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Free and Premium Scaled Agile SAFe-RTE Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 225 questions

SAFe Release Train Engineer (RTE 6.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What does assigning business value to a team's Pl Objectives influence?

Options:

A.

How the Kanban work in process limits are set

B.

How to achieve objectives

C.

How teams plan the implementation

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Question 2

At which two stages will the Agile Release Train (ART) act as a one-team culture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Performing - Creating a flow of knowledge across the teams and the ART

B.

Norming - Teams begin to form communities

C.

Storming - Fostering continuous improvement

D.

Collaborating - Pairing and sharing across the ART

E.

Forming - The leaders will start to emerge

Question 3

What is one recommended practice when planning across large time zone differences?

Options:

A.

Allow for overlapping hours

B.

Choose the time zone with the most team members

C.

Choose one time zone for planning, then rotate for the next PI

D.

Plan by time zone, then consolidate the plans

Question 4

The team's draft plan review consists of which three items at the end of the first day of the Program Increment (PI) Planning event? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Capacity and load estimates

(Correct)

B.

Program delivery schedule

C.

Draft PI Objectives

D.

Risks and impediments

E.

Iteration Goals

F.

Refined team backlogs

Question 5

During Program Increment (PI) Planning, a scrum of scrums occurs just before the draft plan review. The Scrum Master from one team raises an issue that one of the Product Managers just showed up to the planning area with a priority wish list of items. These items do not align with the Feature prioritization. What is the most likely planning anti-pattern causing this sudden impediment?

Options:

A.

There is strong alignment between business and marketing

B.

Planning decisions have been centralized

C.

Prioritization by Product Management was performed autonomously not collaboratively

D.

There is no social network that Solution development relies on

Question 6

What are two purposes of the System Demo? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

To demonstrate the full solution in a production-like context

B.

To exercise the performance of the staging area

C.

To get feedback from the primary stakeholders

D.

To demonstrate a team's build

E.

To conduct the Inspect and Adapt workshop

Question 7

Which of the Core Competencies of Business Agility emphasizes a customer-centric ap-proach to defining, building, and releasing a continuous flow of valuable products and services?

Options:

A.

Team and Technical Agility

B.

Enterprise Solution Delivery

C.

Lean Portfolio Management

D.

Agile Product Delivery

Question 8

(What is one tool used to identify bottlenecks?)

Options:

A.

Objectives and Key Results (OKRs)

B.

Kanban Board

C.

Value Stream Mapping

D.

Ishikawa Diagram

Question 9

What hourly activity helps keep teams on track and facilitates early identification of risks during the

Team Breakout portion of PI Planning?

Options:

A.

Iteration Review

B.

ART planning board inspection

C.

Coach Sync

D.

Business Owner feedback meeting

Question 10

The Release Train Engineer ensures that Business Owners assign business value to what during Program Increment (PI) Planning?

Options:

A.

Program-level PI Objectives

B.

Stories

C.

Features

D.

Team-level PI Objectives

Question 11

Which statement is true about the retrospective and problem-solving part of the Inspect and Adapt workshop?

Options:

A.

Key Agile Release Train stakeholders, including Business Owners, Customers, and management can participate along with the teams

B.

The Release Train Engineer gathers the list of problems to be solved during the fi-nal scrum of scrums of the Program Increment (PI)

C.

Encourage teams to sit together during the retrospective portion to ensure an ef-fective outcome

D.

The improvement backlog items resulting from the problem-solving workshop should be items that only leadership can address

Question 12

What is one reason an environment of mutual influence is desirable?

Options:

A.

It provides guardrails for decision making

B.

It demonstrates Respect for People

C.

It centralizes decision making

D.

It helps fund Value Streams

Question 13

When planning for a distributed PI Planning with a significant difference in time zones, what is a key

preparation and facilitation focus?

Options:

A.

Share the outcomes of preparation meetings with local Scrum Masters/Team Coaches (SM/TCs) so they can arrange local rooms

B.

Split up the PI Planning event per time zone and then have the final plan review, confidence vote, and planning retrospective as one centralized meeting

C.

Have a single Release Train Engineer (RTE) and technical support person that acts as a central point of communication for all locations

D.

Adjust the PI agenda to 2.5-3 days, allowing for overlapping hours

Question 14

What are two responsibilities of the Release Train Engineer as chief Scrum Master for the Agile Release Train (ART)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Break down Features into Stories

B.

Escalate ART impediments

C.

Provide the go/no-go decision for large initiatives

D.

Analyze Epics in the Portfolio Kanban

E.

Facilitate Program Increment (PI) Planning

Question 15

Who provides Agile Release Train context and Vision during Pl Planning?

Options:

A.

Product Owner

B.

Product Management

C.

Release Train Engineer

D.

Business Owner

Question 16

The Agile Release Train (ART) is near the end of the final Iteration of their first Program Increment. Integration into staging is more challenging than estimated. They add a week to the Innovation and Planning (IP) Iteration for integration and testing. Why is this a bad idea?

Options:

A.

Overall train velocity goes up and the time-to-market goes down

B.

It substantially decreases the predictability of the Solution Intent

C.

It reduces the overall predictability established through cadence and synchroniza-tion

D.

It decreases job satisfaction by removing autonomy and purpose

Question 17

In the SAFe work item hierarchy, Epics are decomposed into what?

Options:

A.

Features

B.

Stories

C.

Capabilities

Question 18

Why is a confidence vote held at the end of program increment (Pl) planning?

Options:

A.

To build shared commitment to the plan

B.

To remove the risks for the Pl

C.

To ensure the business owners accept the plan

D.

To hold the teams accountable if the Agile release train (ART) does not deliver on its commitment

Question 19

The goal of Lean is to deliver the maximum customer value in the shortest sustainable lead time while providing what else?

Options:

A.

The highest possible quality

B.

A Continuous Delivery Pipeline

C.

Significant team contributions

D.

Improved capacity allocation

Question 20

(What should be measured in a CALMR approach to DevOps?)

Options:

A.

Net Promoter Score (NPS)

B.

Flow through the pipeline

C.

Objectives and Key Results (OKRs)

D.

Code coverage

Question 21

When planning for a distributed Program Increment (PI) Planning event with a large dif-ference in time zones, what are two key preparation and facilitation focus areas for a Re-lease Train Engineer (RTE)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Share the outcomes of preparation meetings with local Scrum Masters so they can arrange local rooms

B.

Have a single RTE and technical support person that acts as a central point of communication for all locations

C.

Adjust the PI agenda to 2.5 – 3 days, allowing for overlapping hours

D.

Split up the PI Planning event per time zone and then have the final plan review, confidence vote, and planning retrospective as one centralized meeting

E.

Arrange and test presentation audio and video connectivity in all locations

Question 22

Why is it helpful to communicate newly refined Features and Enablers to the teams dur-ing the current Program Increment (PI)?

Options:

A.

Teams can prepare backlogs, give feedback to the Product Owner/Product Man-agement/System Architect, and begin looking at dependencies, impediments, and knowledge building

B.

Teams can review the Features and Enablers so they have an understanding of the Roadmap for the next PI

C.

Teams can establish face-to-face communication across all team members and stakeholders

D.

Teams can help support overall product integrity and facilitate working agree-merits during PI Planning

Question 23

Why do teams have an Iteration retrospective?

Options:

A.

To identify acceptance criteria

B.

To adjust and identify ways to improve

C.

To evaluate Metrics

D.

To iterate on Stories

Question 24

Which two key skills does a Release Train Engineer bring to economic prioritization? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Do research and data collection for cost of delay factors

B.

Determine job size by surveying Scrum Masters of impacted teams

C.

Facilitate stakeholder collaboration

D.

Coordinate Lean Portfolio Management by providing feedback for cost of delay factors

E.

Understand and facilitate weighted shortest job first

Question 25

Why is the problem-solving workshop more effective than traditional lessons learned documents?

Options:

A.

Collaboration over documentation is a key recommendation of the Agile Manifes-to

B.

Workshops are more engaging than document writing

C.

It makes improvements actionable through backlog items for the next Program Increment

Question 26

A group of developers, Scrums Masters, and Product Owners are interested in sharing knowledge and learning more about DevOps concepts. How can the Release Train Engi-neer help them collaborate to gain knowledge about DevOps?

Options:

A.

Align them with the System Team

B.

Help them launch a DevOps community of practice

C.

Schedule a DevOps bi-weekly synchronization

D.

Provide Devops training

Question 27

Who commits to the Iteration goals at the end of Iteration planning?

Options:

A.

The Solution Owner

B.

The Scrum Master

C.

The team

D.

The Product Owner

Question 28

Which three topics are covered on the first day of the Program Increment (PI) Planning event? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagrams

B.

Team velocity Metrics

C.

Business context

D.

Cumulative flow diagrams

E.

Product/Solution Vision

F.

Architecture Vision and development practices

Question 29

At the end of day two of the Program Increment (PI) Planning event, the team's final plan review covers what information?

Options:

A.

Team Features, Stories, and team-level enablers

B.

Changes to capacity and load, final PI objectives, program risks and impediments

C.

Changes to iteration goals, measured velocity, and dependencies

D.

Planned Features, uncommitted objectives, and ROAMed risks

Question 30

During which part of an Inspect and Adapt event would differences between planned business value and actual business value be presented?

Options:

A.

Retrospective

B.

Problem-solving workshop

C.

Quantitative and qualitative measurement

D.

PI system demo

Question 31

What action can result in reduced collaboration between teams during the Program Increment (PI) Planning event?

Options:

A.

Skip the Inspect and Adapt event

B.

Include inexperienced team members

C.

Start the Agile Release Train without a System Team in place

D.

Overprepare for PI Planning

Question 32

Why would a Release Train Engineer use an Iteration and Program Increment Calendar?

Options:

A.

To know the cycle time between important team and train events

B.

To ensure that key ceremonies don't conflict with non-SAFe ceremonies

C.

To create a BVIR of the important team and ART milestones

D.

To visualize the Agile Release Train's cadence and synchronization

Question 33

What is one reason why the ART predictability measure is important?

Options:

A.

It identifies under-performing teams

B.

It demonstrates the need to fix the scope at the beginning of the PI

C.

It indicates where the Solution is ready to be released

D.

It allows the business and other stakeholders to plan effectively

Question 34

Which statement is true about using a Program Kanban system

Options:

A.

All work is visualized, progress is continually tracked

B.

WIP limits are used to provide any needed buffers

C.

Work is pushed through the Kanban to ensure train capacity is utilized

D.

The board tracks features, dependencies and milestones

Question 35

What is a primary responsibility of Business Owners in Program Increment (Pl) Planning?

Options:

A.

To establish the Pl budget

B.

To set the business context

C.

To ensure that team members plan all of their priorities

Question 36

A Release Train Engineer (RTE) would like to try a new retrospective technique at the next Inspect and Adapt event. However, the RTE is unsure how to prepare for it and thinks there may be some pitfalls. How could an RTE get help?

Options:

A.

Share and receive feedback from other RTEs in a community of practice

B.

Post it in an internal communications forum and inspire others to try this technique as well

C.

Ask leadership to decide whether or not this technique should be used with the Agile Release Train

D.

Start a discussion with the Architects to see how they would re-design the retro-spectives

Question 37

At which Tuckman stage would an ART be if it is improving engineering practices and fostering more effective communication?

Options:

A.

Storming

B.

Performing

C.

Forming

D.

Norming

Question 38

The ART is near the end of the final Iteration of its first PI. Integration into staging is more challenging

than estimated. The ART adds a week to the Innovation and Planning (IP) Iteration for integration and

testing. Why is this action considered an anti-pattern?

Options:

A.

Overall, train velocity goes up, and the time-to-market goes down

B.

It decreases job satisfaction by removing autonomy and purpose

C.

It reduces the overall predictability established through cadence and synchronization

D.

It substantially decreases the predictability of the Solution Intent

Question 39

What are two outputs of Iteration Planning? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PI Objectives

B.

Iteration goals

C.

Team Backlog

D.

Iteration backlog

E.

Program Backlog

Question 40

What is one risk of eliminating an Innovation and Planning (IP) Iteration?

Options:

A.

Bottlenecks can be hard to identify and resolve

B.

Teams have no time for fixing bugs

C.

Delivery can be blocked

D.

Technical debt can grow uncontrollably

Question 41

Which of the following PI Planning element(s) creates transparency and helps engage Business

Owners and stakeholders in the planning process?

Options:

A.

Draft objectives

B.

Team Iteration plans

C.

Problem-solving workshop

D.

ROAMing Risks

Question 42

Communicating the Vision to the Agile Release Train during Program Increment Planning supports which SAFe Core Value?

Options:

A.

Transparency

B.

Program Execution

C.

Alignment

Question 43

Some teams are having difficulty identifying where they might make process improve-ments. How might the RTE support them?

Options:

A.

Encourage the team to perform regular self-assessments and discuss findings

B.

Conduct a survey to identify the worst problems the team is having

C.

Observe the team's ceremonies and share observations

D.

Run longer I&A meetings to brainstorm improvement items

Question 44

Why is it important for the RTE to understand Tuckman's group dynamic stages?

Options:

A.

The Tuckman four stages should be reflected in the design of the Program Kan-ban

B.

Tuckman helps to better understand Team and ART topologies

C.

The Tuckman dynamic nature of the stages requires that we assume variability and preserve options

D.

An ART is a team of teams and will likely also progress through the Tuckman stages

Question 45

Which skill do Release Train Engineers (RTEs) have the opportunity to regularly practice and improve?

Options:

A.

Test-driven development

B.

Return-on-investment (ROI) projections

C.

Continuous Integration

D.

Servant leadership

Question 46

What is one way to use the results from Value Stream mapping?

Options:

A.

Focus on one component to optimize

B.

Calculate the metrics and share them with the ART

C.

Move from bottleneck to bottleneck, eliminating as many as possible

D.

Identify methods for developers to code faster

Question 47

Which statement is true about teams?

Options:

A.

Products are more robust when individuals on teams have specific skill sets

B.

Agile Teams can manage daily interruptions

C.

Teams are more productive than the same number of individuals

D.

Changes in team composition do not impact productivity

Question 48

What are two main reasons why the program predictability measure is important? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It allows the business and other stakeholders to plan effectively

B.

It identifies under-performing teams

C.

It focuses the Agile Release Train on predictable value delivery

D.

It demonstrates the need to fix the scope at the beginning of the Program Increment (PI)

E.

It indicates whether the Solution is ready to be released

Question 49

In addition to Innovation and Planning, what else does the IP Iteration provide time for?

Options:

A.

An estimating guard band

B.

An opportunity to integrate and perform end-to-end testing

C.

Building in quality and compliance

D.

Additional planned work

Question 50

What foundational issue most often leads to team dysfunction?

Options:

A.

Absence of trust

B.

Weak Lean-Agile leadership

C.

Fear of conflict

D.

Lack of commitment

Question 51

Which two actions must the Release Train Engineer (RTE) take when facilitating the Pro-gram Increment (PI) Planning event? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Prioritize the Features

B.

Distribute the PI Planning agenda to the Agile Teams

C.

Purchase sugary snacks

D.

Ensure the facilities are set up appropriately

E.

Wear the RTE visor

Question 52

Which type of Enabler does a System Architect review during a System Demo?

Options:

A.

Enabler Epics

B.

Enabler Features

C.

Enabler Capabilities

D.

Enabler Stories

Question 53

What is one benefit of the Innovation and Planning (IP) Iteration?

Options:

A.

It allows for additional planned work

B.

It allows for building in quality and compliance

C.

It provides an estimating guard band

D.

It provides an opportunity to integrate and perform end-to-end testing

Question 54

Iteration Goals serve what purpose?

Options:

A.

To align team members to a common purpose

B.

To define the what, the how, and the how much

C.

To set preliminary PI Objectives

Question 55

(Which event facilitated by the Release Train Engineer (RTE) is designed to keep the ART on the tracks?)

Options:

A.

Solution Demo

B.

Iteration Review

C.

Team Sync

D.

Coach Sync

Question 56

Which event facilitated by the Release Train Engineer is designed to keep the Agile Re-lease Train on the tracks?

Options:

A.

Daily stand-up

B.

Iteration review

C.

Solution Demo

D.

Scrum of scrums

Question 57

SAFe is based on four primary bodies of knowledge which include Agile development, systems thinking, DevOps, and what type of product development?

Options:

A.

Incremental product development

B.

Adaptive product development

C.

Lean product development

D.

Iterative product development

Question 58

Which of the following roles should help facilitate an ART Sync?

Options:

A.

Business Owner

B.

Epic Owner

C.

Product Owner (PO)

D.

Product Management

Question 59

What practice can help to identify bottlenecks in the flow of work?

Options:

A.

Visualizing the flow of all work and track progress of individual items

B.

Comparing transaction costs, holding costs and business value realization

C.

Measuring lead time for all work in progress

D.

Modeling overall process flow during value stream identification

Question 60

During Program Increment (PI) execution, the System Team is unclear about how to test some of the larger Features. What should a Release Train Engineer do?

Options:

A.

Allow the problem to reach a critical point knowing that a minor failure is a tech-nique for learning

B.

Encourage the System Team and Product Management to meet and collaborate on a solution

C.

Escalate the problem to senior management to get the required action

D.

Direct Product Management to define the use cases for the Features

Question 61

What is one method for developing a sufficient Architectural Runway for the ART?

Options:

A.

Create alignment with the System Architect and Product Management that the first PI is all about Enablers to plan for creating business value in the second PI

B.

Ask the Business Owner which Enablers have high business value

C.

Ask the teams to commit only to Enablers as their PI Objectives during the PI Planning and address Features as uncommitted objectives for the first PI

D.

Work with Product Management and System Architects to identify future Features and determine the Enablers to achieve them

Question 62

What are the three key items communicated on the Program Board? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Feature delivery dates

B.

PI Objectives

C.

Program risks

D.

Milestones

E.

Dependencies between teams

F.

Team velocity

Question 63

In SAFe, which activity is a Scrum Master's responsibility?

Options:

A.

Coordinating with other teams

B.

Owning the daily stand-up

C.

Facilitating the Scrum of Scrums

D.

Prioritizing the Team Backlog

Question 64

What is the primary purpose of PO sync?

Options:

A.

To build objectives for the Program Increment

B.

To assess progress of the Program Increment and adjust scope and priority as needed

C.

To align with the scrum of scrums participants on the status of the Program Increment

Question 65

Program Increment (PI) Planning is a major event that requires preparation, coordina-tion, and communication. What are two key areas a Release Train Engineer should focus on to support a successful PI Planning event? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Organizational readiness - Strategic alignment; roles, teams, and train setup

B.

Architectural readiness - Defining the Architectural Runway

C.

Operational readiness - Facilitating PI events such as scrum of scrums, Iteration Planning, and System emo

D.

Facilities readiness - Space and logistics for the event

E.

Process readiness - The operational rhythm that enables SAFe governance

Question 66

What is the recommended duration of an Iteration in SAFe?

Options:

A.

Three weeks

B.

Two weeks

C.

Four weeks

D.

Six weeks

Question 67

What is the most accurate definition of DevOps?

Options:

A.

A set of tools and processes that govern how code is deployed

B.

A process that provides visibility to impediments between writing code and deliv-ering value

C.

A mindset, culture, and set of technical practices that emphasizes close coopera-tion to provide value to the Customer

D.

A method that ensures Operations works with Development every day to deliver value

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Total 225 questions