8010 Exam Dumps : Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Exam

Statement I is true as expected losses are the 'cost ofdoing business' and charged against the P&L of the unit holding the exposure. When evaluating the business unit, expected losses are taken into account. Unexpected losses however require risk capital reserves to be maintained against them.

Statement II isnot true. Credit portfolio loss distributions are not symmetrical, in fact they are highly skewed and have heavy tails.

Statement III is true. The notional, or the face value of a defaulted debt is the basis for a claim in bankruptcy court, and not the market value.

Statement IV is false. In the case of over the counter instruments, the replacement value of the contract represents the amount of the claim, and not the notional amount (which can be very high!).

Internal loss data isgenerally the highest quality as it is relevant, and is 'real' as it has occurred to the organization. External loss data suffers from a significant limitation that the risk profiles of the banks to which the data relates is generally not known due to anonymization, and may likely may not be applicable to the bank performing the calculations. Therefore, replacing external loss data with external loss data is not a good idea. Statement IV is therefore incorrect.

All other approach described are valid approaches for the risk analyst to consider and implement. Therefore statements I, II and III are correct and IV is not.

Current replacement values are a very poor measure of the credit exposure from a derivative contract, because the future value of these instruments is unpredictable, ie is stochastic, and the range of values it can take increases the further ahead in the future we look. Therefore it is common for credit exposures for derivatives to be measured using forward looking exposure profiles, which are distributions of the expected value of the derivative at the time horizon for which credit risk is being measured. To be conservative, a high enough quintile of this distribution is taken as the 'loan equivalent value' of the derivative as the exposure.Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

The notional value of derivative contracts generally tends to be quite high and unrelated to their economic value or the counterparty exposure. Therefore notional value is irrelevant.