Labour Day Special - Limited Time 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: top65certs

Nokia 4A0-C02 Dumps

Page: 1 / 24
Total 639 questions

Nokia SRA Composite Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

A packet is to be encapsulated inside an MPLS tunnel which consists of two MPLS headers at the first network egress. Which of the MPLS EXP fields will be marked?

Options:

A.

The EXP field in the bottom MPLS header will be marked.

B.

The EXP field in both the top and bottom MPLS headers will be marked.

C.

For Layer 2 services, the top MPLS header will be marked; for Layer 3 services, the bottom MPLS header will be marked.

D.

The EXP field in the top MPLS header will be marked.

E.

Neither the top nor the bottom EXP field will be marked since EXP remarking can only be done on the network ingress.

Question 2

Click the exhibit button below. Given the scheduler-policy (below), how much bandwidth can the best-effort traffic receive (PIR and CIR) when the ingress rate of each queue is 10Mbps?

Options:

A.

PIR = 4Mbps. CIR = 1Mbps

B.

PIR = 1Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

C.

PIR = 10Mbps, CIR = 1Mbps

D.

PIR = 5Mbps, CIR = 1.25Mbps

E.

PIR = 1.25Mbps, CIR = 1.25Mbps

Question 3

Click the exhibit button below. Given the SAP-ingress policy, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

All AF traffic will be marked "in-profile" at the SAP-ingress.

B.

All TCP traffic will be mapped to forwarding class EF.

C.

UDP traffic is placed in queue 3 while ICMP traffic is placed in queue 5.

D.

EF traffic will receive higher scheduling priority than H2 traffic.

E.

Traffic that does not match any of the IP criteria will be placed in queue 3.

Question 4

Which of the following fields in frames belonging to a Layer 3 service CANNOT be marked or remarked on SAP-egress?

Options:

A.

Dotlp

B.

EXP

C.

DSCP

D.

PREC

Question 5

Which of the following statements about G.8032 Ethernet Ring Protection is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Uses standard Ethernet dot1q and QinQ encapsulation.

B.

Requires IS-1S as the protocol to carry control information.

C.

Ethernet Ring APS is a defined ITU standard.

D.

Standard Ethernet forwarding, learning, and flooding rules apply.

Question 6

Which of the following is uniquely identified by the VPLS-ID in an LDP VPLS using Auto-Discovery^*

Options:

A.

VPLS switch identifier.

B.

VPLS service identifier.

C.

VPLS router identifier to all PEs.

D.

A locally unique VPLS service identifier.

Question 7

Which of the following rate-limiting approaches are used on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Shapeless policing at SAP-ingress only.

B.

Shapeless policing at SAP-ingress and egress.

C.

Biased round robin queuing at ingress only.

D.

Soft shaping at all network interfaces.

E.

Soft shaping at network ingress only.

Question 8

Traffic assigned to forwarding classes is placed into queues, while the contents of the queues are serviced in a controlled manner using____________.

Options:

A.

WRED

B.

shapers

C.

schedulers

D.

markers

E.

weighted fair queues (WFQ)

Question 9

According to the SAP-egress policy configured and applied, which queue will EF traffic use?

Options:

A.

Queue 2 in "policer-output-queues," the default queue group used by policers on egress, because there are no queues in the "qg-10" queue-group template.

B.

The local SAP's queue 1, because there is no queue in the "qg-10" queue-group template for EF traffic.

C.

Queue 1 in the "qg-10" queue-group, because it exists by default and all traffic is mapped to it.

D.

EF traffic is dropped because there are no queues in the "qg-10" queue-group template.

Question 10

At which points can traffic be marked or remarked on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SAP-ingress only

B.

SAP-egress only

C.

SAP-ingress and SAP-egress

D.

Network ingress

E.

Network egress

Question 11

Which of the following is a feature of LDP VPLS?

Options:

A.

Service labels are assigned based used on label blocks.

B.

BGP-AD, RADIUS and Management are used for auto-discovery.

C.

Service labels are signaled using MP-BGP.

D.

Hierarchical VPLS is loosely defined in the standards.

Question 12

Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements in the Nokia 7750 SR QoS solution'

Options:

A.

Marking/Remarking

B.

Classification

C.

Encapsulation

D.

Scheduling

Question 13

When deploying an Alcatel-Lucent MPLS network with QoS, how are the EXP bits set?

Options:

A.

The first 3 bits of the DSCP value are copied directly into the EXP field on the first network egress.

B.

The EXP bits are set on the first network egress, based on a combination of the SAP-ingress classification and the network policy applied.

C.

The 3 priority bits are copied directly from the dot1p header into the EXP field of the first MPLS header.

D.

The EXP bits are set based on a default map that translates DSCP codes into internal forwarding classes on SAP-ingress.

Question 14

If packets egressing a SAP do not match any criteria defined in the SAP-egress policy, which forwarding class will these packets be assigned to?

Options:

A.

The default forwarding class defined in the SAP-egress policy.

B.

The forwarding class inherited from network ingress classification.

C.

Best Effort.

D.

If there is no match, packets will be dropped.

Question 15

Individual application streams are considered microflows, whereas __________ are considered macroflows.

Options:

A.

SAPs

B.

SDPs

C.

Services

D.

Queues

E.

Schedulers

F.

Forwarding classes

Question 16

Which of the following statements about a Management VPLS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Operates in transparent mode.

B.

Carries RSTP BPDUs only.

C.

Assigns RSTP state to other VPLS services.

D.

Allows load balancing among multiple management VPLS instances.

Question 17

According to the SAP-ingress QoS policy shown, what needs to be the depth of the CIR bucket of policer 5, as a minimum, for forwarded packets to start being marked as out-of-profile?

Options:

A.

1,000 tokens

B.

2,000 tokens

C.

10,000 tokens

D.

20,000 tokens

Question 18

In which of the following scenarios is self-generated traffic QoS (sgt-QoS) useful?

Options:

A.

EXP markings on transit control traffic are not set correctly.

B.

The priority of all self-generated traffic needs to be lowered to allow all other traffic to take precedence.

C.

The priority of various control packets requires special treatment throughout the network.

D.

The BGP process is consuming too many CPU cycles and is impacting OSPF performance.

Question 19

By default, how does a hybrid port on a Nokia 7750 SR share its allocated buffer space between access and network pools?

Options:

A.

All buffer space is initially allocated to access pools, and some of it is reallocated to network pools if network interfaces are configured on it.

B.

All buffer space is initially allocated to network pools, and some of it is reallocated to access pools if service SAPs are configured on it.

C.

Buffer space is allocated 50% for access pools and 50% for network pools.

D.

Buffer space is allocated 25% for access pools and 75% for network pools.

Question 20

Which of the following parameters are used in a hierarchical scheduler-policy to specify the priority of the child scheduler/queue for allocating bandwidth beyond its committed rate? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

CIR

B.

CIR level

C.

CIR weight

D.

Rate

E.

Level

F.

Weight

Question 21

Which of the following statements BEST describes an MBS parameter?

Options:

A.

It specifies the maximum rate at which a queue can be serviced.

B.

It specifies the maximum depth of a queue beyond which packets will be dropped.

C.

It specifies the portion of a queue that is taken from the reserved buffer pool.

D.

It specifies the threshold beyond which only in-profile packets will be queued.

E.

It specifies the peak bandwidth that can be attained by the incoming traffic.

Question 22

Without_______, a customer's high priority traffic can be dropped before its low priority traffic.

Options:

A.

packet filtering

B.

prioritization of traffic flows

C.

least cost routing

D.

OAM functionality

E.

separation between the data plane and the control plane

Question 23

Click the exhibit button below. Each router is interconnected by a single GigE link, as shown in the diagram below.

Note: The arrows show the direction of traffic flow.

Traffic from Customer A and Customer B that is classified to the same forwarding class is queued together at the ingress of Router B.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 24

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, what is the maximum number of queues that a single SAP-ingress policy can support in a VPLS?

Options:

A.

16

B.

8

C.

32

D.

48

E.

56

Question 25

Click the exhibit.

According to the display, a BGP loop is detected for route 192.168.1.0/27. On which router is this command executed?

Options:

A.

CE1

B.

CE2

C.

PE1

D.

PE2

Question 26

Which of the following is a benefit of a hub and spoke VPRN topology?

Options:

A.

Reduced number of VPN tunnels that need to be managed.

B.

Optimal routing between all sites.

C.

Limited configuration required on the hub PE device.

D.

Site to site redundancy support.

Question 27

Which of the following about inter-AS model A VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It requires the configuration of back-to-back VRFs between ASBR routers in different autonomous systems

B.

It is the most scalable of the Inter-AS models.

C.

Most routers that support VPRN functionality support model A by default.

D.

It uses conventional eBGP to distribute unlabeled IPv4 routes between ASBR routers in different autonomous systems.

Question 28

Based on the VPRN BGP decision process, which of the following routes is selected first?

Options:

A.

The route with the shortest AS path.

B.

The route with the lowest route or tunnel table cost to the NEXT_HOP.

C.

The route with the highest local preference.

D.

The route with the lowest originator ID or BGP identifier.

Question 29

Based on the VPRN BGP decision process, which of the following routes is selected first?

Options:

A.

The route with the lowest MED.

B.

The route with the shortest AS Path.

C.

The route received from the lowest peer IP address.

D.

The route with the lowest Origin.

Question 30

How was standard BGP modified to allow it to carry routing information for VPRNs?

Options:

A.

By using the MED attribute to carry the OSPF metric.

B.

By defining Extended Communities for use as the Route Target

C.

By using the Cluster List attribute to carry the network prefix

D.

By defining support for the VPN-IPv4 address family

E.

By adding an additional field to the BGP Update to carry the VPRN label

Question 31

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which route is NOT present in PE1's global routing table?

Options:

A.

192.60.100.0

B.

10.10.10.6

C.

10.10.10.3

D.

192.50.1.1

Question 32

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which of the following configuration steps is NOT required?

Options:

A.

Configuring iBGP sessions between PEs residing in different customer carrier sites,

B.

Configuring a policy on each CSC-CE to advertise local PE addresses to the network provider.

C.

Configuring a CSC VPRN on each CSC-PE with a SAP interface towards the attached CSC-CE.

D.

Configuring an IES service on PEL

Question 33

Which of the following about inter-AS model B VPRN is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The ASBRs use MP-eBGP to peer with each other and exchange IPv4 routes between autonomous systems.

B.

The ASBRs use MP-iBGP to peer with PE routers in their autonomous system and exchange VPN-IPv4 routes.

C.

The ASBRs maintain a mapping of labels for IPv4 routes exchanged between autonomous systems.

D.

The ASBRs require per-VPRN configuration.

Question 34

What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Memory exhaustion in the provider core

B.

Route leaking between the customer networks

C.

CPU utilization for route processing

D.

Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks

Question 35

Click the exhibit.

The CLI command "remove-private" is configured on PE1 to eliminate BGP loops in the VPRN. For the displayed route, what is the value of the AS-Path field?

Options:

A.

64496 64512

B.

64512

C.

64496

D.

64512 64496

Question 36

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following protocols is used to advertise routes between PE1 and ASBRI?

Options:

A.

iBGP

B.

eBGP

C.

MP-iBGP

D.

MP-eBGP

Question 37

Which of the following about inter-AS model B VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Model B does not require the configuration of VPRN instances on ASBRs.

B.

The ASBRs peer with each other to transport VPN-IPv4 routes between autonomous systems.

C.

PE routers distribute VPN-IPv4 routes to their local ASBR.

D.

One single ASBR is required in each AS to hold the routes for all VPRNs.

Question 38

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model A VPRN. BGP is used as the PE-CE routing protocol. Which of the following statements about the control plane operation is TRUE?

Options:

A.

PE1 sends an IPv4 update for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 via MP-BGP to ASBR1.

B.

ASBR1 sends an IPv4 update for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to ASBR2.

C.

ASBR1 transforms an IPv4 update for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to a VPN-IPv4 route; allocates VPN label V1 and sends the update to ASBR2.

D.

ASBR2 accepts a VPN-IPv4 update from ASBR1, then sends the update to PE2 via MP-BGP.

Question 39

Click the exhibit.

The headquarter sites of VPRN 10 and VPRN 20 ate part of an extranet VPRN. Which of the following communities are included in the export policy applied to VPRN 10 on router R1?

Options:

A.

"Extranet-VPN-Blue" and "Extranet-VPN-Green"

B.

"Blue-Only"

C.

"Extranet-VPN-Blue"

D.

"Blue-Green"

Question 40

Which command may be used on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to verify the number of VRF routes allowed, based on the maximum routes value configured in the service instance?

Options:

A.

Show service id base

B.

Show router bgp routes

C.

Show service id maximum-routes

D.

Show router status

Question 41

Which of the following about BGP Site of Origin (SoO) is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The SoO attribute can be used to uniquely identify the site from which a PE learns routes.

B.

Before a PE redistributes a VPN-IPv4 route, it can assign an SoO attribute to the route.

C.

The SoO attribute can be used to prevent loops from a single site with multiple CE-PE connections.

D.

The SoO attribute can be used as matching criteria when redistributing routes from the CE to the PE.

Question 42

Given the following VPRN topology: The VPRN service 10 is correctly configured and operational with OSPF as the PE to CE routing protocol at both customer sites. The OSPF database on CE-A contains Type 1 LSAs. These routes will appear as what LSA type on CE-B?

Options:

A.

These routes will not appear on CE-B

B.

Type 1 LSAs

C.

Type 3 LSAs

D.

Type 5 LSAs

E.

Type 7 LSAs

Question 43

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model C VPRN, which router is configured as shown?

Options:

A.

PE1

B.

RR1

C.

ASBR1

D.

ASBR2

Question 44

Click the exhibit.

One Route Distinguisher is assigned per VRF. If CE1 and CE2 advertise prefix 10.1.1.0/24, which of the following statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 and PE2 advertise the same VPN route to the route reflector.

B.

The route reflector receives two routes for prefix 10.1.1.0/24; one from PE1 and one from PE2.

C.

The route reflector reflects two routes for prefix 10.1.1.0/24.

D.

PE3 receives two routes and is able to load balance traffic across PE1 and PE2.

Question 45

Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN?(Choose three)

Options:

A.

VPRN

B.

BGP/MPLS VPN

C.

VLL

D.

VPLS

E.

IP-VPN

F.

ePipe

Question 46

Click the exhibit.

For the CE hub and spoke VPRN, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The primary VRF on PE1 contains routes learned from spoke sites.

B.

All traffic between spoke sites must pass through CE1.

C.

The secondary VRF on PE1 is used to route data packets from the hub CE to the spoke sites.

D.

PE1 advertises the primary VRF routes to CE1.

Question 47

Which protocol is used to exchange customer VPRN routes between PE devices?

Options:

A.

OSPF

B.

ISIS

C.

MP-BGP

D.

BGP

E.

Targeted LDP

Question 48

Assuming that as-override has been used, which of the following statements describes the most likely location of prefix 10.1.2.0/24, based on the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

It is located in an Autonomous System directly connected to this router

B.

There is a single Autonomous System between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix

C.

There are two Autonomous Systems between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix

D.

There may be two or more Autonomous Systems between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix

E.

It is located in Autonomous System 65100

Question 49

The user of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR wants to see the effect of changing an import policy immediately. What is the best command to force re-evaluation of the import policy with minimal impact?

Options:

A.

Configure router bgp shutdown

B.

Clear router bgp neighbor soft

C.

Clear router bgp neighbor soft-inbound

D.

Clear router bgp protocol

Question 50

Which of the following prefix lists include prefixes 192.168.128.0/17 and 192.168.64.0/18?

Options:

A.

Prefix list 192.168.0.0/16 through 18.

B.

Prefix 192.168.0.0/17 longer.

C.

Prefix list 192.168.0.0/17 through 18.

D.

Prefix 192.160.0.0/13 longer.

Question 51

When an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a BGP route with an AS Path loop, what action is taken by default?

Options:

A.

The route is ignored.

B.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the LOC-RIB.

C.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the RIB-In.

D.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the RIB-Out.

Question 52

Click the exhibit.

An update travels from AS 137000 to AS 135000, traversing both 32-bit and 16-bit AS Paths.

What AS Path is seen by AS 200?

Options:

A.

140000 137000

B.

137000 140000

C.

23456 23456

D.

200 140000 137000

Question 53

Assuming that "client1" and "client2" are directly-connected networks, what is the result of executing the following BGP export policy?

Options:

A.

"client1" routes will be tagged with communities "North" and "West".

B.

"client1" routes will be tagged with community "West".

C.

"client1" routes will be tagged with community "North".

D.

"client1" routes will be rejected.

Question 54

Which of the following describes BGP route processing on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

If no import policy is specified, all valid BGP routes are passed to the BGP route selection process.

B.

If no export policy is specified, all non-BGP routes are populated into RIB-Out.

C.

If no import policy is specified, all BGP routes are populated into the route table.

D.

If no import policy is specified, only valid BGP routes are populated into RIB-Out.

Question 55

The following policies are configured and exported using "export "Policy-1" "Policy-2"". Assuming both "Client-1" and "Client-2" are properly defined on the router, which routes are advertised?

Options:

A.

Client-1 routes only.

B.

Client-2 routes only.

C.

Client-1 and Client-2 routes.

D.

Neither Client-1 nor Client-2 routes.

Question 56

A confederated AS is comprised of three members. One member is comprised of 4 routers, while the other two members are comprised of 3 routers each. Assuming member ASs are fully meshed and use full mesh iBGP, what is the required number of BGP sessions within the confederation?

Options:

A.

12

B.

13

C.

14

D.

15

Question 57

From what range are 16-bit private AS numbers selected?

Options:

A.

64496 – 64511

B.

1 – 56319

C.

64512-65534

D.

64513-65535

E.

There are no defined private AS numbers; there are only private IP addresses.

Question 58

Click the exhibit.

Router R6 is a route reflector for clients R1, R2 and R5. Router R5 is configured with a local preference of 200. On which routers is "advertise-external* needed for router R6 to receive exactly two distinct routes for prefix 192.168.1.0/27?

Options:

A.

On router R5 only.

B.

On either router R1or R2.

C.

On both routers R1and R2.

D.

On all routers R1, R2 and R5.

Question 59

Router R1, in AS 65540, has the export policy shown below. It advertises an aggregate route to eBGP peer router R2 in 65550. What is the AS Path of the aggregate route received by router R2?

Options:

A.

65540

B.

65540 1

C.

65540 65540

D.

65550 65540

Question 60

What class of attribute is Originator_ID?

Options:

A.

Well-known mandatory.

B.

Well-known discretionary.

C.

Optional transitive.

D.

Optional non-transitive.

Question 61

Based on the default settings for the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, when a policy change is made and committed, what action is required by the user for the change to take effect?

Options:

A.

Execute a command to re-evaluate all routes in the Local-RIB against the configured export policies.

B.

Execute a command to re-evaluate all routes in the RIB-In against the configured import policies.

C.

Execute a command to reset the BGP session with the affected peer or peers.

D.

No further action is required.

Question 62

Which of the following regarding the withdrawal of routes from one BGP speaker to another is

TRUE?

Options:

A.

An update message is used. Only a single prefix can be withdrawn at a time.

B.

An update message is used. Multiple prefixes can be withdrawn at a time.

C.

A withdraw message is used. Only a single prefix can be withdrawn at a time.

D.

A withdraw message is used. Multiple prefixes can be withdrawn at a time.

Question 63

Which of the following prefix-lists is the most specific match for prefix 172.31.2.1/24?

Options:

A.

Prefix 172.16.0.0/12 longer.

B.

Prefix 172.31.0.0/22 longer.

C.

Prefix 172.31.0.0/23 longer.

D.

Prefix 172.31.0.0/24 exact.

Question 64

Assuming that "client1" and "client2" are directly-connected networks, what is the result of executing the following BGP export policy?

Options:

A.

Only entry 10 is executed for "client1" and "client2".

B.

Entries 10 and 20 are executed for "client1", and entries 10 and 30 are executed for "client2".

C.

Entries 10 and 20 are executed for "client1", and entries 10, 20 and 30 are executed for

"client2".

D.

Entry 10 is executed for directly-connected routes, entry 20 for "client1" and entry 30 for "client2".

Question 65

What is the purpose of configuring a triggered-policy on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Policy changes are delayed until the peer router with the affected routes reboots.

B.

Policy changes are delayed until route updates for affected BGP routes are received from peers.

C.

Policy changes are delayed until BGP sessions are cleared or BGP is reset.

D.

Policy changes are delayed until the router reboots.

Question 66

Click the exhibit.

Router R2 receives a route to 192.168.4.0/29 from router R4 and sets the local preference to 110.

Router R1 receives the route to 192.168.4.0/29 from router R3, and sets the local preference to

80. There is a full iBGP mesh in AS 65540, but router R5 only has a physical connection to router R1. Which path does traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/29 take from router R5?

Options:

A.

R5-R2-R4-R8

B.

R5-R1-R3-R4-R8

C.

R5-R1-R2-R4-R8

D.

R5-R1-R3-R7-R8

Question 67

Which of the following statements regarding Internet Exchange Points is FALSE?

Options:

A.

They provide both peering and transit services.

B.

They provide services only to Tier 1 service providers.

C.

They can be either public or private.

D.

They provide services at the local, regional and continental levels.

Question 68

Click the exhibit.

Routers RR1 and RR2 are route reflectors with the same cluster-ID. How many updates for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 are received at router RR1?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 69

How is the aggregator attribute handled with 32-bit AS numbers?

Options:

A.

With the same method and attribute as 16-bit AS numbers.

B.

With the same method as 16-bit AS numbers, but using the AS4_Aggregator attribute.

C.

Aggregation is not yet supported with 32-bit AS numbers.

D.

By using a dummy value of 23456 in the 16-bit AS aggregator field. This value lets the router know it needs to read the 32-bit AS number that is contained in the nextTLV.

Question 70

Which of the following is NOT considered an option of import policies?

Options:

A.

Preventing unwanted NLRI from entering the AS.

B.

Filtering NLRI based on AS Path or prefix-lists,

C.

Modifying the local preference of route advertisements.

D.

Setting MED values of route advertisements.

Question 71

What kind of BGP attribute is the Multi_Exit_Disc?

Options:

A.

Optional transitive attribute.

B.

Optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Well-known mandatory attribute.

D.

Well-known discretionary attribute.

Question 72

Click on the exhibit.

AS 65540 is using MPLS to provide BGP shortcuts for its iBGP routing. Which routers must be configured with the "configure router bgp igp-shortcuts rsvp-te" command?

Options:

A.

Routers R6, R1, R4 and R5.

B.

Routers R1and R4.

C.

Routers R1, R2, R3 and R4.

D.

Routers R2 and R3.

Question 73

IEEE 802.3ah is similar to SONET/SDH in that it can count and report bit errors and frame errors.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 74

An l-VPLS is configured with a service id of 511. What will the value of the l-SID be assuming a default configuration?

Options:

A.

The 1-SID must be explicitly configured.

B.

The 1-SID only supports a range from 1 to 255.

C.

The 1-SID will default to 511 .the value of the service-id.

D.

Thel"SIDwilldefaultto131582, the value of the service-id + 131071.

Question 75

Consider a large metro-to-metro VPLS network interconnected with a mesh of mesh-SDPs. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to this situation?

Options:

A.

Bandwidth and replication inefficiency can occur on inter-metro links if there is a lot of multicast traffic

B.

The number of control sessions grows exponentially in a fully meshed network.

C.

Spanning-tree is required to prevent loops when using mesh SDPs on the inter-metro links.

D.

Network touches increase with each node added to the mesh.

Question 76

What is the SA in the Ethernet frame used for by a layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

MAC learning

B.

SA filtering

C.

Routing table population

D.

Frame forwarding

Question 77

Click on the exhibit below.

Assuming there is a full mesh of mesh-SDPs between the PEs within each metro network and a spoke-SDP between PE-C of Metro A and PE-B of Metro B. how is traffic forwarded from PE-A in Metro A to PE-D of Metro B? Select the most accurate statement.

Options:

A.

An LSP must be configured between PE-A and PE-D for this traffic to be forwarded.

B.

A VPLS FDB lookup is done at PE-A of Metro A only

C.

An SDP must be configured between PE-A of Metro A and PE-D of Metro D for this traffic to be forwarded

D.

A VPLS FDB lookup is done at PE-A and PE-C of Metro A and PE-B of Metro B

Question 78

How does PBB forward broadcast, unknown-unicast and multicast traffic from a B-VPLS to an l-VPLS?

Options:

A.

The receiving PE checks the l-TAG in the l-SID to determine if there is a local l-VPLS on the node.

B.

The receiving PE checks the l-SID in the l-TAG to determine if there is a local l-VPLS on the node.

C.

The receiving PE checks the service label in the mpls header to determine if there is a local l-VPLS on the node.

D.

The receiving PE checks the multicast B-DA to see if an l-SID has been mapped to the B-DA that matches a local l-VPLS on the node.

Question 79

Click on the exhibit below.

Which ports will become root ports? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Bridge B 1/1/3

B.

Bridge B 1/1/2

C.

Bridge C 1/1/2

D.

Bridge C 2/1/1

E.

Bridge D 1/1/1

F.

Bridge D 1/1/3

G.

Bridge E 1/1/1

Question 80

Which of the following is a true statement?

Options:

A.

In a dynamic environment where MAC addresses are changing rapidly, the lower the age-time, the larger the fdb-table-size should be.

B.

In a dynamic environment where MAC addresses are changing rapidly, the higher the age-time, the larger the fdb-table-size should be.

C.

In a dynamic environment where MAC addresses are changing rapidly, the higher the age-time, the smaller the fdb-table-size should be.

D.

There is no relationship between the age-time and the fdb-table-size.

Question 81

How is the Primary Bridge chosen in a VPLS?

Options:

A.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh run a separate Spanning Tree instance in the Core. The Primary Bridge is the Root Bridge for the VPLS mesh.

B.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge is closest to Root Bridge. This bridge becomes the Primary Bridge.

C.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge has the lowest bridge-id. This bridge becomes the Primary Bridge.

D.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge is the Root Bridge. This becomes the Primary Bridge.

Question 82

Click on the exhibit below.

In the diagram below, SAP 1 is put into the blocking state as a result of the spanning tree protocol. What will occur in the VPLS instance if SAP 2 goes down and SAP 1 transitions to the forwarding state? Select the most accurate statement.

Options:

A.

A Spanning Tree BPDU will be sent across the mesh flushing the FDB table in all devices participating in the VPLS instance.

B.

Stale information will be used within the VPLS instance to forward traffic until the FDB ages out.

C.

An LDP control message will be sent to all devices in the mesh participating in the VPLS instance. Only MAC addresses associated with the PE that the failure occurred on will be flushed.

D.

An LDP control message will be sent to all devices in the mesh participating in the VPLS instance. The entire FDB in the VPLS instance will be flushed.

Question 83

When ports configured with IEEE 802.3ah EFM are operationally down, what must the device do before declaring the ports are up?

Options:

A.

The device will try to force the other side up using the evaluating flag in the PDU.

B.

The device will wait for the trasmit-interval of 5 before trying to rediscover the neighbor.

C.

The device will detect the port change and will wait for normal operation mode.

D.

The device will detect the port change and revert to discovery mode.

Question 84

Which of the following needs to be considered when designing Ethernet networks with redundancy?

Options:

A.

Processing the TTL takes extra time.

B.

MAC learning rate is doubled.

C.

FDB size is doubled.

D.

Requires a protocol to remove loops.

Question 85

Click on the exhibit below.

The MDU attached to this PE has been configured with active/standby SDP's configuration option has been configured for the PE to recognize that this SDP is in standby mode?

Options:

A.

On the PE the endpoint has been configured with "supress-standby-signalling"

B.

On the PE the endpoint has been configured with "no supress-standby-signalling"

C.

On the MDU the endpoint has been configured with "supress-standby-signalling"

D.

On the MDU the endpoint has been configured with "no supress-standby-signalling1

Question 86

Which of the following statements relating to VPLS is false?

Options:

A.

A VPLS is a multipoint Layer 2 service.

B.

A VPLS allows multiple customer sites to be connected in a single bridged domain.

C.

A VPLS on a single node requires a SDP.

D.

With an IP/MPLS infrastructure, service providers can provide multiple VPLS services over a common IP/MPLS infrastructure.

E.

The VPLS switches traffic based on MAC address associated to the appropriate SAP.

Question 87

Click on the exhibit below.

If the SDP between R2 and R1 goes down, what devices will be reachable from R2 through the VPLS?

Options:

A.

Only R4 will be reachable through the VPLS.

B All devices will be reachable through the VPLS.

B.

R4 and R3 will remain reachable.

C.

No devices will be reachable.

Question 88

Which of the following describes the scope of the IEEE 802.3ah EFM standard? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Monitor and troubleshoot a point-to-point full-duplex link.

B.

Monitor and troubleshoot end-to-end services.

C.

Can be used at the core to trigger MPLS protection mechanisms when a physical failure detection is not possible.

D.

Should not be used at the core to trigger MPLS protection. BFD is the only method that can be used when physical failure detection is not possible.

E.

Valuable in the last-mile connection to the Service Provider demarcation device.

Question 89

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the IEEE 802.3ah EFM standard?

Options:

A.

Discovery and auto-negotiation of OAM capabilities.

B.

Link monitoring via event notifications.

C.

Remote failure indication (RFI).

D.

Remote Loopback

E.

Latency and jitter across a service.

Question 90

In RSTP, how is the root bridge selected?

Options:

A.

The switch with the highest bridge-id is selected as root.

B.

The switch with the lowest bridge-id is selected as root.

C.

The switch with the highest MAC address is selected as root

D.

The switch with the lowest MAC address is selected as root.

Question 91

What is the MTU impact on the SDP path-mtu if fast reroute, one-to-one mode is implemented on the LSP?

Options:

A.

There will be no impact on the path-mtu.

B.

The path-mtu will decrease by4 bytes.

C.

The path-mtu will increase by 4 bytes.

D.

The path-mtu will decrease by 8 bytes.

E.

The path-mtu will increase by 8 bytes.

Question 92

A customer has requested a VPLS service. The customer is using dot1q encapsulation and they have requested that all vlan tags be transparently passed. Which two SAP IDs will accept VLAN tags and pass them transparently? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1

B.

sap 1/1/1:0*

C.

sap 1/1/1:0

D.

sap 1/1/1:*

Question 93

Click on the exhibit below.

In the following diagram, traffic ingressing on SAP 1/2/3:1 will be passed to the layer-2 DPI device for inspection based on a filter policy applied to the ingress of the SAP. What feature should be enabled on SAP 1/2/1:100 and SAP 1/2/2:100 to ensure that incorrect information is not populated in the FDB of VPLS 1?

Options:

A.

Learning should be disabled on both SAPs connected to the DPI device to prevent FDB instability

B.

A MAC filter should be applied to both SAPs connected to the DPI to limit MAC learning on the port

C.

An IP filter should be applied to both SAPs connected to the DPI to prevent FDB instability

D.

The SAPs connected to the DPI should be configured with the "discard-unknown" feature to limit MAC learning on the port

Question 94

Click on the exhibit below.

Based on the following output what will the vc-id be of any mesh-sdp bound to this service?

Options:

A.

9000

B.

1514

C.

1000

D.

100

Question 95

Click on the exhibit below.

How many LSPs are required in total between Metro A and Metro B if 100 hierarchical VPLS services are deployed across the two metro networks?

Options:

A.

100

B.

200

C.

1

D.

2

Page: 1 / 24
Total 639 questions