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Total 249 questions

GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the advantage of using technology-based inquiry for discovering events?

Options:

A.

This inquiry prevents the need for employee surveys.

B.

This inquiry eliminates the need to analyze information.

C.

This inquiry focuses on unfavorable events.

D.

This inquiry often provides information sooner than other methods.

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Question 2

Which category of actions & controls in the IACM includes formal statements and rules about organizational intentions and expectations?

Options:

A.

Information

B.

People

C.

Technology

D.

Policy

Question 3

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

Question 4

In the context of Total Performance, how is responsiveness measured in the assessment of an education program?

Options:

A.

The number of new courses added to the education program each year.

B.

The number of positive reviews received for the education program.

C.

The percentage of employees who pass the final assessment.

D.

Time taken to educate a department, time to achieve 100% coverage, and time to detect and correct errors.

Question 5

How do values influence the way an organization operates?

Options:

A.

They establish the organization’s code of conduct

B.

They set voluntary boundaries for how the organization operates and often explain design decisions about the operating model

C.

They dictate the organization’s pricing strategy and revenue generation

D.

They determine the organization's market share and competitive positioning as part of assessing its financial value to shareholders

Question 6

In the IACM, what is the role of Promote/Enable Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To increase the likelihood of favorable events

B.

To establish clear lines of communication within the organization

C.

To set performance metrics for all actions and controls

D.

To establish and enable controls that mitigate potential security threats

Question 7

What are some examples of non-economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Appreciation, status, professional development

B.

Stock options, salary increases, bonuses, and profit-sharing

C.

Gift baskets, extra vacation time, and employee competitions

D.

Health insurance, retirement plans, paid time off, and sick leave

Question 8

What is the significance of assurance controls in the PERFORM component?

Options:

A.

To promote transparency and accountability in the organization's decision-making processes.

B.

To ensure that the organization's financial statements are accurate and reliable.

C.

To provide sufficient information to assurance providers when management and governance actions and controls are not enough.

D.

To establish a clear chain of command and reporting structure within the organization.

Question 9

What is the benefit of recognizing, compounding, and accelerating the impact of favorable events?

Options:

A.

To preserve records and other evidence for investigation

B.

To ensure confidentiality of the information and determine privilege

C.

To apply consistent discipline to individuals at fault

D.

To maximize benefit and promote future occurrence of favorable events

Question 10

Why is it important to establish decision-making criteria in the alignment process?

Options:

A.

To calculate the return on investment (ROI) of alignment activities

B.

To ensure that the organization stays on track and achieves its objectives

C.

To comply with industry regulations and standards

D.

To evaluate the performance of individual employees and teams

Question 11

What is the purpose of assigning accountability for external factors within an organization?

Options:

A.

To eliminate the need for hiring consultants or law firms to monitor external factors

B.

To ensure that individuals with authority and resources are responsible for successfully analyzing, influencing, and sensing external factors that may impact the organization

C.

To reduce the workload of the organization's top management and having staff people track external factors relevant to their own roles

D.

To know who will be using technology to track external events so proper access can be assigned

Question 12

What are key risk indicators (KRIs) associated with?

Options:

A.

The rate of return on investment and capital allocation

B.

The quality of products and services offered to customers

C.

The level of innovation and technological advancement

D.

The negative, unfavorable effect of uncertainty on objectives

Question 13

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

Options:

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

Question 14

What is the role of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

KPIs are subjective measures that are not based on any specific metrics or data

B.

KPIs are indicators that help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective

C.

KPIs are only relevant for external reporting and have no impact on internal decision-making

D.

KPIs are used to determine employee compensation and bonuses

Question 15

Why is it necessary to provide timely disclosures about the resolution of issues to relevant stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

B.

To ensure protection of anonymity and non-retaliation for reporters.

C.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events.

D.

To meet legal requirements and provide confidence to stakeholders about the process.

Question 16

How do organizational values contribute to acting with integrity?

Options:

A.

Adhering to established organizational values helps create a shared sense of purpose and direction, aligning actions and decisions with the organization's mission and goals

B.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by increasing the organization’s market share and profitability, which will satisfy shareholders to whom promises were made

C.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by allowing the organization to bypass certain legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by reducing the likelihood of enforcement actions because the organization is self-regulating

Question 17

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves acting deliberately in advance to reduce the risk of being caught off guard?

Options:

A.

Proactive

B.

Versatile

C.

Collaborative

D.

Assertive

Question 18

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

Question 19

What is the purpose of analyzing the internal context within an organization?

Options:

A.

To consider internal strengths and weaknesses, strategic plans, operating plans, organizational structures, policies, people, processes, technology, resources, information, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

B.

To determine the organization’s financial performance and profitability with its current plans, structures, people, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

C.

To evaluate the organization’s use of resources in relation to its established objectives.

D.

To assess how the organization operates given market conditions and competitive landscape.

Question 20

What is the purpose of reviewing information from monitoring and assurance?

Options:

A.

To determine the effectiveness of strategies

B.

To identify opportunities for improvement

C.

To assess the financial stability of the organization

D.

To evaluate employee performance

Question 21

What are the four dimensions of Total Performance that should be considered across all components and elements of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Vision, Mission, Strategy, and Tactics

B.

Input, Process, Output, and Feedback

C.

Planning, Execution, Monitoring, and Control

D.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

Question 22

Can the Second Line provide assurance over First Line activities, and under what conditions?

Options:

A.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it is focused on strategic planning and long-term goals, not on assurance activities

B.

Yes, the Second Line can provide assurance over First Line activities regardless of the design or performance of the activities because it has a higher level of authority and the necessary skills

C.

Yes, the Second Line may provide assurance over First Line activities so long as the activities under examination were not designed or performed by the Second Line, and the Second Line personnel have the required degree of Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence relative to the subject matter and desired Level of Assurance

D.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it lacks the necessary authority and jurisdiction

Question 23

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the likelihood and impact of an event?

Options:

A.

Consequence

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

Question 24

What are some examples of economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Monetary compensation, bonuses, profit-sharing, and gain-sharing.

B.

Employee training, mentorship programs, and skills development.

C.

Flexible work hours, remote work options, and casual dress codes.

D.

Team-building activities, company retreats, and social events.

Question 25

How can inconsistent incentives impact the perception of employees and business partners?

Options:

A.

They can reduce the risk of legal disputes

B.

They can lead to perceptions of favoritism and mistrust

C.

They can increase employee motivation and productivity

D.

They can improve the company’s public image

Question 26

Who are key external stakeholders that may significantly influence an organization?

Options:

A.

Distributors, resellers, and franchisees.

B.

Competitors, employees, and board members.

C.

Marketing agencies, legal advisors, and auditors.

D.

Customers, shareholders, creditors and lenders, government, and non-governmental organizations.

Question 27

What are leading indicators and lagging indicators?

Options:

A.

Leading indicators are types of input from leaders in each unit of the organization, while lagging indicators are views provided by departing employees during exit interviews.

B.

Leading indicators are financial metrics, while lagging indicators are non-financial metrics.

C.

Leading indicators are qualitative measures, while lagging indicators are quantitative measures.

D.

Leading indicators provide information about future events or conditions, while lagging indicators provide information about past events or conditions.

Question 28

What is the role of suitable criteria in the assurance process?

Options:

A.

These criteria are performance metrics used to assess the efficiency of the organization's operations.

B.

These criteria are standards for the ethical conduct of employees and stakeholders.

C.

These criteria are guidelines for the allocation of resources within the organization.

D.

These criteria are benchmarks used to evaluate subject matter that yield consistent and meaningful results.

Question 29

What are the four aspects of Total Performance that should be considered in monitoring activities?

Options:

A.

Effective (Sound), Efficient (Lean), Responsive (Agile), Resilient (Antifragile)

B.

Revenue, Profit, Market Share, Growth

C.

Quality, Quantity, Timeliness, Accuracy

D.

Leadership, Communication, Collaboration, Innovation

Question 30

What is the purpose of defining design criteria?

Options:

A.

To identify the key stakeholders involved in the design process

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how actions and controls are prioritized to achieve acceptable levels of risk, reward, and compliance

C.

To establish a timeline for the implementation of the design

D.

To determine the budget allocated for the design project

Question 31

What is the purpose of after-action reviews?

Options:

A.

They are used to provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct

B.

They are used to ensure the protection of anonymity and non-retaliation for reporters

C.

They uncover root causes of events and help improve proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls

D.

They are used to escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external

Question 32

What is the end result of the alignment process in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

The end result of alignment is a detailed budget and financial forecast

B.

The end result of alignment is a comprehensive risk assessment report

C.

The end result of alignment is an integrated plan of action

D.

The end result of alignment is a detailed organizational chart with lines of reporting

Question 33

What is the role of an assurance provider in the assurance process?

Options:

A.

They conduct activities to evaluate claims and statements about subject matter to enhance confidence.

B.

They oversee the implementation of the organization's compliance program and policies.

C.

They conduct financial audits and issue audit reports.

D.

They develop the organization’s risk management strategy and framework.

Question 34

What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate sender of a message?

Options:

A.

The sender’s fluency in the language of the needed communication, cultural background, and comfort in communicating with the target audience.

B.

The sender’s preference for formal or informal communication and their ability to respond appropriately to feedback.

C.

The purpose of communication, desired results, reputation with audience members, and shared culture and background with the audience.

D.

The sender’s job title, office location, years of experience, and favorite communication channel.

Question 35

What role do mission, vision, and values play in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

They specify the processes as well as the technology and tools used in the alignment process.

B.

They determine the allocation of financial resources within the organization.

C.

They outline the legal and regulatory requirements that the organization must satisfy and define how they relate to the business objectives.

D.

They provide clear direction and decision-making criteria and should be well-defined and consistently communicated throughout the organization.

Question 36

What is the primary purpose of interacting with stakeholders in an organization?

Options:

A.

To understand expectations, requirements, and perspectives that impact the organization

B.

To gather feedback for marketing campaigns

C.

To negotiate contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

To ensure stakeholders invest in the organization

Question 37

What is the significance of developing relationships with key individuals and champions within stakeholder groups?

Options:

A.

To ensure that stakeholders receive special privileges and benefits

B.

To liaison with people and champions who hold actual power and influence in each stakeholder group

C.

To create a network of stakeholders who can promote the organization’s brand

D.

To gather intelligence on the activities and plans of competing organizations who have some of the same stakeholders

Question 38

Why is it important for an organization to prioritize the concerns and needs of stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To organize stakeholder appreciation events

B.

To rank the most valuable stakeholders

C.

To highlight and address needs that compete with or conflict with each other

D.

To create a stakeholder directory

Question 39

What is the role of compliance management systems and key compliance indicators (KCIs) in an organization?

Options:

A.

To deliver compliance training to employees

B.

To measure the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

C.

To ensure adherence to ethical standards and codes of conduct

D.

To monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls and procedures

Question 40

What are the two key factors that determine the level of assurance provided by an assurance provider?

Options:

A.

Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence

B.

Assurance Transparency and Assurance Accountability

C.

Assurance Consistency and Assurance Reliability

D.

Assurance Efficiency and Assurance Effectiveness

Question 41

In the context of Principled Performance, what is the definition of integrity?

Options:

A.

Integrity is the absence of any legal disputes or conflicts within an organization

B.

Integrity is the ability to achieve financial success as promised to shareholders

C.

Integrity is the process of complying with all government regulations

D.

Integrity is the state of being whole and complete by fulfilling obligations, honoring promises, and cleaning up the mess if a promise was broken

Question 42

What is the term used to describe the positive, favorable effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Obstacle

B.

Enhancement

C.

Profit

D.

Reward

Question 43

What are some examples of action and control categories as described in the IACM?

Options:

A.

Policy, process change, punishment, incentives, and employee education

B.

Policy, people, process, physical, informational, technological, and financial actions and controls

C.

Outsourcing, downsizing, and automation as the primary means of control

D.

Random selection, trial and error, and reliance on intuition and experience

Question 44

What is the role of continuous control monitoring in the context of notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

It is used to monitor employees' personal communications.

B.

It is a tool that provides automated alerts for notifications within an organization.

C.

It is a method primarily for tracking the organization's speed of response to notifications.

D.

It is a technique for listening to hotline employees to ensure they are providing the right information.

Question 45

What is a potential advantage of using quantitative analysis techniques in the context of risk, reward, and compliance?

Options:

A.

Quantitative analysis techniques only require consideration of financial aspects of risk and reward so they are easier to use

B.

Quantitative analysis techniques allow for the estimation of risk, reward, and compliance using numerical data, enabling more precise comparisons to targets, tolerances, and capacities

C.

Quantitative analysis techniques eliminate the need for any qualitative analysis

D.

Quantitative analysis techniques disregard compliance requirements and focus solely on risk and reward

Question 46

Which aspect of culture includes constraining and conscribing the organization, including how the governing authority and executive team are engaged, and whether leadership models behavior in words and deeds?

Options:

A.

Performance culture

B.

Governance culture

C.

Assurance culture

D.

Management culture

Question 47

What is the relationship between monitoring and assurance activities in identifying opportunities for improvement?

Options:

A.

Monitoring activities focus on improvement, while assurance activities focus on risk assessment

B.

Monitoring and assurance activities have no relationship and operate independently

C.

Monitoring activities are related to financial improvement, while assurance activities are related to operational improvement

D.

Both monitoring and assurance activities identify opportunities to improve total performance

Question 48

In the context of assurance activities, what does the term "assurance objectivity" refer to?

Options:

A.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can adhere to industry standards and best practices in performing audits.

B.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can provide accurate and reliable information to stakeholders on which they can form an opinion about the subject matter themselves.

C.

The degree to which an Assurance Provider can be impartial, disinterested, independent, and free to conduct necessary activities to form an opinion about the subject matter.

D.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can minimize costs and maximize efficiency in performing audits.

Question 49

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

Options:

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

Question 50

How can an organization ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units?

Options:

A.

By establishing a single point for referral regardless of the topic or type

B.

By prioritizing, substantiating, validating, and routing notifications based on topic, type, and severity

C.

By disregarding any notifications that do not meet specific criteria or thresholds so the remainder can be more efficiently routed

D.

By requiring that all notifications be reviewed by the general counsel before any action is taken

Question 51

In the IACM, what is the role of Assurance Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assist assurance personnel in providing assurance services

B.

To assess new products and services for the market

C.

To analyze financial statements and prepare budgets

D.

To create a positive organizational culture and work environment

Question 52

Why is it important for an organization to sense and analyze changes in context within the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s risk management framework

B.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements related to governance and risk management

C.

To ensure that the organization’s financial statements are accurate and up to date

D.

To determine necessary changes to the organization and to understand which changes are significant and which are distractions

Question 53

How do assurance activities contribute to justified conclusions and confidence about total performance?

Options:

A.

By evaluating subject matter so that information consumers can trust what is stated or claimed

B.

By implementing new technologies and software systems

C.

By conducting market research and analyzing customer feedback

D.

By organizing team-building activities and workshops

Question 54

What are some systems-based methods for conducting inquiries?

Options:

A.

Coordinating survey efforts throughout the organization

B.

Avoiding any connection between inquiry responses and performance appraisals

C.

Continuous control monitoring, log management, application performance monitoring, management dashboards

D.

Observations, meetings, focus groups, and individual conversations

Question 55

What is the difference between a hazard and an obstacle in the context of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

A hazard is a measure of the negative impact on the organization, while an obstacle is a state of conditions that create a hazard.

B.

A hazard affects the likelihood of an event, while an obstacle is a hazard with significant impact on objectives.

C.

A hazard is a cause that has the potential to eventually result in harm, while an obstacle is an event that may have a negative effect on objectives.

D.

A hazard is a type of obstacle, while an obstacle is an overarching category of threat.

Question 56

At a very high level, how can an organization address an opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

By avoiding any actions that could lead to uncertainty

B.

By focusing on immediate goals and actions that don't present uncertainty

C.

By obtaining risk insurance

D.

By using design options such as Avoid, Accept, Share, and Control

Question 57

What does resilience measure in the context of the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

Resilience measures the durability and longevity of the organization’s physical assets

B.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to recover from financial losses and setbacks

C.

Resilience measures the ability to withstand stress and the capability to align after stress

D.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to maintain a positive reputation in the face of public scrutiny

Question 58

In the IACM, what is the role of Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To decrease the likelihood of unfavorable events

B.

To identify areas in the organization where compliance issues may arise

C.

To promote collaboration and teamwork among employees

D.

To ensure compliance with industry-specific regulations

Question 59

What are some considerations that should be taken into account when examining an organization’s internal context?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance, legal disputes, and contractual obligations on a unit-by-unit or division-by-division basis

B.

How any changes to the internal context might affect supplier relationships, distribution channels, and pricing strategies

C.

Mission and vision, values, value propositions and operating models, organizational charts and operating model mapping, key department scope and purpose, and potential perverse incentives

D.

Market share, employee and customer satisfaction, and brand reputation

Question 60

How does assurance help management and stakeholders gain confidence?

Options:

A.

It ensures policies and procedures meet regulatory standards

B.

It ensures financial statements are accurate and free from misstatements

C.

It helps identify and mitigate potential risks and threats to the organization

D.

It verifies that what stakeholders believe is happening, is actually happening

Question 61

Why is it important to prioritize, substantiate, validate, and route notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

To prevent employees from receiving any notifications that may cause stress unnecessarily

B.

To ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units or roles based on topic, type, and severity

C.

To ensure that notifications are only sent to the CEO and board of directors, or to the General Counsel if a legal issue is raised

D.

To provide the right to respond before any follow-up actions or investigations are started

Question 62

How can organizations recover from negative conduct, events, and conditions, and correct identified weaknesses within their governance, management, and assurance processes?

Options:

A.

Through open and transparent acknowledgment of the identified unfavorable conduct or events and acceptance of responsibility by the CEO.

B.

Through the application of responsive actions and controls that recover from unfavorable conduct, events, and conditions; correct identified weaknesses; execute necessary discipline; recognize and reinforce favorable conduct; and deter future undesired conduct or conditions.

C.

Through the use of both technology and physical actions and controls to recover from negative conduct and conditions, correct identified weaknesses, and establish barriers to future misconduct.

D.

Through focusing on promoting positive behavior and establishing reward systems for employees who identify weaknesses in the systems of control.

Question 63

What is the role of the mission statement in guiding decision-making and priority-setting within an organization?

Options:

A.

It outlines the organization’s budget and financial goals which must be considered in every type of decision

B.

It describes the organization’s product development plans that must be considered when making decisions and setting priorities

C.

It serves as a clear and consistent statement of the organization’s overall purpose and direction, guiding decision-making and priority-setting

D.

It defines the roles and responsibilities of each department

Question 64

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to eventually result in benefit?

Options:

A.

Venture

B.

Objective

C.

Prospect

D.

Target outcome

Question 65

How can an organization evaluate the adequacy of current levels of residual risk/reward and compliance?

Options:

A.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by looking at the number of lawsuits and enforcement actions.

B.

The organization can use analysis criteria to evaluate the adequacy of current levels and determine if additional analysis is required.

C.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by removing controls and seeing if the levels change.

D.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by hiring an outside auditor to make an assessment.

Question 66

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to constrain activities and set direction?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Governance & Oversight

C.

Risk & Decisions

D.

Compliance & Ethics

Question 67

How can organizations encourage the occurrence of positive events while preventing negative ones?

Options:

A.

Through implementing proactive actions and controls

B.

Through employee training and follow-up

C.

Through using financial actions and controls

D.

Through relying on responsive actions and controls

Question 68

How is the efficiency of the LEARN component measured in terms of the use of capital?

Options:

A.

By measuring changes in the organization's market share and competitive position.

B.

By evaluating the return on investment from undertaking LEARN activities.

C.

By assessing the efficiency of using financial, physical, human, and information capital to learn.

D.

By analyzing the organization's budget allocation and resource utilization.

Question 69

What is the difference between an organization that is being "Good" and being a "Principled Performer"?

Options:

A.

An organization must measure up to the Principled Performance definition to be a "Principled Performer," regardless of whether its objectives are subjectively perceived or preferred as "Good" or "Bad."

B.

A "Principled Performer" always pursues objectives that are considered "Good" by society.

C.

There is no difference: "Good" and a "Principled Performer" are synonymous.

D.

A "Principled Performer" is an organization that donates a significant portion of its profits to charity.

Question 70

How do mission, vision, and values work together to describe an organization's highest purpose?

Options:

A.

The mission describes the organization's reason for existing; the vision describes the organization's plans for the next few years; and values describe the organization's performance evaluation criteria.

B.

The mission describes who the organization serves, what it does, and its goals; the vision describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters; and values describe what the organization believes and stands for. Together, they define the organization's highest purpose.

C.

The mission describes the organization's financial targets, the vision describes the organization's marketing strategy, and the values describe the organization's pricing model.

D.

The mission outlines the organization's legal obligations, the vision outlines the organization's ideas about meeting those obligations, and the values outline the organization's code of conduct.

Question 71

What type of activities are typically included in post-assessments?

Options:

A.

Financial audits and budget reviews.

B.

Employee performance evaluations and appraisals.

C.

Market research and customer surveys.

D.

Lessons learned, root-cause analysis, after-action reviews, and other evaluative activities.

Question 72

What is the goal of implementing communication practices in an organization?

Options:

A.

To minimize the number of communication channels used within the organization and increase efficiency

B.

To ensure that all communication is formal and documented as required by law and regulation

C.

To eliminate informal communications that may provide incorrect information

D.

To address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations by interacting with the right audiences at the right time with the right information and intelligence

Question 73

Why is it essential to ensure that every issue or incident is addressed?

Options:

A.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct.

B.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events.

C.

To maintain employee and other stakeholder confidence in the system’s effectiveness.

D.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

Question 74

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the consequence of an event?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Consequence

C.

Likelihood

D.

Cause

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Total 249 questions