Summer Special Limited Time 60% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 60certs

Checkpoint 156-315.80 Dumps

Page: 1 / 17
Total 462 questions

Check Point Certified Security Expert (CCSE) R80 Questions and Answers

Question 1

You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

Options:

A.

Inspect/Bypass

B.

Inspect/Prevent

C.

Prevent/Bypass

D.

Detect/Bypass

Question 2

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Stateful Inspection

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

Question 3

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.

Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

Options:

A.

IKE Phase 1

B.

IPSEC Phase 2

C.

IPSEC Phase 1

D.

IKE Phase 2

Question 4

Office mode means that:

Options:

A.

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

B.

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

C.

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

D.

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

Question 5

Which packet info is ignored with Session Rate Acceleration?

Options:

A.

source port ranges

B.

source ip

C.

source port

D.

same info from Packet Acceleration is used

Question 6

Aaron is a Syber Security Engineer working for Global Law Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances running GAiA R80.X The Network Security Developer Team is having an issue testing the API with a newly deployed R80.X Security Management Server Aaron wants to confirm API services are working properly. What should he do first?

Options:

A.

Aaron should check API Server status with "fwm api status" from Expert mode If services are stopped, he should start them with "fwm api start".

B.

Aaron should check API Server status with "cpapi status" from Expert mode. If services are stopped, he should start them with "cpapi start"

C.

Aaron should check API Server status with "api status" from Expert mode If services are stopped, he should start them with "api start"

D.

Aaron should check API Server status with "cpm api status" from Expert mode. If services are stopped, he should start them with "cpi api start".

Question 7

What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

Options:

A.

Firewall logs

B.

Configuration and database files

C.

System message logs

D.

OS and network statistics

Question 8

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

Options:

A.

cphaprob interface

B.

cphaprob –I interface

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

cphaprob stat

Question 9

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Options:

A.

Run cprestart from clish

B.

After upgrading the hardware, increase the number of kernel instances using cpconfig

C.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.

Hyperthreading must be enabled in the bios to use CoreXL

Question 10

Which is the least ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Options:

A.

Synchronized

B.

Never been synchronized

C.

Lagging

D.

Collision

Question 11

What are the blades of Threat Prevention?

Options:

A.

IPS, DLP, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

B.

DLP, AntiVirus, QoS, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

C.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot

D.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

Question 12

Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

Options:

A.

15 sec

B.

60 sec

C.

5 sec

D.

30 sec

Question 13

Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

Options:

A.

To satellites through center only

B.

To center only

C.

To center and to other satellites through center

D.

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets

Question 14

Where you can see and search records of action done by R80 SmartConsole administrators?

Options:

A.

In SmartView Tracker, open active log

B.

In the Logs & Monitor view, select “Open Audit Log View”

C.

In SmartAuditLog View

D.

In Smartlog, all logs

Question 15

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R80 configuration.

Options:

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport -p

D.

cpinfo –recover

Question 16

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated.

What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Options:

A.

There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated.

B.

The connection required a Security server.

C.

Acceleration is not enabled.

D.

The traffic is originating from the gateway itself.

Question 17

Which GUI client is supported in R80?

Options:

A.

SmartProvisioning

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartLog

Question 18

You are the administrator for ABC Corp. You have logged into your R80 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.

What does this mean?

Options:

A.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for deletion in your Management session.

B.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for deletion in another Management session.

C.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for editing in your Management session.

D.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for editing in another Management session.

Question 19

To find records in the logs that shows log records from the Application & URL Filtering Software Blade where traffic was dropped, what would be the query syntax?

Options:

A.

blada: application control AND action:drop

B.

blade."application control AND action;drop

C.

(blade: application control AND action;drop)

D.

blade;"application control AND action:drop

Question 20

What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?

Options:

A.

new host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

B.

set host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

C.

create host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

D.

add host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

Question 21

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Options:

A.

Upon creation of a certificate.

B.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

C.

When an administrator decides to create one.

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

Question 22

Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.

Options:

A.

Accept; redirect

B.

Accept; drop

C.

Redirect; drop

D.

Drop; accept

Question 23

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob-a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

Question 24

Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?

Options:

A.

Lock database override

B.

Unlock database override

C.

Unlock database lock

D.

Lock database user

Question 25

The following command is used to verify the CPUSE version:

Options:

A.

HostName:0>show installer status build

B.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status

C.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status build

D.

HostName:0>show installer build

Question 26

There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R80 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Using Web Services

B.

Using Mgmt_cli tool

C.

Using CLISH

D.

Using SmartConsole GUI console

E.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow from Trouble Ticket systems

Question 27

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

Options:

A.

Once a week

B.

Once an hour

C.

Twice per day

D.

Once per day

Question 28

The log server sends what to the Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

Authentication requests

B.

CPMI dbsync

C.

Logs

D.

Event Policy

Question 29

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_”cpview process ID”.cap”number of captures”?

Options:

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

Question 30

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

Options:

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

Question 31

CoreXL is supported when one of the following features is enabled:

Options:

A.

Route-based VPN

B.

IPS

C.

IPv6

D.

Overlapping NAT

Question 32

Which features are only supported with R80.10 Gateways but not R77.x?

Options:

A.

Access Control policy unifies the Firewall, Application Control & URL Filtering, Data Awareness, and Mobile Access Software Blade policies.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

D.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

Question 33

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

Question 34

What are the two high availability modes?

Options:

A.

Load Sharing and Legacy

B.

Traditional and New

C.

Active and Standby

D.

New and Legacy

Question 35

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

Options:

A.

Add rba user roles

B.

Add rba user

C.

Add user roles

D.

Add user

Question 36

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the status of processes.

B.

Sending and receiving logs.

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server.

D.

Generating and modifying certificates.

Question 37

Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace both offer secured connection for remote users who are using their mobile devices. However, there are differences between the two.

Which of the following statements correctly identify each product's capabilities?

Options:

A.

Workspace supports ios operating system, Android, and WP8, whereas Connect supports ios operating system and Android only

B.

For compliance/host checking, Workspace offers the MDM cooperative enforcement, whereas Connect offers both jailbreak/root detection and MDM cooperative enforcement.

C.

For credential protection, Connect uses One-time Password login support and has no SSO support, whereas Workspace offers both One-Time Password and certain SSO login support.

D.

Workspace can support any application, whereas Connect has a limited number of application types which it will support.

Question 38

To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch on

B.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch enable

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 4

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

Question 39

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

Question 40

According to out of the box SmartEvent policy, which blade will automatically be correlated into events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

Question 41

Which of the following Windows Security Events will not map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Question 42

CoreXL is NOT supported when one of the following features is enabled: (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Route-based VPN

B.

IPS

C.

IPv6

D.

Overlapping NAT

Question 43

ClusterXL is fully supported by Gaia and available to all Check Point appliances. Which command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?

Options:

A.

cphaprob stat

B.

cphaprob -a if

C.

cphaprob -I list

D.

cphaprob all show stat

Question 44

To optimize Rule Base efficiency, the most hit rules should be where?

Options:

A.

Removed from the Rule Base.

B.

Towards the middle of the Rule Base.

C.

Towards the top of the Rule Base.

D.

Towards the bottom of the Rule Base.

Question 45

NAT rules are prioritized in which order?

1. Automatic Static NAT

2. Automatic Hide NAT

3. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

4. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3, 4

B.

1, 4, 2, 3

C.

3, 1, 2, 4

D.

4, 3, 1, 2

Question 46

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

Question 47

Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R80 gateways is installed during the _______ .

Options:

A.

Firewall policy install

B.

Threat Prevention policy install

C.

Anti-bot policy install

D.

Access Control policy install

Question 48

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

Question 49

GAIA greatly increases operational efficiency by offering an advanced and intuitive software update agent, commonly referred to as the:

Options:

A.

Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

Check Point Software Update Agent

C.

Check Point Remote Installation Daemon (CPRID)

D.

Check Point Software Update Daemon

Question 50

What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

Options:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

4

D.

6

Question 51

Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?

Options:

A.

Auditor

B.

Read Only All

C.

Super User

D.

Full Access

Question 52

Which NAT rules are prioritized first?

Options:

A.

Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

B.

Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Automatic Static NAT

Question 53

Which one of the following is true about Capsule Connect?

Options:

A.

It is a full layer 3 VPN client

B.

It offers full enterprise mobility management

C.

It is supported only on iOS phones and Windows PCs

D.

It does not support all VPN authentication methods

Question 54

What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R80.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solution?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

B.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

C.

Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

D.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

Question 55

N NO: 211

The essential means by which state synchronization works to provide failover in the event an active member goes down, ____________ is used specifically for clustered environments to allow gateways to report their own state and learn about the states of other members in the cluster.

Options:

A.

ccp

B.

cphaconf

C.

cphad

D.

cphastart

Question 56

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?

Options:

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

Question 57

Installations and upgrades with CPUSE require that the CPUSE agent is up-to-date. Usually the latest build is downloaded automatically. How can you verify the CPUSE agent build?

Options:

A.

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

B.

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status version

C.

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

D.

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer agent

Question 58

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

Question 59

What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?

Options:

A.

The number of cores must be the same on every participating cluster node

B.

The Magic MAC number must be unique per cluster node

C.

The Sync interface must not have an IP address configured

D.

If you have “Non-monitored Private” interfaces, the number of those interfaces must be the same on all cluster members

Question 60

Fill in the blank: The R80 feature _____ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

Options:

A.

Block Port Overflow

B.

Local Interface Spoofing

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring

D.

Adaptive Threat Prevention

Question 61

Fill in the blank: The “fw monitor” tool can be best used to troubleshoot ____________________.

Options:

A.

AV issues

B.

VPN errors

C.

Network traffic issues

D.

Authentication issues

Question 62

D18912E1457D5D1DDCBD40AB3BF70D5D

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule based and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Options:

A.

The connection is destined for a server within the network

B.

The connection required a Security server

C.

The packet is the second in an established TCP connection

D.

The packets are not multicast

Question 63

When setting up an externally managed log server, what is one item that will not be configured on the R80 Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

IP

B.

SIC

C.

NAT

D.

FQDN

Question 64

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

Options:

A.

Stateful Packets

B.

No Match

C.

All Packets

D.

Stateless Packets

Question 65

You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?

Options:

A.

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check ‘Enable Identity Captive Portal’.

B.

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check ‘Enable Identity Captive Portal’.

C.

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check ‘Enable Identity Captive Portal’.

D.

On the Security Management Server object, check the box ‘Identity Logging’.

Question 66

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

Question 67

Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

Options:

A.

fw tab -t

B.

fw tab -s

C.

fw tab -n

D.

fw tab -k

Question 68

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

Question 69

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Threat Simulator

C.

Threat Extraction

D.

Threat Cloud

Page: 1 / 17
Total 462 questions