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SOFE AFE Dumps

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Total 286 questions

Accredited Financial Examiner Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is considered “pure” mortality protection?

Options:

A.

Life insurance

B.

Premium plan

C.

Transience policy

D.

Assurance plan

Question 2

A lower net retention level typically would translate into a higher v\variability of reserves.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 3

Asset and liability management is:

Options:

A.

An approach of matching assets and liabilities that requires a correct mix of long and short term investments.

B.

An approach of mix assets and liabilities in a financial statement that requires specific long and short term revenues.

C.

An approach of mix assets and liabilities in a financial statement that requires specific long and short term revenues.

D.

An approach of specific assets and liabilities in a financial statement that requires correct mix of long and short term revenues.

Question 4

___________ is an amount of money, loaned at interest for a specified term, secured by real estate and by its improvements such as buildings and infrastructure. This form of instrument itself varies by jurisdiction, but the debt is always evidenced by an accompanying promissory note.

Options:

A.

Mortgage Loan

B.

Real estate lending

C.

Conventional Commercial Loans

D.

CMBS

Question 5

An increase in loss reserves may lead to offset by a reduction in premiums and a decrease in loss reserves may be a receivable for additional premiums.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT included when initial acquisition of Subsidiary, Controlled and Affiliated Entities (SCA) is recorded as the sum of?

Options:

A.

any cash payment

B.

the fair value of other assets distributed

C.

the fair value of any expenses

D.

any direct costs of the acquisition

Question 7

The organizations in which the ownership and control of operations are vested in the policyholders are known as:

Options:

A.

Private entities

B.

Public entities

C.

Reciprocal entities

D.

Mutual entities

Question 8

Who is responsible for accounting for customer remittance advices and the agent’s current account?

Options:

A.

Accounts department

B.

Customer release policy

C.

Payment policy

D.

Premium collection department

Question 9

An entity’s practices concerning loss settlement, such as a practice of vigorously defending suits or of quickly settling suits, can have a significant effect on an entity’s loss experience.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 10

In many states, a claims-made insurance policy is required to:

Options:

A.

contain an extended-reporting clause

B.

provide for purchase, at the policyholder’s option

C.

provide for automatic tail coverage

D.

All of the above

Question 11

Selling a stream of contingent revenues to another party, at a discount to the expected value is called:

Options:

A.

Prioritized investment

B.

Reinsurance

C.

Profit

D.

Securitization.

Question 12

Sales of securities are recorded as of the trade date. A receivable due from the broker is established in instances when a security has been sold, but the proceeds from the sale have not been received. Receivable for securities not received within settlement date are non-admitted, and are classified as other than invested assets.

Options:

A.

15 days

B.

30 days

C.

35 days

D.

90 days

Question 13

There is pending litigation concerning the acquisition of a subsidiary and it is probable such litigation will result in its divestiture is an example of:

Options:

A.

Transaction control

B.

Subsidiary control

C.

Significance control

D.

Temporary control

Question 14

________ are contracts with the insurer which provide for periodic payments over a specified period or in specified amounts. In most respects they are administered and accounted for much like supplementary contracts without life contingencies since there are no mortality or morbidity considerations that affect the amount to be paid.

Options:

A.

Mixed stream

B.

Annuities certain

C.

Annuities due

D.

Ordinary Annuities

Question 15

What confirms the hypothesized interest rate sensitivities and shows that the two lines of business are fairly complementary?

Options:

A.

Harmonizing graph

B.

Balance curve

C.

Price behavior curve

D.

List pricing graph

Question 16

Changes in payment procedures or changes in the definition of payment date for coding purposes may or may not affect loss reserve developments.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 17

In a yield-maintenance agreement:

Options:

A.

the securities repurchased may have a different stated interest rate from that of the securities sold and are generally priced to result in substantially the same yield.

B.

the securities repurchased may have the same stated interest rate from that of the securities sold and are generally priced to result in substantially the same yield.

C.

the securities repurchased may have a different stated interest rate from that of the securities sold and are generally priced to result in substantially the different yield.

D.

the securities repurchased may have a same stated interest rate from that of the securities sold and are generally priced to result in substantially the different yield.

Question 18

The financial statements of which accounts maintained by insurance company that must be presented separately from the insurance company’s general account business?

Options:

A.

Business

B.

Temporal

C.

Principal

D.

Segregated

Question 19

The market in which the reporting entity would sell the asset or transfer the liability with the greatest volume and level of activity for the asset or liability is known as:

Options:

A.

Transfer market

B.

Transport market

C.

Principal market

D.

Turn-around market

Question 20

At the end of each reporting period, unearned premiums are calculated and the change in unearned premiums is recorded as a change or debit to premium income.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 21

In what, securities involve in repos are not delivered on the settlement date of the agreement and the contract may be extended upon mutual agreement of the buyer-lender and seller-borrower.

Options:

A.

Financial servicing

B.

Price-cap

C.

Rollover

D.

Purchasing agreements

Question 22

An attitude that includes a questioning mind and a critical assessment of audit evidence is called:

Options:

A.

Operational skepticism

B.

Audit skepticism

C.

Professional skepticism

D.

None of the above

Question 23

What is made on an instrument-by-instrument basis, generally when an instrument is initially recognized in the financial statements?

Options:

A.

Election

B.

Disclosure

C.

Eligibility

D.

Discount

Question 24

What seeks to identify and exploit existing or potential synergies in a company’s diverse business activities?

Options:

A.

Appropriate business decisions

B.

Holistic techniques

C.

Collateral strategies

D.

Reimbursement activities

Question 25

An annuity contract provides:

Options:

A.

Either immediately or at some future date, periodic income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain guaranteed number of payments or with a minimum guaranteed amount for those annuities not having life contingencies

B.

Either immediately or at some future date, periodic income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain guaranteed number of payments or with a minimum guaranteed amount for those annuities involving life contingencies

C.

Either immediately or at some future date, perpetual income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain guaranteed number of payments or with a maximum guaranteed amount for those annuities involving life contingencies

D.

Either immediately or at some future date, periodic income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain small number of payments

Question 26

The sum of values assigned by claims adjusters to specific known claims that were recorded by the insurance entity but not yet paid at the financial statement date is called:

Options:

A.

case-basis reserves

B.

computing reserves

C.

aggregate reserves

D.

None of the above

Question 27

GAAP have two important functions. First, they provide a set of standards that endeavor to measure with reasonable accuracy the assets held, liabilities owed, revenue earned, and expenses incurred by the company. For life insurance companies these measurement rules have been prescribed specifically for their specialized products. The second important function of GAAP is:

Options:

A.

To ensure the comparability of financial data from year to year within each company and with similar data prepared by other companies

B.

To ensure the comparability of financial data

C.

To ensure the comparability of financial data from month to month within each company and with similar data prepared by other companies

D.

To ensure the comparability of financial data from quarter to quarter within each company and with similar data prepared by other companies

Question 28

Investments in equities by a life insurance company may not exceed the total of

Options:

A.

70 percent of the insurance company’s regulatory capital

B.

15 percent of the liabilities in respect of non-participating policies

C.

25 percent of the liabilities in respect of participating policies

D.

All of the above

Question 29

A mismatch in the timing of asset maturities relative to policy benefits requiring either reinvestment or disinvestment by the insurer at uncertain future interest rates is known as:

Options:

A.

Reliable Mismatch Risk

B.

Maturity Mismatch Risk

C.

Change Mismatch Risk

D.

Risk Variance

Question 30

________________ is an agreement between two counterparties to enter into a particular transaction at a specified date in the future at an agreed-upon price.

Options:

A.

Future decision

B.

Future agreement

C.

Future contract

D.

Future cost plan

Question 31

Insurers issuing participating policies sometimes incur dividends which have been earned but which have not been disbursed or otherwise credited as of the financial statement date. Such dividends represent a due and unpaid liability amount. Reasons why dividends may be due and unpaid include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Premium payment transactions not recorded within the last processing cycle for the reporting period.

B.

All premiums paid to the anniversary date

C.

The policy anniversary date is near the end of the calendar year and the policyholder has elected to receive dividends in cash, but the cash dividend has not yet been disbursed

D.

The policy anniversary date is near the end of the calendar year and the policyholder has elected to have the dividend reduce the premiums, but the premium for the next policy year has not yet been received

Question 32

Reporting investments, set requirements regarding matters such as location of asset and set limitations on investing in future are all prescribed by a method called:

Options:

A.

Insurance investment

B.

State regulations

C.

Intent of investment

D.

Market security lending

Question 33

A basic premise underlying the application of is that it is reasonable to assume that plausible relationships among data exist and continue in the absence of known conditions to the contrary.

Options:

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Statistical claims

C.

Analytical procedures

D.

None of the above

Question 34

For Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), the four methods for reporting the results of operations and financial position of a subsidiary (investee) by a parent (investor) are:

Options:

A.

Renovation, Equity Basis, Market, Cost

B.

Consolidation, Equity Basis, Market, Cost

C.

Equity Basis, Market, Cost, Time

D.

Market, Cost, Performance, Time

Question 35

_______ include financial statements and notes, both on a consolidated and non consolidated basis.

Options:

A.

The annual Return

B.

Provincial Adequacy Return

C.

Constraints of self assessment

D.

Static Capital Adequacy Test

Question 36

Internal Control is:

Options:

A.

the process of controlling the impact of risk related events on a company

B.

the process of planning the processes in order to avoid risk related events to a company

C.

the process of designing the models to avoid risk related events on a company

D.

All of the above

Question 37

A change in _______ or its application is appropriate if the change results in a measurement that is equally or more representative of fair value in the circumstances.

Options:

A.

Valuation technique

B.

Value technique

C.

Investment approach

D.

Accounting corrections

Question 38

A private agreement to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset such as a currency, interest rate or commodity at a specified future date at a specified price is called:

Options:

A.

Forward investment plan

B.

Future agreement plan

C.

Future Contract

D.

Forward Contract

Question 39

What are especially effective in investment strategy, because of the powerful risk management attributes they provide?

Options:

A.

Investments trials

B.

Product design

C.

Communication benefits

D.

Derivative instruments

Question 40

In determining whether an operation is self-sustaining or integrated, what you do not need to consider is:

Options:

A.

source of financing

B.

nature of outputs

C.

price drivers

D.

location of the market

Question 41

The nature and extent of interest rate risk, credit risk, reinsurance risk and other significant risks should be disclosed is required for:

Options:

A.

Actuarial revenues

B.

Actuarial assets

C.

Actuarial liabilities

D.

Actuarial expenses

Question 42

The two basic methods for billing premiums are:

Options:

A.

policy and direct billing

B.

agency and direct billing

C.

collecting and indirect billing

D.

business and direct billing

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Total 286 questions