Free and Premium CompTIA 220-1202 Dumps Questions Answers

The Local Users and Groups Manager (lusrmgr.msc) is the utility for managing user accounts, including renaming the default Administrator.

From Quentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“The lusrmgr.msc snap-in allows renaming and managing local user accounts, including the default administrator.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The user’s issue likely stems from amobile data restriction or cap, especially since uploads work on Wi-Fi but not cellular. Checkingdata usage limitswill help determine if mobile uploads are blocked.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When data-intensive functions fail on mobile networks but not on Wi-Fi, it’s often due to data caps or metered connection limits.”

The correct answer is A. Reinstalling the application, because the issue appears to be application-specific rather than system-wide. The problem only affects one game, the operating system is fully updated, and there are no storage constraints. These indicators strongly suggest corrupted application data or a faulty app installation.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, when a single application crashes repeatedly, the first recommended troubleshooting step is to remove and reinstall the app. This clears corrupted files, resets application settings, and ensures the latest compatible version is installed.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that factory resets should only be used as a last resort, as they are disruptive and erase user data. Disabling background applications may help performance issues but does not typically resolve persistent crashes tied to one specific app.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that date and time misconfiguration usually affects authentication or certificate validation, not game stability.

Because the symptoms are isolated to a single application and basic system factors have already been ruled out, reinstalling the application is the most appropriate first troubleshooting step, making A the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Before any change is implemented, it must bedocumentedas part of change management procedures. This ensures transparency, review, and tracking.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Documenting a change is the first step in change management. This includes defining the scope, purpose, impact, and implementation plan before approval or scheduling.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When an iOS device approaches full storage capacity, performance can be significantly impacted. iOS requires a buffer of free space to perform background processes efficiently.

From theAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“iOS devices need several gigabytes of free space to maintain optimal performance. Near-full storage can cause sluggish operation and failures in updates or background tasks.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

RAM is an electrostatic-sensitive component. When removing or transporting RAM modules, they should be stored in antistatic bags to protect against electrostatic discharge (ESD), which can damage the memory. This is a standard best practice in hardware handling.

A. Demagnetization is not applicable to RAM.

C. Plugging in power to ground is not safe or recommended for static protection.

D. Installing identical memory pairs is applicable for dual-channel configuration, but not directly related to transporting or handling RAM.

The correct answer is A. Detailed guides for resolving common issues, because effective deployment documentation must support ongoing troubleshooting and support, not just initial installation. Including known issues and resolution steps allows future technicians to resolve problems efficiently and consistently.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, high-quality technical documentation should include error conditions, common failure points, and step-by-step remediation procedures. This information significantly reduces mean time to resolution (MTTR) and improves service quality.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that help desk documentation should evolve over time, incorporating lessons learned from previous incidents. Troubleshooting guides turn deployment documentation into a practical reference rather than a static record.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that email logs are informal and unstructured, vendor contact information is supplementary, and end-user manuals are not intended for technical troubleshooting. None of these provide actionable guidance for technicians resolving future issues.

Because the goal is to ensure long-term supportability and effective troubleshooting, the most important inclusion is detailed guides for resolving common issues, making A the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. XDR (Extended Detection and Response), which is designed to provide holistic security visibility across endpoints, networks, servers, cloud workloads, and email systems. Unlike traditional endpoint-only solutions, XDR correlates data from multiple security layers to detect and respond to advanced threats.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, XDR expands upon EDR by integrating telemetry from network traffic, firewalls, identity systems, and cloud platforms. This enables detection of threats that move laterally or originate outside a single host.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that XDR is specifically designed to detect attacks that bypass endpoint protections by analyzing network-level behavior, command-and-control traffic, and cross-system activity.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual contrasts XDR with other options: RADIUS is an authentication protocol, UAC is a local Windows privilege control, and antivirus focuses only on known malware signatures at the host level. None of those provide network-wide visibility and coordinated response.

Because the question explicitly mentions traffic outside the host and at the network level, XDR is the only technology designed to meet that requirement, making C the correct answer.

An MSDS providessafety and emergency procedures, such as what to do if a battery leaks or catches fire. It is not a technical or setup guide.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“An MSDS contains safety information, including handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to potentially hazardous components like UPS batteries.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Windows Helloallows biometric and PIN-based login, which are easier and more user-friendly than passwords.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Windows Hello supports biometric authentication and PINs, providing easier and secure access especially for users who have trouble remembering passwords.”

The correct answer is C. The default gateway is not set, and this is clearly indicated by the ipconfig output showing the Default Gateway: 0.0.0.0. In TCP/IP networking, the default gateway is the router address that allows a workstation to communicate with networks outside its local subnet, including the internet. Without a valid default gateway, a device can only communicate with other devices on the same local network.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, a missing or incorrect default gateway is one of the most common causes of a system being unable to access external resources. The guide explains that when a destination IP address is outside the local subnet, the workstation forwards the traffic to the default gateway. If no gateway is defined, the traffic has nowhere to go and is dropped.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide reinforces that an IP address such as 10.203.10.22 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 is valid for internal communication. The DNS suffix comptia.org is also not responsible for routing failures. DNS resolves names to IP addresses, but routing still requires a gateway.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that a subnet mask error would prevent even local communication, which is not indicated here. Because only external websites are unreachable, the absence of a default gateway is the definitive root cause.

The correct answer is A. .app, because macOS applications packaged as .app files are typically self-contained application bundles. This means that all required application files are stored within a single directory that appears as one file in Finder. When the .app file is moved to the Trash, the application is effectively removed from the system.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, macOS applications are commonly distributed as .app bundles, allowing for simple installation and removal. This design contrasts with Windows, where applications often install files across multiple directories and require uninstallers.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that dragging a .app file to the Trash is generally sufficient to uninstall the software, although some applications may leave behind preference files or caches. However, from an exam perspective, .app is the only option that supports this uninstall behavior.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that .msi and .exe are Windows formats, .rpm is used by Linux package managers, and .pkg installers often install system-wide components that require a formal uninstallation process.

Because .app files support simple drag-to-trash uninstallation, A is the correct answer.

Screensaver lockshelp protect unattended workstations.

BIOS passwordsprevent unauthorized changes at startup or during boot.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“Applying a BIOS password adds a pre-boot security layer. Screensaver locks help protect logged-in sessions during idle times.”

The correct answer is C. SSH (Secure Shell), because SSH is the standard method for secure, command-line-based remote management of network devices, including switches, routers, and firewalls. Network switches typically do not provide graphical interfaces, and administrators interact with them using a command-line interface (CLI).

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, SSH is widely used to securely access and manage network infrastructure devices. It encrypts all communication between the technician’s system and the remote device, protecting credentials and command output from interception.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that SSH allows administrators to execute commands remotely and capture text-based output, which can easily be copied and shared for documentation or escalation. This makes it ideal for fulfilling requests that involve running commands and returning results.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that RDP and VNC are graphical desktop-sharing tools typically used for managing workstations or servers, not network switches. WinRM is used for Windows system management, not network hardware.

Because the task involves secure CLI access to a network switch, SSH is the correct and expected tool, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users may connect to it, giving attackers the opportunity to intercept traffic, steal credentials, or install malware. The evil twin often uses the same SSID as the real network to fool users.

A. Stalkerware is spyware installed to track user activity, typically on personal devices.

C. Tailgating is a physical security breach involving unauthorized entry behind someone with access.

D. Shoulder surfing involves observing a person entering confidential data, such as PINs or passwords.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If unauthorized or non-standard applications are appearing on systems and users are receiving licensing prompts, it’s likely users are installing software themselves. Removing users from the local administrators group will prevent them from installing software without approval and reduce the likelihood of introducing unapproved or malicious programs.

A. Deploying a PKI helps with secure communications but doesn’t address user software installation rights.

C. Blocking suspicious websites is helpful but doesn’t prevent local installations.

D. Stricter UAC may add prompts but can still be bypassed by admin users.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) apps, especially time-based one-time password (TOTP) apps (e.g., Google Authenticator, Authy), rely on accurate time synchronization between the device and the authentication server. If the user recently traveled internationally, the device may have incorrect date/time settings due to time zone changes or failed synchronization, leading to MFA failure.

The most logical and non-intrusive first step is to verify and correct the date and time settings. This aligns with basic troubleshooting principles—start with the simplest and most likely cause before taking more drastic action.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Windows doesn't natively support many Linux file systems (like ext4).Reformatting to exFATmakes the drive readable/writable on both Linux and Windows.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“For cross-platform compatibility, exFAT is recommended as it supports large files and is recognized by Windows, macOS, and Linux (with exFAT drivers).”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In emotionally sensitive situations, it is critical that the technicianprojects confidenceand maintains a calm, positive demeanor to reassure the customer.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Confidence and empathy are key when working with distressed users. Demonstrating competence can help ease the customer's anxiety.”

A VPN creates a secure tunnel from the user’s home network into the corporate network, providing the necessary routing and access controls for the laptop to reach internal file servers. Without a VPN, the device remains outside the corporate LAN and cannot directly reach protected resources.

A VPN creates a secure tunnel from the user’s home network into the corporate network, providing the necessary routing and access controls for the laptop to reach internal file servers. Without a VPN, the device remains outside the corporate LAN and cannot directly reach protected resources.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In a domain environment, printers are typically deployed via a print server. Users can browse available printers on the server and install them directly.

All-in-One Exam Guidementions:

“In a corporate domain, printers are managed via a centralized print server. Users can select the desired printer from the server’s shared list.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)guide technicians through consistent and complete processes, including documentation.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“SOPs ensure that all required steps—such as data collection and issue description—are followed in every support interaction.”

The correct answer is A. gpedit.msc, which opens the Local Group Policy Editor. Group Policy allows administrators to configure and enforce security-related settings, including screensaver timeout, password protection, and automatic locking, across systems or user accounts.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Group Policy is commonly used to enforce security policies such as inactivity timeouts, especially in departments handling sensitive data like finance or HR.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that screensaver timeout settings can be configured under User Configuration → Administrative Templates → Control Panel → Personalization, ensuring systems lock automatically after a defined period of inactivity.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that tools like certmgr.msc manage certificates, devmgmt.msc manages hardware devices, and perfmon.msc monitors system performance. None of these tools control user security policies.

Because the requirement is to enforce a shorter screensaver timeout for security, Group Policy Editor is the correct and professional tool, making A the correct answer.

SSH (Secure Shell) allows encrypted console sessions to access and administer remote servers.

From Quentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“Secure Shell (SSH) provides an encrypted console session to manage Linux, UNIX, or network devices securely over TCP port 22.” .

The correct answer is B. Create and assign a security group with adequate permissions, because group-based permission management is the most efficient and scalable way to control access to shared resources. By assigning permissions to a group rather than individual users, administrators reduce administrative overhead and simplify future changes.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, security groups are a best practice for managing access to files, folders, and repositories. Permissions are assigned once to the group, and users inherit those permissions by being members of the group.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that granting administrative permissions is excessive and violates the principle of least privilege. Applying permissions individually increases complexity and the risk of configuration errors, especially as team membership changes.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that mapping a network folder does not control permissions; it only provides access to a resource that is already governed by permissions. Group-based access ensures consistency, security, and minimal effort.

Because the requirement is to allow specific actions while preventing deletion—and to do so with the least amount of effort—creating and assigning a properly permissioned security group is the optimal solution, making B the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) requires at least two different types of authentication factors:

Something you know (e.g., password or PIN)

Something you have (e.g., smartphone or hardware token)

Something you are (e.g., fingerprint or facial recognition)

Option A, sending a code to the user’s phone, is an example of "something you have" — a physical device that receives a one-time passcode. Combined with a password, this forms a proper MFA implementation.

B. Date of birth is another knowledge-based factor (like a password), not a second factor type.

C. Solving a math problem is not a recognized authentication factor.

D. A PIN is also "something you know" and does not count as a distinct MFA factor when paired with a password.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This is likely arogue antivirusor scareware tactic. The user shouldnot click "OK"and instead check Windows Security (or third-party antivirus) status and ensure real-time protection is enabled.

FromMark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“Users should verify security center settings if receiving suspicious pop-ups. Clicking unknown software updates can install malware. It’s safer to validate protection through legitimate system tools.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Since the issue has recurred after a temporary fix, it is likely a deeper or persistent configuration or server issue. Escalating the ticket to the next tier of support (e.g., network or system administrator) ensures further investigation and permanent resolution. Escalation is part of the standard support protocol when issues reoccur despite initial troubleshooting.

A. Rechecking remotely may confirm the issue, but doesn’t resolve it long term.

B. Providing documentation helps the user but doesn’t solve the root cause.

D. Keeping the ticket open is passive and doesn’t address the recurring issue.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

VPN clients often create virtual network adapters. If the software wasn't uninstalled properly or crashed during install, leftover (often hidden) virtual adapters can prevent reinstallation. The proper solution is to delete hidden network adapters using Device Manager (with “Show hidden devices” enabled).

A. OS updates won’t fix a leftover driver or adapter issue.

B. Mapping an adapter to the software is not a standard or viable solution.

C. Firmware updates apply to physical adapters, not virtual VPN adapters.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In secure or isolated network segments, DHCP may be disabled to reduce the risk of unauthorized device connections or to maintain strict IP assignment control. In such cases, the help desk technician must manually configure IP settings (including IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS servers). This ensures the workstation communicates properly within that segment.

A. DNS server restriction is unrelated to manual IP configuration.

B. Allow lists refer to traffic access, but manual IP assignment is due to lack of DHCP, not allow lists.

D. NAC servers control access but don't replace the need for IP addressing.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A synthetic full backup combines the last full backup with subsequent incremental backups to create a new full backup without re-reading data from the source system. This method significantly reduces the backup window and network impact. It is especially useful when traditional full backups are too time-consuming.

A. Changing the backup window only shifts timing, not duration.

B. Incremental weekly backups would lack a proper full recovery point and aren't ideal alone.

C. Storage space isn't the bottleneck in backup speed—it’s read/write operations and network load.

The correct answer is B. Add the user to the local Administrators group, because this provides the necessary permissions to install software on a specific machine without granting excessive privileges across the entire domain. This approach follows the principle of least privilege while still allowing the user to perform required testing tasks.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, local administrator rights allow users to install and configure applications on a single system but do not grant access to domain-wide resources. This makes it an appropriate choice for sandboxed or test environments.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide warns against adding users to the Domain Admins group, as this grants full control over the entire Active Directory environment and poses a significant security risk. Sharing credentials or passwords violates security best practices and audit requirements.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that granting local administrative access is a common and accepted practice in controlled testing scenarios, especially when systems are isolated from production environments.

Because the goal is to allow software installation without compromising domain security, adding the user to the local Administrators group is the best and safest option, making B the correct answer.

Inbox mail 1 -Account Locked- Phishing - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 2 -Share your feedback - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 3 –Employee orientation - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 4 –Security Update – Spam - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 5 –Interview - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

—

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Ticket #8675310

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig /renew

For the Low priority ticket #8675310 (“A small yellow triangle appeared in the taskbar. I am no longer able to access network resources.”), the Windows yellow triangle on the network icon is the classic indicator of limited connectivity (often caused by a bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, missing default gateway, or DNS info not being assigned).

Correct PBQ Selections (Ticket #8675310)

Issue

Limited network connectivity

Why (CompTIA logic):

That yellow warning triangle means the NIC is connected at Layer 2 (link is up), but the system likely doesn’t have valid Layer 3 config (IP/gateway/DNS), so it can’t reach network resources.

Resolution

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

When a Windows PC can’t access network resources and shows “limited connectivity,” the fastest, lowest-risk fix is to renew DHCP so the PC can pull:

a valid IP address

default gateway

DNS servers

This directly resolves the most common root cause behind that icon.

Verify / Resolve

ipconfig /renew

Why this is the correct verification/remediation command:

ipconfig /renew is the direct command to request a fresh DHCP lease. After renewal, the user should regain access to network resources if DHCP was the issue.

What this fixes (what you’d expect to see)

Before the fix, the attachment (Output.txt) in these PBQs typically shows symptoms like:

169.254.x.x (APIPA) → DHCP failed

Missing/blank Default Gateway

DNS not present or incorrect

After ipconfig /renew, you should see a normal private IP (like 192.168.x.x / 10.x.x.x / 172.16-31.x.x) and a valid gateway/DNS.

Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers

Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

The completed configuration:

1. Wireless AP (LAN side)

1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1

2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK

2. Router (port-forward rule)

1. Allow TCP Any 3389

This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.

3. Firewall (screened subnet side)

1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1

4. Device placement

1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).

2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).

3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.

The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.

Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig

Issue (drop-down)

Limited network connectivity

Why this matches:

“Internet Down” most commonly indicates the workstation has lost valid Layer 3 connectivity (bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, wrong gateway, etc.). In CompTIA A+ terms, this aligns best with limited connectivity symptoms (can’t reach internet resources).

Resolution (drop-down)

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

If the client has:

an expired lease

an APIPA address (169.254.x.x) because DHCP failed

an incorrect IP/gateway from a bad lease

…then the fastest first remediation is to renew DHCP to obtain a correct IP address, default gateway, and DNS servers. This is a standard CompTIA A+ troubleshooting action (quick, low-risk, high-success).

Verify/Resolve (drop-down)

ipconfig

Why this is the correct verification tool:

ipconfig is the primary Windows CLI tool to:

check current IP settings (ipconfig /all)

release/renew DHCP (ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew)

confirm you received a valid IP + gateway + DNS, which is required for internet access.

What you would do (mapped to those choices)

Using ipconfig to complete “Refresh DHCP” and confirm the fix:

Check current addressing

ipconfig /all

Look for:

Valid IPv4 (not 169.254.x.x)

Valid Default Gateway

DNS servers present

Refresh the DHCP lease

ipconfig /release

ipconfig /renew

Verify outcome

Run ipconfig again to confirm:

You now have a correct IP for the network

Default gateway is populated

If the gateway/DNS populate correctly, internet access typically returns.

1st CLI Resolution

copy "C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll" "User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32" /v /y

2nd CLI Resolution

regsvr32 msvcp100.dll

Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)

Why the COPY command is first

The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing

Other users can run the app → the DLL exists on another system

The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:

Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32

The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts — both are enterprise-safe defaults

This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.

Why REGSVR32 is second

After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it

regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system

This ensures:

The Testing application can properly call the runtime library

The fix persists after reboot