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Checkpoint 156-215.80 Dumps

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Total 525 questions

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Fill in the blanks: A High Availability deployment is referred to as a ______ cluster and a Load Sharing deployment is referred to as a ________ cluster.

Options:

A.

Standby/standby; active/active

B.

Active/active; standby/standby

C.

Active/active; active/standby;

D.

Active/standby; active/active

Question 2

Message digests use which of the following?

Options:

A.

DES and RC4

B.

IDEA and RC4

C.

SSL and MD4

D.

SHA-1 and MD5

Question 3

Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?

Options:

A.

snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point production information, and configuration settings of a GAiA Security Gateway.

B.

snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS

C.

snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway

D.

A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server

Question 4

Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients in R80?

Options:

A.

cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.

B.

Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

C.

In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings>Permissions and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients.

D.

WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings>Permissions and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.

Question 5

Administrator wishes to update IPS from SmartConsole by clicking on the option “update now” under the IPS tab. Which device requires internet access for the update to work?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Device where SmartConsole is installed

C.

SMS

D.

SmartEvent

Question 6

Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ________ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ________ all traffic.

Options:

A.

Accept; redirect

B.

Accept; drop

C.

Redirect; drop

D.

Drop; accept

Question 7

After the initial installation the First Time Configuration Wizard should be run. Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

First Time Configuration Wizard can be run from the Unified SmartConsole.

B.

First Time Configuration Wizard can be run from the command line or from the WebUI.

C.

First time Configuration Wizard can only be run from the WebUI.

D.

Connection to the internet is required before running the First Time Configuration wizard.

Question 8

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia at one time?

Options:

A.

Infinite

B.

One

C.

Three

D.

Two

Question 9

What CLI utility allows an administrator to capture traffic along the firewall inspection chain?

Options:

A.

show interface (interface) –chain

B.

tcpdump

C.

tcpdump /snoop

D.

fw monitor

Question 10

Fill in the blank: A _______ is used by a VPN gateway to send traffic as if it were a physical interface.

Options:

A.

VPN Tunnel Interface

B.

VPN community

C.

VPN router

D.

VPN interface

Question 11

In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

Options:

A.

Pentagon

B.

Combined

C.

Meshed

D.

Star

Question 12

Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?

Options:

A.

show configuration all

B.

show confd configuration

C.

show confd configuration all

D.

show configuration

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

Options:

A.

You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites

B.

Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers

C.

You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers

D.

You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers

Question 14

You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second GAiA computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?

1. Run cpconfig on the Gateway, select Secure Internal Communication, enter the activation key, and reconfirm.

2. Initialize Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) on the Security Management Server.

3. Configure the Gateway object with the host name and IP addresses for the remote site.

4. Click the Communication button in the Gateway object's General screen, enter the activation key, and click Initialize and OK.

5. Install the Security Policy.

Options:

A.

2, 3, 4, 1, 5

B.

2, 1, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 3, 2, 4, 5

D.

2, 3, 4, 5, 1

Question 15

R80 Security Management Server can be installed on which of the following operating systems?

Options:

A.

Gaia only

B.

Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server only

C.

Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server and IPSO only

D.

Gaia and SPLAT only

Question 16

Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?

Options:

A.

Security Management Server

B.

Check Point Gateway

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate upgrading/patching

Question 17

The organization's security manager wishes to back up just the Gaia operating system parameters. Which command can be used to back up only Gaia operating system parameters like interface details, Static routes and Proxy ARP entries?

Options:

A.

show configuration

B.

backup

C.

migrate export

D.

upgrade export

Question 18

The Captive Portal tool:

Options:

A.

Acquires identities from unidentified users.

B.

Is only used for guest user authentication.

C.

Allows access to users already identified.

D.

Is deployed from the Identity Awareness page in the Global Properties settings.

Question 19

Which Check Point software blade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Identity Awareness

C.

Application Control

D.

URL Filtering

Question 20

What statement is true regarding Visitor Mode?

Options:

A.

VPN authentication and encrypted traffic are tunneled through port TCP 443.

B.

Only ESP traffic is tunneled through port TCP 443.

C.

Only Main mode and Quick mode traffic are tunneled on TCP port 443.

D.

All VPN traffic is tunneled through UDP port 4500.

Question 21

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

Options:

A.

80

B.

4434

C.

443

D.

8080

Question 22

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company; her company is using Check Point firewalls on central and remote locations, which are managed centrally by R80 Security Management Server. One central location has an installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote location is using Check Point UTM-1 570 series appliance with R71. Which encryption is used in Secure Internal Communication (SIC) between central management and firewall on each location?

Options:

A.

On central firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall 3DES encryption is used for SIC.

B.

On both firewalls, the same encryption is used for SIC. This is AES-GCM-256.

C.

The Firewall Administrator can choose which encryption suite will be used by SIC.

D.

On central firewall AES256 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC.

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

Security questions

B.

Check Point password

C.

SecurID

D.

RADIUS

Question 24

To optimize Rule Base efficiency, the most hit rules should be where?

Options:

A.

Removed from the Rule Base.

B.

Towards the middle of the Rule Base.

C.

Towards the top of the Rule Base.

D.

Towards the bottom of the Rule Base.

Question 25

You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?

Options:

A.

Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.

B.

Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.

C.

Create network object that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.

D.

Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.

Question 26

Administrator Kofi has just made some changes on his Management Server and then clicks on the Publish button in SmartConsole but then gets the error message shown in the screenshot below.

Where can the administrator check for more information on these errors?

Options:

A.

The Log and Monitor section in SmartConsole

B.

The Validations section in SmartConsole

C.

The Objects section in SmartConsole

D.

The Policies section in SmartConsole

Question 27

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________.

Options:

A.

User Directory

B.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

C.

Captive Portal

D.

UserCheck

Question 28

Kofi, the administrator of the ALPHA Corp network wishes to change the default Gaia WebUI Portal port number currently set on the default HTTPS port. Which CLISH commands are required to be able to change this TCP port?

Options:

A.

set web ssl-port

B.

set Gaia-portal

C.

set Gaia-portal https-port

D.

set web https-port

Question 29

Fill in the blank: RADIUS protocol uses ______ to communicate with the gateway.

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

TDP

C.

CCP

D.

HTTP

Question 30

ABC Corp., and have recently returned from a training course on Check Point's new advanced R80 management platform. You are presenting an in-house R80 Management to the other administrators in ABC Corp.

How will you describe the new “Publish” button in R80 Management Console?

Options:

A.

The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session, publishes a copy to the Check Point of R80, and then saves it to the R80 database.

B.

The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session and publishes a copy to the Check Point Cloud of R80 and but does not save it to the R80

C.

The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to all other administrator sessions and saves it to the Database.

D.

The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to the new Unified Policy session and saves it to the Database.

Question 31

What does ExternalZone represent in the presented rule?

Options:

A.

The Internet.

B.

Interfaces that administrator has defined to be part of External Security Zone.

C.

External interfaces on all security gateways.

D.

External interfaces of specific gateways.

Question 32

Examine the following Rule Base.

What can we infer about the recent changes made to the Rule Base?

Options:

A.

Rule 7 was created by the 'admin' administrator in the current session

B.

8 changes have been made by administrators since the last policy installation

C.

The rules 1, 5 and 6 cannot be edited by the 'admin' administrator

D.

Rule 1 and object webserver are locked by another administrator

Question 33

Fill in the blank: A _________ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate resources by authenticating the user through an internet browser.

Options:

A.

Clientless remote access

B.

Clientless direct access

C.

Client-based remote access

D.

Direct access

Question 34

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Options:

A.

Organization Unit

B.

Country

C.

Common name

D.

User container

Question 35

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Options:

A.

Expert

B.

Clish

C.

Admin

D.

Normal

Question 36

What is the default time length that Hit Count Data is kept?

Options:

A.

3 month

B.

4 weeks

C.

12 months

D.

6 months

Question 37

Packages and licenses are loaded from all of these sources EXCEPT

Options:

A.

Download Center Web site

B.

UserUpdate

C.

User Center

D.

Check Point DVD

Question 38

ALPHA Corp has a new administrator who logs into the Gaia Portal to make some changes. He realizes that even though he has logged in as an administrator, he is unable to make any changes because all configuration options are greyed out as shown in the screenshot image below. What is the likely cause for this?

Options:

A.

The Gaia /bin/confd is locked by another administrator from a SmartConsole session.

B.

The database is locked by another administrator SSH session.

C.

The Network address of his computer is in the blocked hosts.

D.

The IP address of his computer is not in the allowed hosts.

Question 39

Which of the following is NOT an integral part of VPN communication within a network?

Options:

A.

VPN key

B.

VPN community

C.

VPN trust entities

D.

VPN domain

Question 40

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B.

IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT

C.

Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT

D.

Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

Question 41

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

CloudGuard

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Question 44

Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Question 45

You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action to take?

Options:

A.

Create a policy rule to block the traffic.

B.

Create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic.

C.

Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.

D.

Contact ISP to block the traffic.

Question 46

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a box to input the pre-shared secret. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

Options:

A.

The Gateway is an SMB device

B.

The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS

D.

Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

Question 47

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Question 48

What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

Options:

A.

Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

B.

Username, Password, Path, Version

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path

D.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

Question 49

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

Question 50

Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

Options:

A.

NAT

B.

Firewall

C.

Global Properties

D.

Object Explorer

Question 51

Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

Options:

A.

The firewall topologies

B.

NAT Rules

C.

The Rule Base

D.

The VPN Domains

Question 52

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Question 53

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole

B.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server

D.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Question 54

When configuring LDAP User Directory integration, Changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Options:

A.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using template.

B.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

C.

Reflected for all users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

Question 55

Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

SSL

B.

Captive Portal

C.

PKI

D.

RSA

Question 56

Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet Security Gateway. Considering that Layer 2 and Layer 3 setup is correct, what are the steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working?

Options:

A.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

B.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish the policy.

C.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

D.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish the policy.

Question 57

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers?

Options:

A.

Anti-Malware

B.

IPS

C.

Anti-bot

D.

Anti-Spam

Question 58

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

Question 59

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

Question 60

What is the SOLR database for?

Options:

A.

Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

B.

Writes data to the database and full text search

C.

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

D.

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

Question 61

What is the Manual Client Authentication TELNET port?

Options:

A.

23

B.

264

C.

900

D.

259

Question 62

You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After a while, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?

Options:

A.

Run fwm dbexport -1 filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -1 filename to import the users.

B.

Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.

C.

Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.

D.

Restore the entire database, except the user database.

Question 63

Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed.

Options:

A.

C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5

B.

C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4

C.

C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5

D.

C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F5

Question 64

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Options:

A.

There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated

B.

The connection required a Security server

C.

Acceleration is not enabled

D.

The traffic is originating from the gateway itself

Question 65

The WebUI offers three methods for downloading Hotfixes via CPUSE. One of them is Automatic method. How many times per day will CPUSE agent check for hotfixes and automatically download them?

Options:

A.

Six times per day

B.

Seven times per day

C.

Every two hours

D.

Every three hours

Question 66

When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?

Options:

A.

User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file

B.

User Name, Password, Management Server IP

C.

Password, Management Server IP

D.

Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP

Question 67

What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?

Options:

A.

If you create a new Security Policy, the Manual NAT rules will be transferred to this new policy

B.

There is no benefit since Automatic NAT has in any case higher priority over Manual NAT

C.

You have the full control about the priority of the NAT rules

D.

On IPSO and GAIA Gateways, it is handled in a Stateful manner

Question 68

You are about to integrate RSA SecurID users into the Check Point infrastructure. What kind of users are to be defined via SmartDashboard?

Options:

A.

A group with generic user

B.

All users

C.

LDAP Account Unit Group

D.

Internal user Group

Question 69

Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components:

Options:

A.

Firewall > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client

B.

Firewall > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Client

C.

Firewall > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Client

D.

Firewall > Log Server > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client

Question 70

What happens if the identity of a user is known?

Options:

A.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.

B.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.

C.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the gateway moves onto the next rule.

D.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.

Question 71

Choose the correct statement regarding Implicit Rules.

Options:

A.

To edit the Implicit rules you go to: Launch Button > Policy > Global Properties > Firewall.

B.

Implied rules are fixed rules that you cannot change.

C.

You can directly edit the Implicit rules by double-clicking on a specific Implicit rule.

D.

You can edit the Implicit rules but only if requested by Check Point support personnel.

Question 72

Which the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

Question 73

MegaCorp's security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a central license for one remote Security Gateway.

How do you apply the license?

Options:

A.

Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.

B.

Using your Security Management Server's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.

C.

Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and applying the license locally with command cplic put.

D.

Using each of the Gateway's IP addresses, and applying the licenses on the Security Management Server with the command cprlic put.

Question 74

VPN gateways must authenticate to each other prior to exchanging information. What are the two types of credentials used for authentication?

Options:

A.

3DES and MD5

B.

Certificates and IPsec

C.

Certificates and pre-shared secret

D.

IPsec and VPN Domains

Question 75

Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?

Options:

A.

Asymmetric encryption

B.

Dynamic encryption

C.

Certificate-based encryption

D.

Symmetric encryption

Question 76

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

Question 77

According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a 3rd party gateway to a Check Point security solution what object SHOULD be added? A(n):

Options:

A.

Interoperable Device

B.

Network Node

C.

Externally managed gateway

D.

Gateway

Question 78

Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R77 Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.

Options:

A.

SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status

B.

SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor

C.

SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate

D.

Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI

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