CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

A: Net position is pay floating (fixed to bank, receive fixed in swap, pay floating) → True.

B: No principal is exchanged in an interest rate swap → False.

C: LIBOR, not LIBID, is normally the reference rate → False.

D: Interest cash flows are exchanged periodically (e.g. annually) → True.

E: Swaps are usually between a company and a bank → True.

Answer: A, D, E

CIMA F3 emphasises that shareholders expect directors to focus on value creation after an acquisition, particularly in the areas that protect and enhance the cash flows and synergies that justified the deal. Following an all-cash acquisition, the target’s former shareholders have exited, so the acquirer’s shareholders will not prioritise tailoring dividends to meet the target shareholders’ preferences (B is not relevant). Also, the question states the acquisition has just been completed, so regulatory approval needed to complete the acquisition (C) is no longer a priority stage item. What matters immediately is executing post-deal integration to secure the expected benefits. First, directors must ensure integration and retention of key employees from the acquired firm (A), especially in service/knowledge businesses where people drive client relationships and operational capability. Second, they must protect revenues by retaining the acquired firm’s key customers (D); losing customers can destroy acquisition value quickly. Third, they must deliver the deal logic by realising anticipated post-acquisition synergies (E), such as cost savings, higher capacity utilisation, cross-selling, and process improvements. These priorities align with F3’s post-merger integration focus: preserve the earnings base, then convert strategic fit into measurable synergy cash flows.

The company is repurchasing and cancelling its own shares.

When shares are cancelled:

Share capital is reduced by the nominal value of the shares bought back. ✅

Any amount paid above nominal value reduces equity reserves (such as share premium and/or retained earnings), but it does not go through the Income Statement.

Total equity does decrease by the full repurchase amount (so option C is wrong).

No element of the repurchase (including any “premium to market value”) is treated as an expense in the Income Statement under IFRS – it’s purely an equity transaction (so D is wrong).

Option A is too specific and not strictly correct, because the premium over nominal is not necessarily all charged only to retained earnings – it can also be charged to share premium / other reserves.

So the one fully correct statement is:

B. The share capital figure would reduce by the nominal value of the shares purchased.