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Free and Premium APICS CPIM-8.0 Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 585 questions

Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the PRIMARY benefit an organization obtains by cybersecurity framework to their cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

A common set of security capabilities

B.

A common language and methodology

C.

A structured cybersecurity program

D.

A structured risk management process

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Question 2

What is the MOST appropriate action to take when media classification needs to be downgraded to a less sensitive classification?

Options:

A.

Modify access permissions on media at appropriate classification level.

B.

Modify access logging on media at appropriate classification level.

C.

Sanitize media using appropriate data destruction procedure.

D.

Mark the media with less sensitive classification label.

Question 3

Which of the following mechanisms should a practitioner focus on for the MOST effective information security continuous monitoring?

Options:

A.

Implementing automated methods for data collection and reporting where possible

B.

Updating security plans, security assessment reports, hardware, and software inventories

C.

Defining specific methods for monitoring that will maintain or improve security posture

D.

Collecting risk metrics from teams, such as business, testing, QA, development, and operations with security controls

Question 4

The question below is based on the following information:

Work Center 1 has an available capacity of 1,200 hours per month. Which of the following amounts represents the cumulative difference between the required capacity and the available capacity of Months 1 through 3?

Options:

A.

50

B.

150

C.

1.250

D.

3.750

Question 5

A computer forensic analyst is examining suspected malware from a computer system post-attack. Upon reverse engineering the code, the analyst sees several concerning instructions. One of those concerning instructions is that it installs a Unified Extensible Firmware Interface Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) rootkit, and when the system is then rebooted, the BIOS checks for a certain unknown program to be installed. Which security feature MOST likely would have detected and prevented this type of attack if already on the system?

Options:

A.

Operating System (OS) virtualization

B.

Memory protection

C.

Cryptographic module

D.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

Question 6

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

Question 7

An organization wants to control access at a high-traffic entrance using magnetic-stripe cards for identification. Which of the following is the BEST for the organization to utilize?

Options:

A.

A turnstile

B.

A security guard

C.

A mantrap

D.

A locking door

Question 8

An organization’s security team is looking at ways to minimize the security risk of the container infrastructure. The lead engineer needs to select a suite of remediation actions to minimize risks. Which programmatic approach will result in preventing, detecting , and responding to the GREATEST number of threats aimed at container operations?

Options:

A.

Use of hardware-based countermeasures to provide a basis for trusted computing

B.

Use of container-aware runtime defense tools

C.

Grouping containers with the same sensitivity level on a single host

D.

Adoption of container-specific vulnerability management tools

Question 9

Which of the following methods would be appropriate for forecasting the demand for a product family when there is a significant trend and seasonality in the demand history?

Options:

A.

Econometric models

B.

Computer simulation

C.

Time series decomposition

D.

Weighted moving average

Question 10

What is the MAIN benefit of network segmentation?

Options:

A.

Limiting data transfer

B.

Limiting cyberattack damage

C.

Limiting privilege access

D.

Limiting network addresses

Question 11

A recent email-based malware breakout caused a significant volume of traffic and password spam account lockouts for an organization. Which BEST identifies compromised devices?

Options:

A.

Security Information And Event Management (SIEM)

B.

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

C.

Vulnerability scan

D.

Penetration test

Question 12

An organization has integrated its enterprise resource planning system into its centralized Identity and Access Management (IAM) system to automate provisioning of access. A security audit revealed that privileged access granted within the ERP system is not visible in the IAM system. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement step-up authentication for privileged functions within the ERP system.

B.

Implement a periodic review of privileged access within the ERP system.

C.

Implement an automated reconciliation process between ERP and IAM systems.

D.

Implement a periodic review of all ERP access within the IAM system.

Question 13

We have observed the inventory system does not handle plastic parts well." What should be added to the problem statement to make it more useful?

Options:

A.

Measurements that help describe the problem

B.

Guidance to which problem-solving tools should be used

C.

Criteria for selecting the improvement team

D.

Description of who is responsible for the problem

Question 14

Which authentication method is used by an email server to verify that a sender’s Internet Protocol (IP) address is authorized to send messages by the sending domain?

Options:

A.

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

B.

Sender policy framework

C.

Pointer record

D.

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME)

Question 15

Which of the following controls should a financial Institution have in place in order to prevent a trader from both entering and executing a trade?

Options:

A.

Cameras in the trading room

B.

Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)

C.

Separation of Duties (SoD)

D.

Least privilege

Question 16

Which of the following procedures should be defined when establishing information and asset handling requirements?

Options:

A.

Asset retention procedures

B.

Software patching procedures

C.

Media disposal procedures

D.

User access procedures

Question 17

When implementing solutions for information security continuous monitoring, which method provides the MOST interoperability between security tools?

Options:

A.

Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery (CI/CD)

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

C.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

D.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

Question 18

Which of the following MUST be checked during the validation of software verification capabilities?

Options:

A.

Completeness

B.

Vulnerabilities

C.

Security

D.

Logic

Question 19

Which of the following stock location systems would you use in a repetitive manufacturing, lean environment?

Options:

A.

Fixed location

B.

Floating location

C.

Point-of-use storage

D.

Central storage

Question 20

Which of the following security features is utilized to validate both user credentials and the health of the client device on a network?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Network Access Control (NAC)

Question 21

The time spent In queue by a specific manufacturing job is determined by which of the following factors related to the order?

Options:

A.

Lot size

B.

Priority

C.

Setup time

D.

Run time

Question 22

In order to meet retention requirements, it may be necessary to migrate digital records to different media because of which of the following issues?

Options:

A.

Deduplication conserves storage.

B.

Regulatory guidance requires compliance.

C.

Digital media can degrade.

D.

Hierarchical storage facilitates access.

Question 23

During an onsite audit, an assessor inspected an organization’s asset decommission practice. Which of the following would MOST likely be a finding from a security point of view?

Options:

A.

Solid State Drives (SSD) were degaussed along with hard drives.

B.

The Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) between the organization and its data disposal service was more than 3 years old.

C.

Hard drives from older assets replaced defective hard drives from current assets of similar classification levels.

D.

Data classifications were not clearly identified.

Question 24

In the context of mobile device security, which of the following BEST describes why a walled garden should be implemented?

Options:

A.

To track user actions and activity

B.

To prevent the installation of untrusted software

C.

To restrict a user's ability to change device settings

D.

To limit web access to only approved sites

Question 25

Up-to-date Information about production order status is required to do which of the following tasks?

Options:

A.

Calculate current takt time.

B.

Determine planned orders.

C.

Replenish kanban quantities.

D.

Calculate the cost of work in process (WIP).

Question 26

Which of the following should recommendations from a Plan Of Action And Milestones (POA&M) be based on?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

Change Control Board (CCB) coordination

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 27

The planned channels of Inventory disbursement from one or more sources to field warehouses are known as:

Options:

A.

a supply chain community.

B.

interplant demand.

C.

a bill of distribution.

D.

logistics data interchange (LDI).

Question 28

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of sharing assessment results among key organizational officials across information boundaries?

Options:

A.

Facilitates development of organization-wide security metrics

B.

Allows management to assess which organizational elements have the best security practices

C.

Provides the organization a wider view of systemic weaknesses and deficiencies in their information systems

D.

Identifies areas that require additional training emphasis in each organizational element

Question 29

An information security professional is enhancing the organization's existing information security awareness program through educational posters. Which of the following is the MOST effective location for poster placement?

Options:

A.

In a secure room inside the office

B.

Beside the copy machine

C.

Outside the office

D.

In the human resources area

Question 30

An organization is restructuring its network architecture in which system administrators from the corporate office need to be able to connect to the branch office to perform various system maintenance activities. What network architecture would be MOST secure?

Options:

A.

Jump-server on a Local Area Network (LAN)

B.

Bastion host over a Wide Area Network (WAN)

C.

Jump-server connected to a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

D.

Bastion host with Virtual Private Network (VPN) termination point

Question 31

Risk pooling would work best for items with:

Options:

A.

low demand uncertainty and short lead times.

B.

low demand uncertainty and long lead times.

C.

high demand uncertainty and short lead times.

D.

high demand uncertainty and long lead times.

Question 32

Which of the following is a threat modeling methodology used for accessing threats against applications and Operating Systems (OS)?

Options:

A.

Basically Available, Soft-State, Eventual-Consistency (BASE)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation Of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT)

D.

Security, Trust, Assurance And Risk (STAR)

Question 33

A contractor hacked into an unencrypted session on an organization's wireless network. Which authentication configuration is MOST likely to have enabled this?

Options:

A.

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

B.

Captive web portal

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.

Token authentication

Question 34

The master schedule is an Important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it:

Options:

A.

represents the forecast before changes are made in S&OP.

B.

represents the forecast with less detail.

C.

balances supply and demand at the product mix level.

D.

balances supply and demand at the sales volume level.

Question 35

The production plan defines which of the following targets?

Options:

A.

Sales forecast

B.

Quantities of each product to be produced

C.

Level of output to be produced

D.

Business plans for the company

Question 36

Which of the following prioritization rules will have the greatest impact In reducing the number of orders In queue?

Options:

A.

Critical ratio

B.

Shortest processing time

C.

Fewest operations remaining

D.

First come, first served

Question 37

A department manager executes threat modeling at the beginning of a project and throughout its lifecycle. What type of threat modeling is being performed?

Options:

A.

Proactive threat modeling

B.

Reactive threat modeling

C.

Risk assessment

D.

Threat modeling assessment

Question 38

A security engineer developing software for a professional services organization has a requirement that users cannot have concurrent access to data of clients that are competitors. Which security model should the security engineer implement to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Brewer-Nash

B.

Bell-LaPadula

C.

Biba Integrity

D.

Clark Wilson

Question 39

What is the PRIMARY secure protocol used by a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?

Options:

A.

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

B.

Secure shell (SSH)

C.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

D.

Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)

Question 40

An organizations is developing a new software package for a financial institution. What is the FIRST step when modeling threats to this new software package?

Options:

A.

Diagram the data flows of the software package.

B.

Document the configuration of the software package.

C.

Prioritize risks to determine the mitigation strategy.

D.

Evaluate appropriate countermeasure to be implemented.

Question 41

Which of the following ports needs to be open for Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC) to function properly?

Options:

A.

88

B.

389

C.

443

D.

3268

Question 42

An organization donates used computer equipment to a non-profit group. A system administrator used a degausser on both the magnetic and Solid State Drives (SSD) before delivery. A volunteer at the non-profit group discovered some of the drives still contained readable data and alerted the system administrator. What is the BEST solution to ensure that computer equipment does not contain data before release?

Options:

A.

Verify sanitization results by trying to read 100% of the media.

B.

Determine the type of media in the computer and apply the appropriate method of sanitization.

C.

Use cryptographic erasure to ensure data on the media device is erased.

D.

Use a program that will overwrite existing data with a fixed pattern of binary zeroes.

Question 43

Which of the following BEST represents a security benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

Improved threat detection

B.

Flexible firewall configuration

C.

Network availability

D.

Improved threat prevention

Question 44

What activity is a useful element in the change process?

Options:

A.

Creating short-term wins

B.

Calculating a break-even point

C.

Performing a SWOT analysis

D.

Developing key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 45

A life cycle assessment (LCA) would be used to determine:

Options:

A.

the length of a long-term agreement.

B.

how an Item should be scheduled.

C.

environmental aspects and impacts.

D.

If risk pooling would reduce inventory investment.

Question 46

The Information Technology (IT) manager of a large organization has been tasked with implementing a distributed third-party Identity As A Service (IDaaS). The local security team is concerned that the Identity Provider (IdP) and resource provider have direct connectivity outside of enterprise control. Which of the following authentication methods BEST address this concern?

Options:

A.

Federation authorities access list

B.

Manual registration

C.

Proxied federation

D.

Signed assertion

Question 47

During a security incident investigation, a security analyst discovered an unauthorized module was compiled into an application package as part of the application assembly phase. This incident occurred immediately prior to being digitally signed and deployed using a deployment pipeline.

Which of the following security controls would BEST prevent this type of incident in the future?

Options:

A.

Invoke code repository vulnerability scanning on a regularly scheduled basis.

B.

Implement Role-Based Access Controls (RBAC) in each component of the deployment pipeline.

C.

Encrypt the application package after being digitally signed.

D.

Implement a software Bill of Materials (BOM) for each application package.

Question 48

A manufacturer has a primary assembly line supported by output from several subassembly lines. Which of the following scenarios would be the best argument for a multilevel master scheduling process?

Options:

A.

Low variation in aggregate subassembly demand

B.

High variation in aggregate subassembly demand

C.

Low variation in subassembly demand mix

D.

High variation in subassembly demand mix

Question 49

An organization is implementing Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) and needs a strategy to measure device trust for employee laptops. Which measurement strategy is BEST suited and why?

Options:

A.

Remote using a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) due to better protection of the keys

B.

Local using Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because low-level access software can be accessed

C.

Local using Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because of benefits from Segregation Of Duties (SoD)

D.

Remote using a scanning device because of benefits from Segregation Of Duties (SoD)

E.

Local using Mobile Device Management (MDM) because of device policy enforcement

Question 50

A health care organization's new cloud-based customer-facing application is constantly receiving security events from dubious sources. What BEST describes a security event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity or availability of the application and data?

Options:

A.

Failure

B.

Incident

C.

Attack

D.

Breach

Question 51

When implementing a data classification program, Which is MOST important for measuring businesss impact?

Options:

A.

Data classification program being rolled out in accordance with policies and procedures

B.

Measuring the size of the data set to understand scoping for compliance requirements

C.

The adverse effect of data leakage

D.

The early appointment of data custodians

Question 52

A company is having trouble with raw material deliveries and has decided to develop a supplier certification program. The certification process most appropriately would start with which of the following suppliers?

Options:

A.

Suppliers of "A“ classified items

B.

Suppliers recently ISO 9000 certified

C.

Suppliers with the worst performance records

D.

Suppliers with vendor-managed inventory (VMI)

Question 53

Price negotiation is most appropriate when purchasing which of the following product categories?

Options:

A.

Commodities

B.

Standard products

C.

Items of small value

D.

Made-to-order (MTO) items

Question 54

A product manager wishes to store sensitive development data using a cloud storage vendor while maintaining exclusive control over passwords and encryption credentials. What is the BEST method for meeting these requirements?

Options:

A.

Local self-encryption with passwords managed by a local password manager

B.

Client-side encryption keys and passwords generated dynamically during cloud access sessions

C.

Zero-knowledge encryption keys provided by the cloud storage vendor

D.

Passwords generated by a local password manager during cloud access sessions and encrypted in transit

Question 55

Which of the following protocols BEST provides for the secure transfer of voice, data, and video over a network?

Options:

A.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

B.

Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)

C.

User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

D.

HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

Question 56

A multinational organization acquires a subsidiary. The acquisition results in the need to integrate a large population of new users into the organization's corporate cloud. What is the MAIN benefit of the organization's Federated Identity Management (FIM) system to address the need?

Options:

A.

Efficient access provisioning

B.

Increased robustness of authentication

C.

Greater flexibility of access control

D.

Reduced complexity of maintenance and changes

Question 57

The demand for an item has increasing forecast error, whereas all other factors remain constant. Which of the following remains constant while maintaining the same customer service level?

Options:

A.

Reorder point(ROP)

B.

Safety stock

C.

Inventory investment

D.

Safety factor

Question 58

An organization implemented a threat modeling program focusing on key assets. However, after a short time it became clear that the organization was having difficulty executing the threat modeling program.

Which approach will MOST likely have been easier to execute?

Options:

A.

System-centric approach

B.

Attacker-centric approach

C.

Asset-centric approach

D.

Developer-centric approach

Question 59

Which burden of proof has been applied when a workplace investigation has a 51 percent or greater certainty that allegations are true?

Options:

A.

Preponderance of evidence

B.

Beyond a reasonable doubt

C.

Some credible evidence

D.

Clear and convincing

Question 60

Privacy requirements across national boundaries MOST often require protection of which data types?

Options:

A.

Contact information for elected officials and local and national government web content

B.

Contact information related to minors, medical records, and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

C.

Contact information for board members, proprietary trade secrets, and income statements

D.

Contact information related to medical doctors, Protected Health Information (PHI), and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

Question 61

According to best practice, at which step in the system lifecycle shall a security professional begin involvement?

Options:

A.

Project initiation and planning

B.

Functional requirements and definition

C.

System design specification

D.

Build and document

Question 62

Which of the following should recommendations from a Plan Of Action And Milestones (POA&M) be based on?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

Change Control Board (CCB) coordination

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 63

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Mai-In-The-Middle (MITM)

B.

Side-Channel

C.

Frequency analysis

D.

Fault injection

Question 64

What resources does a respondent have when contesting disciplinary action taken by the ISC2 Board of Directors?

Options:

A.

The respondent may file an appeal with the Ethics Committee

B.

None; the decision made by the Board of Directors are final

C.

The respondent may file an appeal with the Board of Director

D.

The respondent has 30 days to provide additional evidence for consideration

Question 65

One of the most useful tools for analyzing the sustainable footprint is:

Options:

A.

process mapping.

B.

lean six sigma.

C.

SWOT analysis.

D.

ISO 9000.

Question 66

Components of an organization's Immediate industry and competitive environment Include:

Options:

A.

political factors.

B.

interest rates.

C.

substitute products.

D.

sociocultural forces.

Question 67

An organization wants to control access at a high-traffic entrance using magnetic-stripe cards for identification. Which of the following is the BEST for the organization to utilize?

Options:

A.

A turnstile

B.

A security guard

C.

A mantrap

D.

A locking door

Question 68

During an emergency management and planning session, an organization is discussing how to identify, prevent, prepare for, or respond to emergencies. Which of the following will provide the BEST possible outcome?

APerform drills on a recurring basis.

B.Harden all critical facilities.

C.Outsource to an external organization.

D.Allocate 100% of required funds.

Options:

Question 69

A financial services organization wants to deploy a wireless network. Which of the following is the WEAKEST option for ensuring a secure network?

Options:

A.

Separating internal wireless users from guests

B.

Media Access control (MAC) address filtering

C.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.

Deploy mutual authentication between the client and the network

Question 70

The development team wants new commercial software to integrate into the current system. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

B.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

C.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

D.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

Question 71

Which of the following is the BEST solution to implement to mitigate the risk of data breach in the event of a lost or stolen mobile device?

Options:

A.

Mobile application management

B.

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy

C.

Network Access Control (NAC)

D.

Mobile Device Management (MDM)

Question 72

In a Zero Trust (ZT) model, where should the enforcement component be placed and why?

Options:

A.

Between the policy engine and the trust engine, because it enforces security policies

B.

As close to the workload as possible, because it impacts authorization decisions

C.

As close to the workload as possible, because it impacts authentication decisions

D.

Between the data stores and the trust engine, because it improves security policies

Question 73

If organizational leadership determines that its required continuous monitoring plan is too costly for the organization, what action should be taken by leadership and the Authorizing Official (AO)?

Options:

A.

Determine if the organization’s risk posture allows the system to operate without the continuous monitoring of the controls in question

B.

Identify and monitor only the technical controls, as they cover the most critical threats to the organization

C.

Ensure that the organization’s Configuration Management (CM) and control processes are documented and executed according to policy

D.

Continue developing the system using a secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) approach and testing, thereby eliminating the need for monitoring the security controls

Question 74

An example of an assignable cause of variation in process performance is:

Options:

A.

power fluctuation during machine operation.

B.

machine vibration during operation.

C.

incorrect setup of a machine by the operator.

D.

changes in temperature in the machine shop.

Question 75

Which of the following product design approaches are likely to reduce time to market for a global supply chain?

Options:

A.

Concurrent engineering

B.

Design for manufacture

C.

Design for logistics

D.

Quality function deployment (QFD)

Question 76

A Structured Query Language (SQL) database is hosted on a hardened, secure server. All unused ports are locked down, but external connections from untrusted networks are still required to be allowed through. What is the BEST way to ensure transactions to/from this server remain secure?

Options:

A.

Secure SQL service port with a Transport Layer Security (TLS) certificate.

B.

Use Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all logins to the server.

C.

Secure SQL service port with a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate.

D.

Scan all connections to the server for malicious packets.

Question 77

In which cloud computing model is Identify And Access Management (IAM) the responsibility of a service provider?

Options:

A.

Software As A Service (SaaS).

B.

Platform As A Service (PaaS).

C.

Desktop As A Service (DaaS).

D.

Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS).

Question 78

Maintaining software asset security is MOST dependent on what information?

Options:

A.

Software licensing

B.

Asset ownership

C.

Inventory of software

D.

Classification level

Question 79

In the context of mobile device security, which of the following BEST describes why a walled garden should be implemented?

Options:

A.

To track user actions and activity

B.

To prevent the installation of untrusted software

C.

To restrict a user's ability to change device settings

D.

To limit web access to only approved sites

Question 80

A cybersecurity analyst has recently been assigned to work with a product development team. The team has usually needed to perform a lot of rework late in the development cycle on past projects due to application security concerns. They would like to minimize the amount of rework necessary. Which would be the BEST option to enable secure code review early in the product development?

Options:

A.

Implement dynamic code analysis

B.

Perform manual code reviews

C.

Implement static code analysis

D.

Perform fuzz testing

Question 81

Which of the following is a component of the Clark-Wilson model?

Options:

A.

Transformation procedures

B.

Enforcement rules

C.

Data classifications

D.

Integrity labels

Question 82

What MUST be completed before developing physical security controls?

Options:

A.

Develop a comprehensive security policy

B.

Provide the annual security awareness training

C.

Contract for licensed and bonded security force

D.

Perform a physical security audit

Question 83

What are the FIRST two steps an organization should conduct to classify its assets?

Options:

A.

Define user requirements and collate existing inventories

B.

Categorize assets and set minimum security controls

C.

Conduct an inventory of assets and determine the owners

D.

Obtain senior management buy-in and conduct a risk assessment

Question 84

Which of the following is the workflow of the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Creation, Assessment, Deletion

B.

Assessment, Creation, Deletion

C.

Provision, Review, Revocation

D.

Review, Provision, Revocation

Question 85

Which of the following planes directs the flow of data within a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Data

C.

Application

D.

Control

Question 86

The question below is based on the following standard and actual data of a production order

Which of the following statements about variances is true?

Options:

A.

The material price vanance for Component A is favorable by S10

B.

The labor pnce variance is unfavorable by S20

C.

The material usage variance for Component B is favorable by $36

D.

The labor efficiency variance is favorable by S20

Question 87

Which of the following is a component of the Clark-Wilson model?

Options:

A.

Enforcement rules

B.

Transformation procedures

C.

Data classifications

D.

Integrity labels

Question 88

An organization has integrated its enterprise resource planning system into its centralized Identity and Access Management (IAM) system to automate provisioning of access. A security audit revealed that privileged access granted within the ERP system is not visible in the IAM system. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement step-up authentication for privileged functions within the ERP system.

B.

Implement a periodic review of privileged access within the ERP system.

C.

Implement an automated reconciliation process between ERP and IAM systems.

D.

Implement a periodic review of all ERP access within the IAM system.

Question 89

An organization is updating an Application Programming Interface (API) to support requests coming from mobile applications distributed on public application stores. The API’s primary function is to supply confidential documents when users request them within the mobile application. Which approach would BEST respond to this use case?

Options:

A.

Require that the user supplies their credential to access confidential documents.

B.

Require a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection to the organization's network to access confidential documents.

C.

Implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to validate the identity of the user requesting access to confidential documents.

D.

Implement Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0 to require the users to request permission to access confidential documents.

Question 90

Which of the following methods places a replenishment order when the quantity on hand falls below a predetermined level?

Options:

A.

Min-max system

B.

Fixed order quantity

C.

Periodic review

D.

Available-to-promlse (ATP)

Question 91

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Side-channel

B.

Fault injection

C.

Man-In-The-Middle (MITM)

D.

Frequency analysis

Question 92

What is the process when a security assessor compiles potential targets from the attacker’s perspective, such as data flows, and interactions with users?

Options:

A.

Threat categorization

B.

Threat avoidance

C.

Threat acceptance

D.

Threat mitigation

Question 93

A software development vendor wants to test the Application Programming Interface (API). The testers use and manipulate data to identify the various states of the application behavior. What is the kind of testing that is being used?

Options:

A.

Quality Assurance (QA) testing

B.

Integration technique

C.

User Acceptance Testing

D.

Fuzzing technique

Question 94

Which of the following tools is used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity?

Options:

A.

Demand time fence (DTF)

B.

Bill of resources

C.

Product routing

D.

Safety capacity

Question 95

If an organization wanted to protect is data against loss of confidentiality in transit, which type of encryption is BEST?

Options:

A.

Symmetric cryptography

B.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with asymmetric keys

C.

Password encryption using hashing (with salt and pepper)

D.

Message Authentication Code (MAC) using hashing

Question 96

Which of the following is the BEST option for a security director to use in order to mitigate the risk of inappropriate use of credentials by individuals with administrative rights?

Options:

A.

Have administrators sign appropriate access agreements.

B.

Define the Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) for administrators.

C.

Have administrators accept a Non-Disclosure Agreement.

D.

Perform extensive background checks on administrators.

Question 97

Improvements in an Input/output control (I/O control) system will most likely lead to:

Options:

A.

flattened bills of material (BOMs).

B.

a change in operation sequencing.

C.

reduction in queue size and queue time.

D.

fewer engineering change notifications.

Question 98

Network Access Control (NAC) is used to perform what function for computers joining the network?

Options:

A.

Ensure all networking components communicate with each other.

B.

Ensure that all approved devices can join the network.

C.

Restrict access to the network based on Media Access Control (MAC) address or Internet Protocol (IP) address.

D.

Restrict the time and date that computers are allowed to connect to the organization’s network.

Question 99

Which of the following methods most likely Introduces a temporary variance between the inventory balance and the inventory record?

Options:

A.

Inventory write-off

B.

Backflushing

C.

Cycle count

D.

Kanban

Question 100

Which of the following is the fundamental difference between finite loading and other capacity planning approaches?

Options:

A.

It is highly dependent on advanced computer software to function effectively.

B.

It is only managed by shop floor supervisors.

C.

It can use historical information to drive decision-making processes.

D.

It considers adjustments to plans based on planned capacity utilization.

Question 101

An organization’s computer incident responses team PRIMARY responds to which type of control?

Options:

A.

Administrative

B.

Detective

C.

Corrective

D.

presentative

Question 102

An organization is looking to integrate security concepts into the code development process early in development to detect issues before the software is launched. Which advantage does the organization gain from using Static Application Security Testing (SAST) techniques versus dynamic application security testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Allows tailored techniques

B.

Executes code to detect issues

C.

Allows for earlier vulnerability detection

D.

Simulates attacker patterns

Question 103

Which of the following factors is used to determine safety stock?

Options:

A.

Number of customers

B.

Available capacity

C.

Forecast error distribution

D.

Time between customer orders

Question 104

After a recent cybersecurity incident, a manufacturing organization is interested in further hardening its Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution. Knowing that the organization limits the use of personal devices in the facility, which could BEST be implemented to enhance the manufacturing organization's IAM solution?

Options:

A.

Enhanced background checks

B.

Mobile Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) application

C.

Biometric system

D.

Personal Identification Number (PIN) code

Question 105

The primary outcome of frequent replenishments in a distribution requirements planning (DRP) system is that:

Options:

A.

lead times to customers decrease.

B.

transportation costs decrease.

C.

the level of required safety stock is reduced.

D.

more efficient load consolidation occurs.

Question 106

An organization has decided to advance from qualitative risk assessment to quantitative risk analysis. The information security risk analyst has been tasked with replacing the organization’s qualitative likelihood scale of low, medium, and high with a quantitative approach. Which is the BEST approach for replacing the qualitative input values?

Options:

A.

Estimate the probability of the scenario ever occurring and use that percentage.

B.

Replace the qualitative scale’s thresholds with point percentages (e.g., low = 25%; medium = 50%; high = 75%) and use those percentages.

C.

Replace the qualitative scale’s thresholds with ranges of percentages (e.g., low = 1–33%; medium = 34–66%; high = 67–99%) and use those percentages.

D.

Estimate the probability of the scenario occurring within the following year and use that percentage.

Question 107

An organization's security policy requires remote hosts to be authenticated before they can access network resources. Which of the following is the BEST option for the organization to enforce its policy?

Options:

A.

Install a firewall.

B.

Implement Internet Protocol (IP) Access Control Lists (ACL).

C.

Implement 802.1X.

D.

Install an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).

Question 108

One advantage of adopting a supply network perspective Is that it:

Options:

A.

protects global markets.

B.

enhances understanding of competitive and cooperative forces.

C.

defines the market relationships and partnerships.

D.

encourages rivals to collaborate.

Question 109

The help desk received a call from a user noting the digital certificate on the organization-issued security identification card was invalid. Which is the BEST reason the certificate stopped working?

Options:

A.

The user's certificate was compromised by the public key of the user.

B.

The public key of the Certificate Authority (CA) is known to attackers.

C.

The user's certificate was absent from the Certificate Revocation List (CRL).

D.

The user's certificate has expired and needs to be renewed.

Question 110

The development team wants new commercial software to Integrate into the current systems. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

B.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

C.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

D.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

Question 111

Labor3 people

Work hours10 hours per day

Days4 days per week

Meetings with work area employees1/2 hour per day

Work area efficiency85%

Given the information above, what is the weekly theoretical capacity of this work area in hours?

Options:

A.

97

B.

102

C.

114

D.

120

Question 112

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) training can be considered complete when the participants

Options:

A.

understand the rationale behind why a specific Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) strategy was chosen.

B.

receive a complete, accurate, and detailed explanation of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP).

C.

understand their roles and interactions with other roles.

D.

have demonstrated their understanding during an actual disaster.

Question 113

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) has multiple components. The information security plan portion must prioritize its efforts. Which 3 aspects of information security MUST be prioritized?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

B.

Physical security, access control, asset protection

C.

Intent, capability, opportunity

D.

Threat level, network security, information disposal

Question 114

Asymmetric cryptography uses which type of key to encrypt data?

Options:

A.

Private key

B.

Permanent key

C.

Parent key

D.

Public key

Question 115

In conducting a new corporate payroll system security review, which of the following individuals should answer questions regarding the data classification?

Options:

A.

Head of human capital

B.

Head of compliance

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

Question 116

The costs provided in the table below are associated with buying a quantity larger than immediately needed. What Is the total landed cost based on this table?

Cost CategoryCost

Custom fees$125

Freight$700

Warehouse rent$200

Matenal cost$500

Options:

A.

$825

B.

$1,325

C.

$1,400

D.

$1,525

Question 117

What is the following is the MAIN reason why hot-spot usually adopt open security mode in wireless networks?

Options:

A.

Ease of use

B.

Limitation of Infrastructure

C.

Adapter compatibility concerns

D.

Cost concerns

Question 118

To mitigate risk related to natural disasters, an organization has a separate location with systems and communications in place. Data must be restored on the remote systems before they are ready for use. What type of remote site is this?

Options:

A.

Cold Site

B.

Mobile Site

C.

Hot Site

D.

Warm Sit

Question 119

Which of the following is MOST accurate when comparing patch management and vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

Patch management manages the security lifecycle from discovery to remediation.

B.

Patch management identifies, acquires, tests, and installs code changes on a specific computing device.

C.

Vulnerability management is a process executed in specialized software to address security issues or add new features.

D.

Vulnerability management plugs security holes and remediates risk by upgrading software to the most recent versions.

Question 120

A financial organization is using an internally developed application. The internal software development team has to adhere to the coding standards of the Software Development Cycle (SDLC). For applications whose functionality is exposed through the public Internet, this requirement consists of testing the application for potential vulnerabilities before it is deployed into production. What is the BEST type of vulnerability test to perform?

Options:

A.

Web application unit test

B.

Online application development test

C.

Web application penetration test

D.

Online application assurance test

Question 121

Substituting capital equipment in place of direct labor can be economically Justified for which of the following scenarios?

Options:

A.

Volumes are forecasted to increase

B.

Material prices are forecasted to increase

C.

Implementing a pull system in production

D.

Functional layouts are being utilized

Question 122

In which of the following situations would you use an X-bar chart?

Options:

A.

Track the number of defects that are found in each unit.

B.

Measure the difference between the largest and the smallest in a sample.

C.

Determine the average value of a group of units.

D.

Estimate a subgroup variation.

Question 123

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial service organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

Options:

A.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

B.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

Question 124

An organization has identified that an individual has failed to adhere to a given standard set by the organization. Based on the needs of the organization, it was decided that an exception process will be created. What is the PRIMARY benefit of establishing an exception process?

Options:

A.

Prevent future material audit findings.

B.

Provide administrators with more autonomy.

C.

Enable management of organizational risk.

D.

Ensure better Business Continuity (BC).

Question 125

An organization is transitioning from a traditional server-centric infrastructure to a cloud-based Infrastructure. Shortly after the transition, a major breach occurs to the organization's databases. In an Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS) model, who would be held responsible for the breach?

Options:

A.

The database vendor

B.

The third-party auditor

C.

The organization

D.

The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

Question 126

An organization is concerned that if an employee’s mobile device is lost or stolen and does not reconnect to the carrier network, the data on the device may still be at risk. Consequently, the organization has implemented a control on all mobile devices to require an eight-character passcode for unlock and login. What should happen after multiple incorrect passcode attempts?

Options:

A.

The device should be restarted.

B.

The device should be wiped.

C.

The device should be turned off.

D.

The device passcode should be reset.

Question 127

A logistics manager Is faced with delivering an order via rail or truck. Shipping via rail costs S300 and takes 14 days. Shipping via truck costs $600 and takes 3 days. If the holding cost is $40 per day, what is the cost to deliver the order?

Options:

A.

$340for rail,$600 for truck

B.

$340for rail.$720 for truck

C.

$860for rail,$720 for truck

D.

$860for rail.$600 for truck

Question 128

What should an organization do to prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) efforts?

Options:

A.

Create a list of key personnel

B.

Create a list of decommissioned hardware

C.

Review tabletop exercises

D.

Replicate access logs

Question 129

An information system containing Protected Health Information (PHI) will be accessed by doctors, nurses, and others working in a hospital. The same application will be used by staff in the pharmacy department only for dispensing prescribed medication. Additionally, patients can log in to view medical history. The system owner needs to propose an access control model that considers environment, situation, compliance, and security policies while dynamically granting the required level of access. Which access control model is the MOST suitable?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

B.

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

C.

Task-based access control

D.

Risk-adaptive access control

Question 130

Which of the following techniques is BEST suited to preserve the confidentiality of a system’s data?

Options:

A.

Audit log review

B.

Database encryption

C.

Immutable backups

D.

Database record locking

Question 131

An employee returns a borrowed laptop used for lab testing. What is the BEST action the technician should perform upon receiving the laptop to ensure no sensitive information will be exposed?

Options:

A.

Delete all the files.

B.

Purge the hard drive.

C.

Encrypt the hard drive.

D.

Degauss the hard drive.

Question 132

An information security professional is tasked with configuring full disk encryption on new hardware equipped with a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). How does TPM further enhance the security posture of full disk encryption if configured properly?

Options:

A.

TPM will use the Operating System (OS) for full disk encryption key protection.

B.

TPM will protect the full disk encryption keys.

C.

TPM will handle the allocation of the hardware storage drives for full disk encryption.

D.

TPM will provide full disk encryption automatically.

Question 133

An organization has a call center that uses a Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) system. The conversations are sensitive, and the organization is concerned about employees other than the call agents accessing these conversations. What is the MOST effective additional security measure to make?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the call agents are using an additional authentication method.

B.

Implement a Network Access Control (NAC) solution.

C.

Ensure that the voice media is using Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol.

D.

Segment the voice network and add Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFW).

Question 134

An organization decides to conduct penetration testing. Senior management is concerned about the potential loss of information through data exfiltration. The organization is currently preparing a major product launch that is time-sensitive. Which of the following methods of testing is MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

Gray box

B.

Green box

C.

Black box

D.

White box

Question 135

The costs provided in the table below are associated with buying a quantity larger than immediately needed. What Is the total landed cost based on this table?

Cost CategoryCost

Custom fees$125

Freight$700

Warehouse rent$200

Matenal cost$500

Options:

A.

$825

B.

$1,325

C.

$1,400

D.

$1,525

Question 136

Following the go-live of a new financial software, an organization allowed the Information Technology (IT) officer to maintain all rights and access permissions to help the organization staff should they have challenges in their day-to-day work. What is the BEST way to categorize the situation?

Options:

A.

Excessive privileges

B.

Need to know access

C.

Training access

D.

Least access principle

Question 137

The development team wants new commercial software to integrate into the current system. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

B.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

C.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

D.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

Question 138

Which of the following inventory management techniques is most responsive to changes in demand levels?

Options:

A.

Two-bin system

B.

Periodic review system

C.

Cycle counting

D.

ABC classification

Question 139

A firm that currently produces all items to stock is implementing the concept of postponement in all new product designs. Which of the following outcomes is most likely to result?

Options:

A.

Product variety will decrease.

B.

Sales volume per product family will increase.

C.

Number of finished items stocked will decrease.

D.

Number of component items stocked will increase.

Question 140

It takes an average of 3 hours to set up a model and 1 hour to run, but depending on the complexity of the models, the setup time can be significantly different. Last week. 2 modelers were working on different projects. Each worked 40 hours. One modeler finished 5 models a day, and the other finished 1 model a day. What was the demonstrated capacity last week?

Options:

A.

25models

B.

15models

C.

10models

D.

30models

Question 141

Management should support investments in new process technologies that:

Options:

A.

require minimal changes in existing systems, procedures, and skills.

B.

have been recommended by technical experts and equipment suppliers.

C.

provide significant cost-reduction opportunities for the company's current products.

D.

provide long-term competitive advantage with acceptable financial risk.

Question 142

An organization is considering options to outsource their Information Technology (IT) operations. Although they do not sell anything on the Internet, they have a strong requirement in uptime of their application. After the offerings received by the Cloud Service Provider (CSP), the IT manager decided it was mandatory to develop processes to continue operations without access to community or public cloud-based applications. Which of the following arguments MOST likely led the IT manager to make this decision?

Options:

A.

Circumstances may force a cloud provider to discontinue operations.

B.

The need to develop alternative hosting strategies for applications deployed to the cloud.

C.

Most cloud services offerings are unique to each provider and may not be easily portable.

D.

Integrity and confidentiality are not ensured properly on the most cloud service offerings.

Question 143

Which of the following factors is used to determine safety stock?

Options:

A.

Number of customers

B.

Available capacity

C.

Forecast error distribution

D.

Time between customer orders

Question 144

Up-to-date Information about production order status is required to do which of the following tasks?

Options:

A.

Calculate current takt time.

B.

Determine planned orders.

C.

Replenish kanban quantities.

D.

Calculate the cost of work in process (WIP).

Question 145

A champion is assigned to lead a threat modeling exercise. Which of the following will be the FIRST thing to consider?

Options:

A.

Using an automated tool to construct system models

B.

Outlining a detailed threat modeling procedure

C.

Scheduling weekly threat modeling sessions

D.

Ensuring the right stakeholder are involved

Question 146

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing an Identity And Management (IAM) solution?

Options:

A.

List and evaluate IAM available products.

B.

Evaluate business needs.

C.

Engage the sponsor and identify Key stakeholders.

D.

Engage the existing Information Technology (IT) environment.

Question 147

Which of the following represents the level of confidence that software is free from intentional an accidental vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Due care

B.

Vulnerability management

C.

Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

D.

Software assurance

Question 148

An organization’s external auditors have issued a management letter identifying significant deficiencies related to the effectiveness of the previous year’s global access certification. The organization wants to move from a department-based access control system to a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) system. In addition to quickly and securely provisioning users by granting membership into predefined and approved roles, which of these presents the BEST reason to do so?

Options:

A.

The organization can implement both mandatory and dynamic access controls, except where they would be in conflict.

B.

The organization can clone roles, saving time and granting broad access to persons within the same department.

C.

The organization can give a person holding multiple roles the appropriate levels of access to specific data for each role.

D.

The organization can implement both static and dynamic access controls, adjusting them to fit any individual’s access needs.

Question 149

An employee returns a borrowed laptop used for lab testing. What is the BEST action the technician should perform upon receiving the laptop to ensure no sensitive information will be exposed?

Options:

A.

Delete all the files.

B.

Purge the hard drive.

C.

Encrypt the hard drive.

D.

Degauss the hard drive.

Question 150

Which of the following documents is the BEST reference to describe application functionality?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

B.

System security plan

C.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA) report

D.

Vulnerability assessment report

Question 151

In the Session layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following modes allows only one host to send information to its peer?

Options:

A.

Half-duplex

B.

Simplex

C.

Unicast

D.

Full-duplex

Question 152

Which of the following are compromised in an untrusted network using public key cryptography when a digitally signed message is modified without being detected?

Options:

A.

Integrity and authentication

B.

Integrity and non-repuditation

C.

Integrity and availability

D.

Confidentiality and availability

Question 153

Broadcast traffic is causing network performance degradation of sensitive equipment.

Which of the following methods is used to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting availability?

Options:

A.

Place the sensitive equipment behind a firewall to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.

B.

Implement Quality of Service (QoS) on network switches to throttle the sensitive equipment traffic.

C.

Move the sensitive equipment to a different switch port to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.

D.

Use Network Access Control (NAC) to prevent the broadcast traffic from broadcasting.

Question 154

A security practitioner has been asked to investigate the presence of customer Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on a social media website. Where does the practitioner begin?

Options:

A.

Review logs of all user's social media activity.

B.

Review the organizational social media policy.

C.

Initiate the organization's incident response plan.

D.

Determine a list of information assets that contain PII.

Question 155

Which of the following BEST characterizes the operational benefit of using immutable workloads when working on a cloud-based project?

Options:

A.

The cloud service provider is responsible for all security within the workload

B.

Allows a user to enable remote logins to running workloads

C.

Security testing is managed after image creation

D.

No longer have to bring system down to patch

Question 156

What is the MAIN privacy risk raised by federated identity solutions?

Options:

A.

The potential for unauthorized access to user attributes

B.

The potential for tracking and profiling an individual's transactions

C.

The potential for exposing an organization's sensitive business information

D.

The potential to break the chain of trust between identity brokers

Question 157

An organization is designing a new Disaster Recovery (DR) site. What is the BEST option to harden security of the site?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Natural disaster insurance

C.

Natural surveillance

D.

Territorial reinforcement

Question 158

Based on the values reported in the table below, what is the inventory turnover?

Options:

A.

0.50

B.

0.58

C.

1.73

D.

2.60

Question 159

Which technology is BEST suited to establish a secure communications link between an individual’s home office and the organization’s Local Area Network (LAN)?

Options:

A.

Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN)

B.

Representational State Transfer (REST)

C.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Question 160

A cloud-based web application requires the use of cryptographic keys to encrypt user-uploaded files at rest. Where is the safest place to store these cryptographic keys?

Options:

A.

Keys are stored in a password protected zip file.

B.

Keys are stored with source code in a revision control system.

C.

Keys are stored in a cloud-based file storage system.

D.

Keys are stored in a central, internal key management system.

Question 161

An organization has hired a consultant to establish their Identity and Access Management (IAM) system. One of the consultant’s main priorities will be to understand the current state and establish visibility across the environment. How can the consultant start to establish an IAM governance process?

Options:

A.

Implement Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) process for sensitive applications.

B.

Determine authoritative identity sources.

C.

Understand connectivity to target applications.

D.

Implement Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) process for web-based applications.

Question 162

Information regarding a major new customer is received from sales. The company's most appropriate initial response would be to adjust the:

Options:

A.

production volume.

B.

master production schedule (MPS).

C.

sales and operations plan.

D.

forecast.

Question 163

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial services organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

Options:

A.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

B.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology (NIST) and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

Question 164

A company confirms a customer order based on available capacity and inventory, even though the current production plan does not cover the entire order quantity. This situation is an example of what type of order fulfillment policy?

Options:

A.

Assemble-to-order (ATO)

B.

Capable-to-promise (CTP)

C.

Available-to-promise (ATP)

D.

Configure-to-order (CTO)

Question 165

What is the MOST likely cause for a penetration tester having difficulties finding the stack to inject code?

Options:

A.

Advanced Threat Protection (ATP)

B.

Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR)

C.

Structured exception handling overwrite protection

D.

Export address table filtering

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