Free and Premium CompTIA 220-1202 Dumps Questions Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) requires at least two different types of authentication factors:

Something you know (e.g., password or PIN)

Something you have (e.g., smartphone or hardware token)

Something you are (e.g., fingerprint or facial recognition)

Option A, sending a code to the user’s phone, is an example of "something you have" — a physical device that receives a one-time passcode. Combined with a password, this forms a proper MFA implementation.

B. Date of birth is another knowledge-based factor (like a password), not a second factor type.

C. Solving a math problem is not a recognized authentication factor.

D. A PIN is also "something you know" and does not count as a distinct MFA factor when paired with a password.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Facial recognition is a biometric authentication method that ties access to a unique physical feature of the user. Unlike passcodes or pattern locks—which can be easily shared—facial recognition provides a more secure and non-transferable form of access. It also enhances user convenience and is widely supported by modern smartphones.

A. Pattern locks can still be shared and are less secure.

C. Device encryption protects data but does not prevent screen access if a passcode is shared.

D. Multifactor authentication typically applies to app or account access, not basic phone unlocking.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To work remotely without physically transporting a workstation, the user needs:

C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol): Allows graphical remote access to a Windows PC at the office.

D. VPN (Virtual Private Network): Establishes a secure tunnel to access the corporate network remotely, making the internal PC reachable.

A. SPICE is used in virtual machine environments and is not typically used for end-user remote desktop access.

B. SSH is a text-based remote access tool used mostly for Linux systems.

E. RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) is used by IT administrators for support — not end-user remote access.

F. WinRM is used for Windows remote management via PowerShell, not for full desktop access.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A Potentially Unwanted Program (PUP) is software that a user may not have knowingly installed. It often gets bundled with legitimate software and installs without full disclosure. PUPs can affect performance, change system settings, or display unwanted ads but are not necessarily malicious like viruses or ransomware.

A. Viruses replicate and spread; they are generally more harmful and not "bundled" in the same way.

B. Ransomware encrypts files for payment and is deliberately malicious.

D. A Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software to perform malicious actions but is not typically pre-bundled by legitimate publishers.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

BitLocker To Go is a Microsoft encryption feature specifically designed for removable drives such as USB flash drives and external hard drives. It allows users to protect the data on these devices by requiring a password to decrypt the contents, thereby preventing unauthorized access in the event the device is lost or stolen.

A is correct because BitLocker To Go is directly tied to password-protecting removable media.

B and C are unrelated to BitLocker To Go; Secure Boot and VPN encryption are entirely different security layers.

D applies to BitLocker (not BitLocker To Go) and full disk encryption on internal drives using TPM.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The first step in the IT change management process is to identify and propose the change. In this case, the technician notices a need (end-of-life network switches), so the appropriate action is toformally propose a change. This proposal would be documented and submitted for approval before any planning or implementation occurs.

According to the CompTIA A+ 220-1102 objectives under Operational Procedures (Domain 4.0), the change management process follows these typical steps:

Submit a change request (Propose the change)

Review and approval (Approve the change)

Planning and scheduling (Schedule the change)

Implementation

Documentation and review

Therefore, proposing the change is the correct first step in accordance with standard ITIL-based change management practices.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Authenticator apps (e.g., Microsoft Authenticator, Google Authenticator, Duo) often support push notifications. When the user logs in, the app sends a push to their mobile device, prompting the user to approve or deny the authentication request — a common and user-friendly form of multi-factor authentication (MFA).

A. Phone call verification is a separate method involving voice-based confirmation.

C. Hardware tokens generate one-time codes but do not send push notifications.

D. SMS sends a text message with a code — again, no push mechanism.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The issue described—“domain cannot be found” despite the ability to ping the server and access the internet—indicates aDNS resolution problem, not a network connectivity issue. The workstation is currently usingpublic DNS servers (8.8.8.8 and 1.1.1.1)whichcannot resolve internal domain names, such as the ones used in Active Directory environments. To resolve this, the technician needs tochange the DNS settings to point to the internal DNS server, which in most domain setups is thedomain controller itself (likely 192.168.1.10 in this case).

Here’s the breakdown of the incorrect options:

B. Assign a static IP address: The IP is already assigned and functioning; the device can ping and reach the network and internet.

C. Configure a subnet mask: The subnet mask is appropriate for the network range (Class C /24).

D. Update the default gateway: The gateway is valid and allows internet access; this is not the issue.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 Objective Reference:

Objective 1.8 – Given a scenario, use features and tools of the operating system.

Under this objective, candidates must know how to troubleshoot OS-based network configurations, includingproper DNS settings in domain environments.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

After containment and remediation, one of the final steps in incident response is user education. Since the root cause was a phishing attack, it is essential to educate users about identifying phishing attempts, safe browsing practices, and how to handle suspicious communications. This improves overall security posture and helps prevent future incidents.

A. Installing additional tools may be helpful but is a long-term step.

C. Flashing router firmware is not warranted unless the network hardware is known to be compromised.

D. Suggesting more advanced tools might be excessive given that the EDR successfully contained the incident.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A bollard is a sturdy physical barrier—often a steel or concrete post—designed to prevent vehicles or unauthorized individuals from ramming into or entering secure areas of a building. It provides physical security and is commonly used outside entrances to prevent forced entry.

A. PIV (Personal Identity Verification) cards are used for identity access control, not physical blocking.

B. Motion lighting may deter activity but doesn’t physically prevent entry.

C. Surveillance records activity but cannot stop a forced entry.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) define the mandatory steps and expectations technicians must follow during support calls. This includes documentation standards such as logging user info, asset details, and issue descriptions in the ticketing system. Implementing SOPs ensures consistency and accountability.

A. SLAs define response/resolution times but not documentation practices.

B. Call categories organize types of issues but don't guide technician actions.

D. Knowledge base articles provide solutions to known problems but don't ensure proper ticket documentation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile OS updates can sometimes cause compatibility issues with specific apps, including corporate email clients. The most likely resolution is to check for and apply an update to the affected application, especially if it hasn’t been updated to support the latest OS version.

B. Registering with MDM might be required for access but wouldn’t address app crashes due to incompatibility.

C. A third-party client might help, but it’s not the best first step if the default app is expected to work.

D. Clearing the cache can help resolve some minor issues, but updating the app directly addresses compatibility concerns.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the user's files and demands a payment (ransom) for the decryption key. When a user receives a message stating that their files are encrypted and cannot be accessed, ransomware is the most likely cause. The attacker’s goal is to hold the data hostage until the victim pays to restore access.

A. Keylogger records keystrokes and doesn’t encrypt files.

C. Phishing is a social engineering tactic to gather credentials, not to encrypt data.

D. Cryptominer uses system resources to mine cryptocurrency, not encrypt files.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) outlines the rules and guidelines for employees or users regarding the appropriate use of company systems, resources, and internet access. It defines permitted and prohibited activities, helping to mitigate security risks and establish clear behavioral expectations.

B. MNDA (Mutual Non-Disclosure Agreement) deals with confidentiality, not usage guidelines.

C. DRM (Digital Rights Management) controls access to copyrighted content.

D. EULA (End User License Agreement) pertains to software licensing, not internal policies.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A management profile is used to enforce corporate policies on Apple devices. These profiles are installed via an MDM (Mobile Device Management) solution and control access, restrictions,Wi-Fi settings, app installations, and more. They’re critical for managing devices in a business environment.

A. The App Store allows software downloads but doesn’t control policies.

B. VPN configuration is used for secure remote connections, not enforcement of restrictions.

C. Apple ID is for personal account access to Apple services, not corporate device management.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

SSO issues are often related to cached session data, cookies, or browser artifacts. The fact that the user can access the company portal but not one specific SaaS tool suggests a session or token problem. Using a private/incognito browsing window allows a clean session to be initiated, which often resolves SSO conflicts.

A. Reenrolling MFA is not related unless access issues stem from failed multifactor authentication.

C. Bypassing SSO may not be possible depending on the SaaS tool and company policies.

D. Factory resetting a device is a last resort and unnecessary in this case.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To prevent external access, the technician should avoid exposing the surveillance system’s port to the public internet. Port mapping (also known as port forwarding) is the method used to control which internal devices and ports are accessible from the outside. By not configuring port forwarding for the device, external login attempts are effectively blocked.

B. Subnetting organizes IP addresses but doesn't directly restrict access.

C. A static IP ensures consistent addressing but does not secure access.

D. Content filtering is used to restrict web content, not to block access to a web interface.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users may connect to it, giving attackers the opportunity to intercept traffic, steal credentials, or install malware. The evil twin often uses the same SSID as the real network to fool users.

A. Stalkerware is spyware installed to track user activity, typically on personal devices.

C. Tailgating is a physical security breach involving unauthorized entry behind someone with access.

D. Shoulder surfing involves observing a person entering confidential data, such as PINs or passwords.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Event Viewer is the primary tool used to investigate system-level errors and logs, including BSODs. When a BSOD occurs, Windows logs the error codes and associated system behavior under “System” logs in Event Viewer. This allows the technician to review crash events, identify error codes (e.g., STOP codes), and pinpoint hardware or driver issues.

B. Performance Monitor is used for real-time performance tracking and trend analysis, not crash logs.

C. System Information displays system specs but not crash logs or events.

D. Device Manager shows device status and driver issues but doesn’t retain error logs related to BSODs.

Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers

Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A Zero-day vulnerability refers to a security flaw in software or hardware that is unknown to the vendor or has not yet been patched. If this vulnerability is exploited before the vendor has issued a fix or patch, it becomes a Zero-day exploit. These attacks are highly dangerous because they take advantage of the absence of defenses due to the lack of awareness or mitigation options.

A. Spoofing is a form of impersonation, not necessarily tied to unpatched vulnerabilities.

B. Brute-force attacks rely on repeatedly guessing credentials and are not related to software flaws.

C. DoS (Denial of Service) attacks are meant to overwhelm systems and don't necessarily exploit unknown vulnerabilities.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An "OS Not Found" error typically indicates that the computer is attempting to boot from a drive that doesn't contain a valid operating system or bootable partition. The presence of a USB drive might be confusing the boot order. Therefore, the first step a technician should take is to verify and adjust the boot sequence in the system’s firmware (BIOS or UEFI). It's possible that the USB drive is being prioritized over the internal hard drive, which may cause the system to miss the OS entirely.

A. Running data recovery tools is premature before confirming boot order.

B. Repartitioning the disk would destroy existing data—this should not be done until confirmed the OS is actually missing.

D. Switching between UEFI and BIOS (legacy mode) might help in rare cases, but it is not the first step in standard OS boot issue troubleshooting.