltaFin can determine its own appropriate control scoring method.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

II and III

C.

I, II and IV

D.

II, III, and IV

Question 29

Which one of the four following statements about drawdowns is correct?

Options:

A.

Drawdown calculates significant losses in a particular business or a book.

B.

Drawdown estimates the effect on bank's liabilities when the bank's credit rating is cut.

C.

Drawdown quantifies the peak-to-trough decline of an investment over a known time period.

D.

Drawdown measures the aggregate decline in market values of assets and positions due to a shock.

Question 30

Bank Alpha is making a decision about lending 10-year loans in a sector that is fairly illiquid and is looking at various options to fund the loans. Which of the following options to fund the loans exhibits the most exogenous liquidity risk?

Options:

A.

Overnight interbank markets

B.

The 6-month LIBOR markets

C.

The 1-year treasury markets

D.

Foreign exchange markets

Question 31

Which of the following are among the main uses of risk reports?

I. Identification of exceptional situations that require managerial attention.

II. Display the relative risk among different trades.

III. Specify how RAROC will be maximized within the bank.

IV. Estimate the overall risk levels of the bank.

Options:

A.

I, II and IV

B.

II and III

C.

II and IV

D.

II, III, and IV

Question 32

To reduce the variability of net interest income, Gamma Bank can swap positions that make its duration gap equal to

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

-1

D.

0.5

Question 33

Which one of the four following statements describes a specific characteristic of risk and control self-assessments (RCSA) which distinguishes it from both control assessments and risk and control assessments?

Options:

A.

RCSA is conducted by a third party, perhaps audit, compliance or the Sarbanes-Oxley team.

B.

RCSA tests a control's effectiveness against set criteria and issues a pass/fail or level of effectiveness score.

C.

RCSA is subjective by nature.

D.

RCSA includes a risk assessment in addition to a control assessment.

Question 34

Which one of the following four examples would not be considered a typical source of market risk?

Options:

A.

Unexpected changes in the term structure of interest rates.

B.

The JPY depreciating against the USD.

C.

Increased default rate on commercial mortgages due to higher interest rates.

D.

Changes in the oil price due to the discovery of new oil fields.

Question 35

A risk manager has a long forward position of USD 1 million but the option portfolio decreases JPY 0.50 for every JPY 1 increase in his forward position. At first approximation, what is the overall result of the options positions?

Options:

A.

The options positions hedge the forward position by 25%.

B.

The option positions hedge the forward position by 50%.

C.

The option positions hedge the forward position by 75%.

D.

The option positions hedge the forward position by 100%.

Question 36

Which of the following statements about the interest rates and option prices is correct?

Options:

A.

If rho is positive, rising interest rates increase option prices.

B.

If rho is positive, rising interest rates decrease option prices.

C.

As interest rates rise, all options will rise in value.

D.

As interest rates fall, all options will rise in value.

Question 37

As DeltaBank explores the securitization business, it is most likely to embrace securitization to:

I. Bring transparency to the bank's balance sheet

II. Create a new profit center for the bank

III. Strategically release risk capital and regulatory capital for redeployment

IV. Generate cash for additional debt origination

Options:

A.

I, III

B.

II, IV

C.

I, II, III

D.

II, III, IV

Question 38

For which one of the following four reasons do corporate customers use foreign exchange derivatives?

I. To lock in the current value of foreign-denominated receivables

II. To lock in the current value of foreign-denominated payables

III. To lock in the value of expected future foreign-denominated receivables

IV. To lock in the value of expected future foreign-denominated payables

Options:

A.

II

B.

I and IV

C.

II and III

D.

I, II, III, IV

Question 39

Which one of the following four statements correctly defines credit risk?

Options:

A.

Credit risk is the risk that complements market and liquidity risks.

B.

Credit risk is a form of performance risk in contractual relationship.

C.

Credit risk is the risk arising from execution of a company's strategy.

D.

Credit risk is the risk that summarizes the exposures a company or firm assumes when it attempts to operate within a given field or industry.

Question 40

What is the explanation offered by the liquidity preference theory for the upward sloping yield curve shape?

Options:

A.

The long term rates must rise enough to get some borrowers to borrow short-term and some lenders to lend long-term.

B.

The long term rates must rise enough to get some borrowers to borrow long-term and some lenders to lend short-term.

C.

The short term rates must rise enough to get some borrowers to borrow short-term and some lenders to lend long-term.

D.

The short term rates must fall enough to get some borrowers to borrow long-term and some lenders to lend short-term.

Question 41

To estimate the interest charges on the loan, an analyst should use one of the following four formulas:

Options:

A.

Loan interest = Risk-free rate - Probability of default x Loss given default + Spread

B.

Loan interest = Risk-free rate + Probability of default x Loss given default + Spread

C.

Loan interest = Risk-free rate - Probability of default x Loss given default - Spread

D.

Loan interest = Risk-free rate + Probability of default x Loss given default - Spread

Question 42

Changes to which one of the following four factors would typically not increase the cost of credit?

Options:

A.

Increasing inflation rates in a country.

B.

Increase in consumption of goods and services.

C.

Higher risk premium on a fixed income instrument.

D.

Higher return earned on alternative investments.

Question 43

According to a Moody's study, the most important drivers of the loss given default historically have been all of the following EXCEPT:

I. Debt type and seniority

II. Macroeconomic environment

III. Obligor asset type

IV. Recourse

Options:

A.

I

B.

II

C.

I, II

D.

III, IV

Question 44

To safeguard its capital and obtain insurance if the borrowers cannot repay their loans, Gamma Bank accepts financial collateral to manage its credit risk and mitigate the effect of the borrowers' defaults. Gamma Bank will typically accept all of the following instruments as financial collateral EXCEPT?

Options:

A.

Unrated bonds issued and traded on a recognized exchange

B.

Equities and convertible bonds included in a main market index

C.

Commercial debts owed to a company in a form of receivables

D.

Mutual fund shares and similar unit investment vehicles subject to daily quotes

Question 45

In the United States, Which one of the following four options represents the largest component of securitized debt?

Options:

A.

Education loans

B.

Credit card loans

C.

Real estate loans

D.

Lines of credit

Question 46

A credit analyst wants to determine a good pricing strategy to compensate for credit decisions that might have been made incorrectly. When analyzing her credit portfolio, the analyst focuses on the spreads in each loan to determine if they are sufficient to compensate the bank for all of the following costs and risks EXCEPT.

Options:

A.

The marginal cost of funds provided.

B.

The overhead cost of maintaining the loan and the account.

C.

The inherent risk of lending to this borrower while providing a return on the risk capital used to the support the loan.

D.

The opportunity cost of risk-adjusted marginal cost of capital.

Question 47

Beta Insurance Company is only allowed to invest in investment grade bonds. To maximize the interest income, Beta Insurance Company should invest in bonds with which of the following ratings?

Options:

A.

AAA

B.

AA

C.

A

D.

B

Question 48

Which one of the following four options does NOT represent a benefit of compensating balances to the bank?

Options:

A.

Compensating balances allow the bank to net some of the exposure they may have in case of default, by taking funds from these specific deposit account one the borrower defaults.

B.

Since the compensating balances cannot be withdrawn at short notice, if at all, they are not considered transaction accounts and are able to provide a stable funding to the bank, reducing its reliance on more volatile external inter-bank based funding sources.

C.

Compensation balances influence the expected loss rate of the bank given the default obligor and improve capital structure by controlling obligor type and avoiding payment delays.

D.

Since the compensating balances reduce the next amount lent to the borrower, the earned return on the loan is increased, further widening the bank's interest rate margin and profitability.

Question 49

A credit associate extending a loan to an obligor suspects that the obligor may change his behavior after the loan has been originated. The obligor in this case may use the loan proceeds for purposes not sanctioned by the lender, thereby increasing the risk of default. Hence, the credit associate must estimate the probability of default based on the assumptions about the applicability of the following tendency to this lending situation:

Options:

A.

Speculation

B.

Short bias

C.

Moral hazard

D.

Adverse selection

Question 50

Which one of the following statements about futures contracts is correct?

I. Futures contracts are subject to the same risks as the underlying instruments.

II. Futures contracts have additional interest rate risk die to the future delivery date.

III. Futures contracts traded in a clearinghouse system are exposed to credit risk with numerous counterparties.

Options:

A.

I

B.

I, III

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, III

Question 51

Which one of the following four formulas correctly identifies the expected loss for all credit instruments?

Options:

A.

Expected Loss = Probability of Default x Loss Given Default x Exposure at Default

B.

Expected Loss = Probability of Default x Loss Given Default + Exposure at Default

C.

Expected Loss = Probability of Default x Loss Given Default - Exposure at Default

D.

Expected Loss = Probability of Default x Loss Given Default / Exposure at Default

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Total 342 questions