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Software Certifications CSQA Dumps

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Total 639 questions

CSQA Certified Software Quality Analyst Questions and Answers

Question 1

If a programmer follows a series of steps to write a computer program, the programmer is following:

Options:

A.

A Workbench

B.

A Procedure

C.

A Standard

D.

Entry Criteria

E.

Exit Criteria

Question 2

Branch testing technique is included in which of the following test data categories?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Structural

C.

Error Oriented

Question 3

Which of the following Quality Management principle(s) are incorporated into the ISO 9001 standard?

Options:

A.

System approach to management

B.

Process approach

C.

Mutually beneficial supplier relationships

D.

Factual approach decision making

E.

All of the above

Question 4

In control charts, accepted practice uses a width of _________________________around the population mean (?) to establish the control limits.

Options:

A.

Plus or minus one standard deviation

B.

Plus or minus two standard deviations

C.

Plus or minus three standard deviations

D.

Plus or minus four standard deviations

E.

Plus or minus five standard deviations

Question 5

Unit testing, system testing and user acceptance testing are examples of:

Options:

A.

Verification

B.

Validation

Question 6

The loss associated with risks can be calculated as follows:

Options:

A.

The cost of controls to minimize the risk

B.

The probability of an undesirable event occurring times the loss associated with the event

C.

Implement cost-of-quality accounting

D.

Obtain loss from a control chart

E.

Use budgetary accounting

Question 7

As the continuum of work processes move or evolve towards creative processes, the mix of written procedures and people skills change.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 8

Which of the following factor does NOT have any impact on an organization's internal control needs?

Options:

A.

Type of Industry

B.

Size of the Company

C.

Management Philosophy

D.

Employee Morale

Question 9

The acronym COTS refers to:

Options:

A.

Critical Organizational Testing Systems

B.

Commercial Off The Shelf Software

C.

Contractor Overview Training System

D.

Code Origination Tracking System

Question 10

The main objectives of process mapping is / are to understand:

Options:

A.

How a process contributes to meeting the organization's mission and goals?

B.

Who is responsible for the process?

C.

How the process interfaces to produce the organization's outcomes?

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

Question 11

Which of the following is the measurement of your current level of performance:

Options:

A.

Baseline

B.

Benchmark

C.

Assessment

D.

Audit

Question 12

The acronym CMM stands for:

Options:

A.

Continuous Maturity Model

B.

Computer Methods and Models

C.

Capability Maturity Model

D.

Change Management Model

E.

Continuous Maturity Methods

Question 13

A subjective enforcement decision is when someone analyzes the situation and then makes a decision on whether or not to enforce the policy.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 14

Which of the following is the correct definition of the Quality Attribute Maintainability?

Options:

A.

Effort required to ensure that the system performs as its intended

B.

Effort required to locate and fix an error in an operational system

C.

Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications

D.

Extent to which a program can be expected to perform its intended function

E.

None of the above

Question 15

Tracking the status of each requirement throughout the development and test phases is called:

Options:

A.

Requirements Checking

B.

Requirements Verification

C.

In-Process Review

D.

Requirements Tracing

E.

Phase-End Review

Question 16

Which of the following defines special cause of variation?

Options:

A.

Variation between the upper and lower control limits

B.

Variation not present in the process

C.

Conditions that regularly contribute to variability

D.

Contributes a small portion to control variation of process outputs

E.

Regular contributors to variability

Question 17

If you found, through testing software, that your IT project team was building software with an average of 58 defects per 1000 function points, this would be a:

Options:

A.

Baseline

B.

Benchmark

C.

Complexity Metric

D.

Size Measure

Question 18

Which of the following is / are used for determining the magnitude of the Risk?

Options:

A.

Using Personal Opinion or Team Consensus

B.

Using a Risk Formula

C.

Using Annual Loss Expectation (ALE) Estimation

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

Question 19

Identify the correct sequence of the 'Management Cycle'.

Options:

A.

Plan-Do-Act-Check

B.

Check-Act-Plan-Do

C.

Plan-Check-Do-Act

D.

Plan-Do-Check-Act

Question 20

If a measure is considered valid, it means that:

Options:

A.

It is easy to be obtained

B.

It is objective

C.

It measures what it is intended to measure

D.

Two or more people can collect the same number

E.

It is robust

Question 21

The optimal number of task force members is:

Options:

A.

1 - 3 members

B.

3 - 8 members

C.

8 - 10 members

D.

No limit

Question 22

You have observed a high failure rate in production due to defects in the computer programs. If you follow good quality practices, the approach you would take to reduce the incidence of failure is to:

Options:

A.

Initiate code inspections to identify defects in code

B.

Increase the type and extent of testing to remove defects before production

C.

Classify and count the defects so that you can identify and eliminate the root cause

D.

Encourage the programmers to try harder to make fewer defects

E.

Include individual defect rates in the performance appraisal system

Question 23

Process capability determination motivates an organization towards process improvements.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 24

Many contracts contain provisions to determine how the contract will be changed in the event that some undetermined circumstance occurs. This provision in a contract is called:

Options:

A.

Compensation for Error

B.

Exercising Options

C.

Renegotiation

D.

Termination Provisions

E.

Cost Limitations

Question 25

An objective measure is a measure that can be obtained by:

Options:

A.

An individual's perception

B.

Counting

C.

All the above

D.

None of the above

Question 26

An audit is:

Options:

A.

A process used to measure the current level of performance

B.

An independent appraisal activity

C.

An evaluation of a model

Question 27

Which of the following quality control processes is used by an organization at a high quality control maturity level?

Options:

A.

Adhoc Testing

B.

Statistical Process Control

C.

Defect Management

D.

Verification

E.

Validation

Question 28

The first step in the Complaint-Resolution Process is:

Options:

A.

Gather detailed supporting information

B.

Establish an action plan

C.

Judge the complaints validity

D.

Get on the customer's wavelength

Question 29

If you want to ensure that individuals can effectively perform work processes, which activity would you implement to achieve that goal?

Options:

A.

Measurement

B.

Team Building

C.

Performance Reviews

D.

Career Development

E.

Training

Question 30

Process inventories can be developed by:

Options:

A.

Referencing existing manuals

B.

Conduct affinity group sessions

C.

Survey employees

D.

All of the above

E.

A and C above

Question 31

Project objectives and goals expressed in quantitative terms is part of which planning activity?

Options:

A.

Business / Activity Planning

B.

Environment Planning

C.

Objective / Goal Planning

D.

Policies / Procedures Planning

Question 32

There are many benefits associated with maturing work processes. As work processes mature, which of the following would be expected to decrease:

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Management Support

C.

Defect Rates

D.

Customer Satisfaction

E.

Confidence in the Process

Question 33

In a Waterfall Development Model, most risk management activity occurs close to milestones.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 34

Continuing process improvement techniques should be applied to which of the following IT work processes?

Options:

A.

Systems Development Process

B.

Software Testing Process

C.

Code Inspection Process

D.

Estimating Process

E.

All of the above

Question 35

After establishing the team for conducting security baseline, the first step should be to:

Options:

A.

Set up the process

B.

Set the measures

C.

Set the requirements and goals

Question 36

One of the most effective arguments for establishing an independent test group within an IT organization is:

Options:

A.

Programmers cannot be trusted

B.

It is difficult for people to find their own errors

C.

Programmers cannot be trained to test

D.

Organizational auditors like independent testing

Question 37

The theory of levels of maturity is that organizations can skip a level if business needs require them to be at a higher maturity level.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 38

Three of the four interconnected project variables are: scope, resources, and schedule. What is the fourth variable?

Options:

A.

Requirements

B.

Budget

C.

Quality

D.

Function Points

E.

Constraints

Question 39

Which of the following is NOT normally considered one of the questions that must be answered in performing quality planning?

Options:

A.

Where are we?

B.

Where do we want to go?

C.

How are we going to get there?

D.

When will it be done?

E.

If it fails, who is responsible?

Question 40

Which of the following is the primary objective of a quality improvement program?

Options:

A.

Ensure our users are adequately trained in their work processes

B.

Reduce the defect rate in IT products and processes

C.

Identify the individuals responsible for poor quality

D.

Train workers in how to do quality work

E.

Identify processes that no longer work

Question 41

Which of the following is / are level(s) for maturing the Deliverables Processes?

Options:

A.

Constraint Requirements

B.

Business Requirements

C.

Relational Requirements

D.

All of the above

Question 42

There is a strong correlation between process maturity and defect rates. As the process maturity level increases, the defect rate decreases.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 43

The check sheet is used to record data gathered over a period of time to determine frequency of an event.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 44

Which one of the following is a disadvantage of Functional Testing?

Options:

A.

Potential of missing logical errors in software

B.

Its tests do not ensure that user requirements have been met

C.

Its tests may not mimic real-world situations

D.

None of the above

Question 45

The following types of controls, which are designed to alert individuals to a process problem such as control totals assuring data transmissions are complete, are called:

Options:

A.

Preventive Controls

B.

Detective Controls

C.

Corrective Controls

D.

Quality Controls

E.

All of the above

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT one of the five types of listening?

Options:

A.

Therapeutic Listening

B.

Critical Listening

C.

Structured Listening

D.

Comprehensive Listening

E.

Discriminative Listening

Question 47

Which of the following is considered a subjective measure?

Options:

A.

Lines of code

B.

Customer satisfaction

C.

Mean time to failure

D.

Hours to write a thousand lines of code

E.

Defect removal efficiency

Question 48

If you were to download a software package, which had been developed and placed on the internet for general usage, the one thing you could not control is:

Options:

A.

Ability to test the software

B.

Defining the requirements

C.

Determining how the software will be used

D.

Training IT staff in how to use the software

E.

Deciding not to use the software

Question 49

Which is NOT commonly used to develop a baseline?

Options:

A.

Customer Surveys

B.

Industry Models

C.

Management Established Criteria

D.

Expected Defect Counts

E.

Benchmarking

Question 50

Which type of benchmark is used to set and validate objectives to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Process Benchmarking

B.

Product Benchmarking

C.

System Benchmarking

D.

Performance Benchmarking

Question 51

Which of the following is a level for maturing the People Management Processes?

Options:

A.

Innovate

B.

Process Focus

C.

Product Focus

D.

Team Focus

Question 52

The methods that an organization uses for hiring, training, supervising, and evaluating personnel are what types of controls:

Options:

A.

Environmental Controls

B.

Transaction Controls

C.

Operational Controls

D.

Detective Controls

E.

Collective Controls

Question 53

One of the reasons a quality baseline needs to be established is:

Options:

A.

Identify missing requirements

B.

Identify perceived quality problems

C.

Measure other organizations' quality

D.

Prepare quality audits

Question 54

Which of the following tool(s) can be applied to determine the change in process scope?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Cause and Effect Diagram

C.

Flow Charts

D.

All of the above

Question 55

If you had seven programs and the size in 'function points' were 5, 10, 15, 20, 30, 40, and 90. What is the mean size of those seven programs in function points?

Options:

A.

20

B.

30

C.

40

D.

50

E.

60

Question 56

Which of the following models uses this four part cyclE. (part one - plan and organize; part two - acquire and implement; part three - deliver and support; part four - monitor)?

Options:

A.

COSO Model

B.

ISO Model

C.

Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award Model

D.

Enterprise Risk and Management Model

E.

CobiT Model

Question 57

The unit testing performed by a programmer is an example of:

Options:

A.

Quality Assurance

B.

Quality Control

C.

Walkthroughs

D.

Service-Level Agreements

E.

Customer Satisfaction

Question 58

Which task or tasks are helpful in building support for quality?

Options:

A.

Estimate the cost of quality

B.

Meet daily on quality

C.

Reward quality work

D.

All of the above

E.

A and C above

Question 59

While contracting for outsourced software development, ___________ refers to the rights of the customer to run the application system in more than one location.

Options:

A.

Maintainability

B.

Transportability

C.

Security

D.

Reliability

Question 60

Process Improvement is most effective when it is performed by:

Options:

A.

Owners of the Process

B.

Quality Assurance Personnel

C.

Independent Consultants

D.

Internal Auditors

E.

Professional Process Developers

Question 61

Which tool is used by teams to help create order out of chaos, by categorizing large numbers of ideas?

Options:

A.

Nominal Group Technique

B.

Cause and Effect Diagram

C.

Quality Function Deployment

D.

Force field analysis

E.

Affinity Diagram

Question 62

Processes containing only common causes of variation are considered stable.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 63

Controls are placed near the end of a process or workbench because this is the most appropriate location.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 64

Which type of control method does not cause interpersonal problems?

Options:

A.

Automatic

B.

Peer Reviews

C.

Supervisory

D.

Third Party

E.

None of the above

Question 65

The variable COUNTRY can have the response Afghanistan, Albania, … , Zimbabwe. The data type of the variable COUNTRY is:

Options:

A.

Ratio

B.

Ordinal

C.

Nominal

D.

Interval

Question 66

Philip Crosby's concept that "quality is free" means that:

Options:

A.

It is not necessary to budget for quality activities

B.

Quality activities provide a positive return on investment

C.

Quality activities come out of a corporate budget as opposed to an IT budget

D.

Individual work activities are not charged for quality activities

E.

Quality costs should be integrated into project costs

Question 67

Consensus is reached when all participants:

Options:

A.

Unanimously agree

B.

Refuse to agree

C.

Accept the agreed-upon resolution

D.

Allow the majority to decide

Question 68

Which of the following is NOT a component of a workbench? (A workbench is a graphic representation of a process.)

Options:

A.

Entrance Criteria (Inputs)

B.

Exit Criteria (Deliverables)

C.

Work Procedures

D.

Check Procedures

E.

Process Contract

Question 69

A "task force" is a cross-functional group organized for a specific purpose. Task force management principles include:

Options:

A.

Task force leader should be an expert in leading groups

B.

Task force should be organized for multiple purposes

C.

Task force needs a clear description of what is to be addressed

D.

All of the above

E.

A and C above

Question 70

Which of the following is NOT classified as a management tool?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Affinity Diagram

C.

Matrix

D.

Pie Chart

Question 71

Which technique is a structured, facilitated technique, where all team members participate by individually ranking ideas and then achieve consensus by combining the individual rankings?

Options:

A.

Nominal Group Technique

B.

Affinity Diagram

C.

Cause and Effect Diagram

D.

Control Chart

Question 72

When there is modification to the structure of a system, which testing type should be used?

Options:

A.

Recovery Testing

B.

Cycle Testing

C.

Regression Testing

D.

Equivalency Class Testing

E.

Structural Testing

Question 73

The team for establishing a security baseline should consist of:

Options:

A.

Individuals responsible for computer security

B.

Auditors for internal control activities

C.

Senior management

D.

All employees

Question 74

Customer software requirements are an attribute of a:

Options:

A.

Product / Service

B.

Process

C.

Metric

D.

Architecture

Question 75

____________ provides teams an opportunity to reach high-quality decisions with total team commitment.

Options:

A.

Consensus

B.

Compatibility

C.

Agreement

Question 76

An objective for conducting a 'baseline study' can be to identify quantitatively 'potential problems'.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 77

Though priority assigned to a defect is usually subjective, but are dependent on user input(s) or factor(s) such as:

Options:

A.

Importance of the defect

B.

Resources available to fix

C.

Risk

D.

A and B

E.

A, B, and C

Question 78

One of the first steps in establishing a security program is to develop a snapshot of the organization’s security program at a certain time. This snapshot is called:

Options:

A.

Security Snapshot

B.

Security Baseline

C.

Security Process

D.

Security Model

E.

Risk Assessment

Question 79

Responsibility for resolving a noncompliance may be enforced automatically through____________.

Options:

A.

Processes

B.

Templates

C.

Checklists

D.

Controls

Question 80

Quality cannot be delegated.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 81

Determining when to perform verification and validation relates to the life cycle methodology used for building the application or system. Explain why this relationship is critical for software testing phase and team.

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Options:

Question 82

Listed below are the five levels of maturing quality control processes. Describe each level and give an example of a specific process that occurs at that level.

Level 1 - Validation

Level 2 - Verification

Level 3 - Defect Management

Level 4 - Statistical Process Control

Level 5 - Preventive Management

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Options:

Question 83

What does it mean to do a "baseline study"?

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Question 84

There are a number of common activities that should exist during the Quality Planning Process. For the two activities listed below, describe the purpose and what the activity should address:

1. Objectives/Goals Planning

2. Assumptions/Potential Planning

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Question 85

One of the means to describe a work task or activity is a workbench; a workbench is a graphical representation of a work task. As a Quality Assurance Manager, one of your work tasks is to provide quality training for the IT staff. Describe the components on the workbench that you would use to train a single individual in the quality principles and indicate the entrance and exit criteria as well as the activity that you would perform for each component of the workbench.

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Options:

Question 86

To produce quality products and services, it very important to have mature deliverables processes, which translates the customer requirements correctly throughout the life cycle phases. Briefly describe each level of the five-level model for Deliverables Processes maturity.

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Question 87

Selecting the right organization to develop software is critical to successfully outsourcing development. The selection process must find a competent and compatible organization to develop all or part of the software development. List five concerns that need to be addressed when selecting an outsourced organization.

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Question 88

Explain why risk prioritization is important and give two methods used to prioritize risk.

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Question 89

The quality professional should not allow COTS or contracted software to be placed into operation without acceptance testing. At a minimum, what must acceptance testing validate?

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Question 90

Define static testing and dynamic testing. Give an example of a static test and give an example of a dynamic test.

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Question 91

Subjective baseline studies are commonly conducted studies in measuring quality and productivity. Define what is meant by "subjective", give three examples of products / services / processes that can be measured subjectively, and for each example given, explain how that subjective measure might be used to improve quality.

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Question 92

Explain how in QFD the customer and quality are at the foundation for downstream product design-and-development decisions.

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Question 93

It is very important 'to evaluate how employees feel about their manager or leader' to assess the climate of a specific organization or group. An assessment of an organization's 'climate' discovers if the employees' satisfaction level is positive or negative.

Options:

Question 94

What is Total Quality Management (TQM)? Describe four key points of the TQM approach.

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Question 95

How are the parameters of risk, probability, and impact determined?

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Total 639 questions