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Total 217 questions

Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) - Law Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is true regarding the authentication of evidence in most common law systems?

Options:

A.

The purpose of authentication is to show that the evidence is what the party claims it is.

B.

Digital records cannot be authenticated through a written certification by the custodian of records.

C.

For evidence to be authenticated, it must be reviewed and voted on by a jury.

D.

A party can introduce authenticated exhibits as evidence at trial even if the items are not relevant.

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Question 2

Alicia has been charged with tax evasion. As a defense, Alicia claims that she made an honest mistake due to the complexity of the tax law and did not intentionally violate the jurisdiction ' s tax laws. If the court finds that her mistake was made in good faith, then she will most likely NOT be found to have willfully engaged in fraudulent actions to avoid reporting or paying her taxes.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 3

The same customer goes into a bank each day and purchases bearer instruments with cash in amounts just under the mandatory reporting requirements in the jurisdiction. The bank employees suspect that the customer is attempting to violate the jurisdiction’s money laundering regulations. If the jurisdiction’s anti-money laundering AML regulations follow the Financial Action Task Force FATF Recommendations, then the bank:

Options:

A.

May not file a report of suspicious transactions related to potential criminal activity with the appropriate authorities

B.

Is required to file a cash transaction report for possible criminal activity with the appropriate authorities because the purchases involved cash

C.

Is required to file a report of suspicious transactions with the appropriate authorities because the employees suspect money laundering violations

D.

May, but is not required to, file a report of suspicious transactions related to possible money laundering with the appropriate authorities

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT one of the elements that the government must prove to establish a violation of a law criminalizing false statements to government agencies?

Options:

A.

The government relied on the false statement

B.

The defendant knew the statement was false

C.

The defendant made a false statement

D.

The false statement was material

Question 5

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to affect the rights that an employee may have during an internal investigation?

Options:

A.

The likelihood that the case will eventually go to trial.

B.

The existence of a collective bargaining agreement.

C.

The amount of evidence that the employer possesses.

D.

The length of the employee ' s tenure at the organization.

Question 6

Cora, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE), wants to ensure that the authenticity of the evidence she collected during her investigation is not compromised. Her main objective should be to:

Options:

A.

Only release the evidence to the judge who will be presiding over the case.

B.

Establish a clear chain of custody to show that the evidence has not been changed.

C.

Require opposing parties to present a court order to access any physical evidence.

D.

Prevent all other parties from obtaining physical control of the evidence.

Question 7

Which of the following statements about the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO) is TRUE?

Options:

A.

IOSCO ' s primary goal is to establish a separate set of securities regulations for securities exchanges in developing nations.

B.

IOSCO is comprised of commissioners and administrators responsible for regulating securities and administering securities laws in their countries.

C.

IOSCO is an international industry association that sets global accounting and financial reporting standards.

D.

IOSCO is responsible for enforcing regulatory standards that govern all international securities markets.

Question 8

Greta is convicted of white-collar crime. However, her sentence is suspended in return for her promise of good behavior. Which of the following BEST describes Greta ' s sentence?

Options:

A.

Determinate sentence

B.

Probation

C.

indeterminate sentence

D.

Deferred prosecution agreement

Question 9

Which of the following statements about the different types of alternative dispute resolutions is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

In a mediation session, the mediator tries to help the parties reach a settlement.

B.

In an arbitration proceeding, the arbitrator tries to help the parties reach a settlement.

C.

In an arbitration proceeding that is nonbinding, issues are final and cannot later be determined by a court in a trial.

D.

In a mediation session, the mediator decides the outcome of a case by deciding who should win the dispute.

Question 10

Tammy made one cash deposit each day over the span of a few weeks at automated teller machines (ATMs) owned by her bank. The cash deposits ranged from $9,000 to $9,900. Tammy lives in a jurisdiction that requires all deposits of $10,000 or more to be reported to the government. Based on these facts, Tammy is most likely committing a(n):

Options:

A.

Reverse deposit scheme

B.

Remote deposit capture scheme

C.

Structuring scheme

D.

Integration scheme

Question 11

Which of the following statements concerning the selection of expert witnesses during trial is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

Generally, the court selects the primary expert witnesses in adversarial jurisdictions and the parties do not participate in the selection.

B.

Generally, the parties select the expert witnesses in both inquisitorial and adversarial jurisdictions.

C.

Generally, the court selects the primary expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions and the parties do not hire them directly.

D.

Generally, the parties select expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions but not in adversarial jurisdictions.

Question 12

Nora, a health care provider b convicted of health care fraud in criminal court After her conviction, the national health agency begins a proceeding to prohibit Nora from seeking reimbursement from government health care programs for five years Which type of administrative penalty is the national health agency seeking?

Options:

A.

License suspension

B.

Debarment

C.

License revocation

D.

Disenfranchisement

Question 13

In common law jurisdictions, which of the following scenarios would MOST LIKELY result in sanctions for an organization for failing to preserve evidence?

Options:

A.

An employee intentionally destroys a relevant document prior to the company announcing the possibility of litigation.

B.

An employee unintentionally alters a digital document that is not directly relevant to any potential litigation that the company has announced to its staff.

C.

An employee accidentally deletes a digital document that is relevant to litigation after the company announces that such litigation is a possibility.

D.

An employee abstains from destroying a document relevant to an ongoing proceeding even though this act violates the company ' s document retention policy.

Question 14

Mary and Keith live in different countries. Mary believes she has a legal cause of action against Keith. Because Keith is the defendant, he may file the lawsuit in any court, in either of the countries where he or Mary lives.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 15

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations slate that a financial institution s customer due diligence (COD) procedures should include continued monitoring of a customer ' s business relationships and transactions.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 16

During a trial in an adversarial system an attorney calls an expert witness to the stand and asks " Could you please describe the procedures you performed in your examination? ' ' Based on this question, which type of testimony is MOST LIKELY being presented ' ?

Options:

A.

Impeachment

B.

Direct exam Ml mi

C.

Cross-examination

D.

Request for admission

Question 17

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the litigation privilege in common law jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

The litigation privilege only protects documents and materials prepared in anticipation of litigation.

B.

The litigation privilege only protects documents and materials prepared after litigation commences.

C.

The litigation privilege does not protect documents and materials prepared by third-party agents, such as fraud examiners.

D.

The primary purpose of the litigation privilege is to protect confidential communications between a client and the client ' s legal representative.

Question 18

Which of the following, if available, would help an organization recover losses from an instance of internal fraud?

Options:

A.

Privilege insurance

B.

Customer liability policy

C.

Fidelity insurance

D.

Deposition

Question 19

The MOST COMMON bankruptcy fraud scheme is:

Options:

A.

Forged filing

B.

A planned bustcut

C.

A credit card bustout

D.

Concealment of assets

Question 20

Which of the following statements is MOST ACCURATE regarding cross-examination of witnesses in adversarial systems?

Options:

A.

If opposing counsel asks an overly complex question during cross-examination, witnesses should ask for the question to be rephrased

B.

If an expert witness ' s opinion is at risk of being distorted during cross-examination, the expert should avoid answering the question

C.

The primary purpose of cross-examination is for opposing counsel to discover information previously unknown to opposing counsel.

D.

The general rule is for opposing counsel to cross-examine all witnesses to ensure that important details are not missed by the fact finder

Question 21

A prosecutor filed criminal charges against Rosa calming that she stole Juan ' s personal information and sold his identity on the dark web Juan wants to file a civil lawsuit against Rosa to recover damages arising from the identity theft Can Juan file the civil action before the criminal action against Rosa is completed?

Options:

A.

Yes, the civil action can be filed if the jurisdiction permits parallel proceedings.

B.

No, the civil action cannot be filed if the jurisdiction prohibits counterclaims.

C.

Yes, the civil action can be filed if the jurisdiction permits analogous cairns.

D.

No, the civil action cannot be filed if the jurisdiction prohibits double jeopardy.

Question 22

While performing due diligence on a potential vendor, a company finds the vendor’s name on a government list. The list states that the vendor is prohibited from bidding on government contracts for three years. Which type of administrative penalty was imposed against the vendor?

Options:

A.

Delisting

B.

License suspension

C.

Debarment

D.

License revocation

Question 23

Which of the following statements concerning the appointment of expert witnesses at that is accurate?

Options:

A.

Generally, the court appoints the primary expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions.

B.

Generally, only the parties may select expert witnesses in inquisitor jurisdictions

C.

Generally the court selects the primary expert witnesses in adversarial jurisdictions

D.

Generally, only the parties may select experts to introduce testimony in adversarial jurisdictions

Question 24

Aliyah is an employee at Chatham, a publicly traded corporation, and she owns shares of Chatham ' s stock. Aliyah learns that Chatham is going to publicly announce low earnings, so she sells her shares of Chatham ' s stock. If her conduct is illegal in the jurisdiction where she works and resides, then what type of crime did Aliyah MOST LIKELY commit?

Options:

A.

Churning

B.

Insider trading

C.

Trading on margin

D.

Futures fraud

Question 25

Under the World Bank Principles for Effective Insolvency and Credit/Debtor Regimes (World Bank Principles), which of the following parties should administer the debtor ' s estate in liquidation bankruptcy proceedings?

Options:

A.

The jurisdiction ' s commerce department or equivalent agency

B.

The creditor with the largest claim against the debtor

C.

The debtor, supervised by an independent insolvency representative

D.

An independent insolvency representative

Question 26

Which of the following is TRUE in regard to authenticating evidence in most common law systems?

Options:

A.

Digital records cannot be authenticated by testimony from a witness with personal knowledge

B.

For evidence to be authenticated it must be reviewed and voted on by a jury

C.

Exhibits that cannot be authenticated will not be admitted regardless of relevance

D.

The purpose of authentication is to ensure that hearsay is not admitted into evidence

Question 27

In most civil law systems, which of the following parties typically serves as the fact finder in criminal proceedings?

Options:

A.

judge

B.

A jury

C.

A panel comprised of laypersons

D.

A panel of court-appointed attorneys

Question 28

Tatiana is the chief executive officer (CEO) of Mattress World Warehouse, a retail mattress store that has been struggling financially A week before Mattress World Warehouse files for bankruptcy Tatiana sets ten mattresses to her husband at 80% below market value Which type of fraud scheme has Tatiana MOST LIKELY committed?

Options:

A.

A fraudulent bankruptcy

B.

A fraudulent conveyance

C.

A planned bustout

D.

A concealed transfer

Question 29

Davis is an employee at Waccamaw Homeplace a publicly traded corporation Davis knows that Waccamaw is about to publicly announce a new joint venture project in China, so he buys shares of Waccamaw stock Assuming that his conduct was illegal m the jurisdiction in which he works and resides, what type of crime did Davis MOST LIKELY commit?

Options:

A.

Churning

B.

Futures fraud

C.

Insider trading

D.

Trading on margin

Question 30

Jay files for bankruptcy in order to settle all of his debts. During the bankruptcy proceeding, the court sells off his property and uses the proceeds to pay Jay ' s creditors, thereby discharging all of Jay ' s dischargeable debts. This type of bankruptcy proceeding can BEST be described as:

Options:

A.

Debt adjustment bankruptcy

B.

Liquidation bankruptcy

C.

Reorganization bankruptcy

D.

Debt dismissal bankruptcy

Question 31

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about the circumstances under which a conflict of interest claim would be actionable against an agent?

Options:

A.

The agent must have purported to act on behalf of or as an agent for an identified principal

B.

The agent must have had an undisclosed interest m a matter that could influence their professional role

C.

The agent must have informed the principal of their actions

D.

The agent must have been authorized by someone with actual authority to carry out the transaction at issue

Question 32

In an inquisitorial judicial proceeding, which of the following parties is primarily responsible for questioning witnesses and generally has a larger role in the evidence-gathering process?

Options:

A.

The defendant ' s counsel

B.

The grand jury

C.

The prosecution

D.

The judge

Question 33

An attorney hires a fraud examiner to work on an embezzlement case. In connection with the case, the attorney emails the fraud examiner a copy of a memorandum that is protected by a legal professional privilege. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

Options:

A.

The attorney did not waive the privilege because the legal professional privilege belongs to the client, not the attorney.

B.

The attorney did not waive the privilege because the attorney hired the fraud examiner to work on the case.

C.

The attorney waived the privilege because they transmitted the protected information to a third party.

D.

The attorney waived the privilege because they used email to transmit the protected information.

Question 34

Which of the following statements regarding the qualifications of expert witnesses in most adversarial jurisdictions is correct?

Options:

A.

The qualification of an expert is primarily based on educational accomplishments.

B.

An expert is not qualified to testify unless all parties involved in the litigation approve.

C.

Certification in a specific field is not usually a factor that would help qualify an expert.

D.

A person can be qualified to testify based on special training or experience.

Question 35

Which of the following statements about civil actions in most jurisdictions is correct?

Options:

A.

The plaintiff’s complaint must typically contain a copy of all documents that might be relevant to the case.

B.

Civil actions begin with the filing of a pleading, usually in the jurisdiction where the defendant resides or where the claim originated.

C.

The plaintiff’s complaint does not need to state the grounds for legal relief.

D.

All of the above are correct.

Question 36

Leslie, a business owner, submits tax information regarding her company ' s finances to her country ' s taxing authority. The taxing authority allows companies to subtract the cost of production from their gross sales to determine the taxable income. To reduce her tax liability, Leslie inflates the costs of production on her tax forms. Which of the following schemes has Leslie MOST LIKELY committed?

Options:

A.

A value-added tax evasion scheme

B.

A falsified tax deduction scheme

C.

A sales tax scheme

D.

A tax credit evasion scheme

Question 37

Which of the following statements about civil actions in most jurisdictions is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The plaintiff ' s complaint must typically contain a copy of all documents that might be relevant to the case.

B.

Civil actions begin with the filing of a pleading, usually in the jurisdiction where the defendant resides or where the claim originated.

C.

The plaintiff ' s complaint does not need to state the grounds for legal relief.

D.

All of the above are correct.

Question 38

Which of the following statements concerning alternative remittance systems is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

The systems are not necessarily illegal.

B.

Funds are sent and received without the use of traditional financial institutions.

C.

The systems are characterized by a lack of physical or digital transfer of currency between payers and payees.

D.

The ledgers used typically contain information regarding payers and payees, such as names and account numbers.

Question 39

Felix is charged with violating a criminal law that prohibits making false statements to government agencies. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the elements the government must prove to establish a violation?

Options:

A.

The government must prove that the statement concerned a matter within the jurisdiction of a government agency.

B.

The government must prove that the defendant knew the statement was false.

C.

The government must prove that it suffered a loss for relying on the false statement.

D.

The government must prove that the statement was material.

Question 40

Which of the following is a legal element that the government must show to prove a cnminal conspiracy?

Options:

A.

One of the conspirators knowingly committed an oven act in furtherance of the conspiracy

B.

The conspirators accomplished the purpose of the conspiracy that was initially established

C.

The defendant knew all the details or objectives of the conspiracy

D.

The defendant knew the identity of all the participants in the conspiracy

Question 41

In most civil law systems, the burden of proof for the government to convict a defendant in a criminal case is beyond a reasonable doubt.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 42

Which of the following statements concerning the appointment of expert witnesses during trial is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Generally, only the court may appoint expert witnesses in adversarial jurisdictions.

B.

Generally, the parties choose expert witnesses in adversarial jurisdictions, but the court may also appoint experts.

C.

Generally, the jury selects expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions.

D.

Generally, the parties are primarily responsible for selecting expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions.

Question 43

Countries A and B both follow the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations concerning cross-border transfers of currency Trevor is traveling from Country A to Country B while carrying $16,000 in cash which exceeds Country B ' s reporting threshold Trevor is required to disclose the amount of currency he is carrying to authorities in Country B.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 44

Antonio is investigating Sam on behalf of their employer, XYZ Company. During the investigation, Antonio tells a group of their coworkers who are not involved in the investigation that he discovered Sam has a serious gambling addiction, which is true. Assuming that their jurisdiction has civil laws for all of the following causes of action, which one would give Sam the BEST chance for success if he decides to bring a civil action against Antonio?

Options:

A.

Public disclosure of private facts

B.

Negligent misrepresentation

C.

Slander

D.

Defamation

Question 45

Which of the following would be circumstantial evidence that a cashier at a retail store committed a cash larceny scheme that resulted in the theft of $900 from the store?

Options:

A.

A witness testifies that they saw the cashier take money out of a cash register on the day that the theft occurred.

B.

A diagram is used to display the location of the retail store’s cash registers.

C.

A witness testifies that the cashier made a $900 deposit to their personal bank account the day after the theft occurred.

D.

A coworker explains the ethics policy that the retail store’s employees must follow.

Question 46

One of the purposes of securities regulation is to promote an active and competitive market.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 47

Robert, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE), wants to ensure that the authenticity of the evidence he collected during his investigation is not compromised. His main objective should be to:

Options:

A.

Limit access to the evidence to judicial officials prior to trial proceedings.

B.

Prevent all other parties from obtaining physical control of the evidence.

C.

Establish a clear chain of custody to show that the evidence has not been altered.

D.

Only alter or materially change the evidence himself if absolutely necessary.

Question 48

The concealment of assets occurs most commonly in which of the following types of fraud schemes?

Options:

A.

Bankruptcy fraud

B.

Fictitious revenues

C.

Payroll fraud

D.

Income smoothing

Question 49

Which of the following would be direct evidence that an employee committed a cash larceny scheme that resulted in the theft of $800 from their employer ' s safe?

Options:

A.

A coworker states that the employee appeared to be nervous on the day of the theft.

B.

A diagram is used to display the location of the employer ' s safe.

C.

A witness testifies that they saw the employee take the money.

D.

A witness testifies that the employee was usually the last person to leave the office.

Question 50

Which of the following statements is MOST ACCURATE concerning how criminal bargaining agreements are typically handled in jurisdictions where such agreements are allowed?

Options:

A.

The defense generally has the discretion to decide whether to settle charges with a bargaining agreement.

B.

Both the prosecution and the defense have the discretion to decide whether to settle charges with a bargaining agreement.

C.

Only the judge assigned to the case has the discretion to decide whether to settle charges with a bargaining agreement.

D.

The prosecution generally has the discretion to decide whether to settle charges with a bargaining agreement.

Question 51

According to the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development’s OECD Recommendation on Combating Bribery in International Business, member states are encouraged to combat the bribery of foreign public officials by improving which of the following primary areas within their respective infrastructures?

Options:

A.

Initiatives related to stronger data protection

B.

Criminal, civil, commercial, and administrative laws

C.

E-commerce business practices and regulations

D.

Regulations related to the public’s health and safety

Question 52

Lana is a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) who works for Penn National, a private company. Lana suspects that Payne, an employee for Penn National, has stolen numerous products from the company. Lana plans to conduct an internal investigation into the missing products. Based on these facts, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

Options:

A.

Payne has a duty to cooperate with the investigation even if what is requested from him is not reasonable.

B.

Payne can refuse to cooperate with the investigation because he has a legal right to privacy.

C.

Payne likely has a duty to cooperate with the investigation as part of the employer-employee relationship.

D.

Payne can refuse to cooperate with the investigation because he has the right to remain silent.

Question 53

Which of the following statements concerning digital currencies, such as bitcoin, is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

Digital currencies are subject to all of the same regulations as payments made through traditional financial institutions

B.

Digital currencies are attractive to money launderers because payments often cross jurisdictional boundaries, making it difficult for authorities to pursue enforcement

C.

Digital currencies are attractive to money launderers because they are a payment method that provides complete anonymity

D.

Digital currencies are not typically used to launder money due to strict customer identification or recordkeeping requirements enforced in all jurisdictions

Question 54

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about the different types of alternative dispute resolution ' ?

Options:

A.

The agreements reached in mediations are generally nonbinding.

B.

In a mediation session, the mediator decides who should win the dispute at issue

C.

The decisions reached in all arbitrations are always binding

D.

In an arbitration proceeding the arbitrator acts as a judge or jury by deciding the dispute at issue on its merits

Question 55

In most common law jurisdictions, which of the following BEST describes when the duty to preserve evidence begins?

Options:

A.

When litigation is reasonably anticipated

B.

When the company receives notice of the lawsuit

C.

When the judge sets the schedule for discovery

D.

When the court orders the party to produce the evidence

Question 56

Nancy is testifying as an expert witness during cross-examination. The questioning party asks Nancy whether she agrees with questions involving basic facts of the case to which both parties have already agreed. Nancy says she agrees with all the questions. Which of the following best describes the questioning party’s method?

Options:

A.

Myopic vision

B.

Sounding board

C.

Contradiction

D.

Bias

Question 57

Which of the following is a red flag that an entity is operating a security business without the proper license or registration?

Options:

A.

The entity ' s website contains detailed background information.

B.

There is an unexplained absence of customer complaints against the entity.

C.

There are justified gaps in the work history of promoters at the entity

D.

The agents working at the entity have criminal records.

Question 58

Which of the following statements concerning front businesses as a method of laundering money is the LEAST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

A red flag of a front business is the observation of a large number of customers during peak operating hours

B.

Front businesses provide cover for delivery and transportation related to illegal activity

C.

From criminals ' perspective a disadvantage to front businesses is that they generally must pay taxes on the illicit income

D.

Front businesses benefit launderers by providing a safe place to manage criminal activities

Question 59

The same customer comes into a casino each day and deposits a large amount of cash into an account but after very little gambling the customer withdraws the funds The casino employees suspect that the customer may be engaged in money laundering activity Assuming that the anti-money laundering (AML) regulations that govern the casino’s activities correspond to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations the casino:

Options:

A.

May, but is not required to file a report of suspicious transactions related to possible money laundering with appropriate authorities

B.

May not file a report of suspicious transactions related to potential criminal activity with appropriate authorities

C.

Is required to file a report of suspicious transactions with appropriate authorities because the employees suspect money laundering violations

D.

Is required to file a cash transaction report for possible criminal activity with appropriate authorities because cash was involved

Question 60

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about the litigation privilege in common law jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

The primary purpose of the litigation privilege is to protect confidential communications between a client and the client ' s legal representative

B.

The litigation privilege only protects documents and materials prepared by an attorney

C.

The litigation privilege applies only while a trial is underway

D.

The litigation privilege applies only to documents and materials prepared in anticipation of litigation

Question 61

Which of the following is NOT an element that is generally required to establish a claim alleging the common law civil wrong for intentional infliction of emotional distress?

Options:

A.

The victim ' s distress occurred for at least two years.

B.

The victim suffered distress due to the defendant ' s conduct.

C.

The defendant engaged in extreme and outrageous conduct.

D.

The defendant acted intentionally or recklessly.

Question 62

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about serf-regulatory organizations (SROs) in the securities industry?

Options:

A.

An SRO generally has sole regulatory authority over the securities industry in the jurisdiction in which it operates

B.

In most jurisdictions. SROs are prohibited from participating in the resolution of disputes related to securities transactions

C.

An SRO is a governmental entity that exercises regulatory authority over the securities industry in its jurisdiction

D.

In some jurisdictions SROs establish the standards and rules under which members of the securities industry operate

Question 63

Levi has been retained as an expert witness to provide testimony for a trial. Which of the following statements describes the primary purpose of Levi’s testimony?

Options:

A.

Levi will assist the fact finder by providing specialized knowledge that will help them understand evidence.

B.

Levi will assist the fact finder by providing specialized knowledge on the admissibility of evidence in the case.

C.

Levi will assist the fact finder by providing an opinion about the honesty of other witnesses in the case.

D.

Levi will assist the fact finder by providing an opinion regarding whether the accused is guilty of the offense.

Question 64

Before Monique’s criminal trial for embezzlement, she contacts witnesses against her and offers to pay them if they change their stories regarding the embezzlement. Monique’s actions would MOST LIKELY cause the government to bring additional charges against her for:

Options:

A.

Obstruction of justice

B.

Conspiracy to influence the court

C.

Fraudulent misrepresentation

D.

Judicial extortion

Question 65

During an internal investigation Todd a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) interviewed Janessa a fraud suspect Although Janessa wanted to leave in the middle of the interview, Todd blocked the exit and prevented her from leaving Janessa subsequently confessed to committing fraud If under these facts Janessa files a lawsuit (or false imprisonment against Todd, Todd will likely

Options:

A.

Win the case because he is protected under the qualified business privilege

B.

Lose the case if a trier of fact concludes that he restrained Janessa without consent or legal justification

C.

Lose the case because janessa did not leave the interview

D.

Win the case if he did not know the conduct was illegal

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Total 217 questions