CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Answer: D. Discounted cash flow analysis based on forecast future free cash flows.

Because the company is unlisted, growing faster than the industry, and pays only a fixed dividend (not linked to performance), dividend or simple P/E methods won’t capture its value properly. A DCF based on future free cash flows is most suitable.

Translation risk arises when the foreign subsidiary’s net assets (in BS) are translated into the parent’s currency (A$). The most effective hedge is to match those net assets with liabilities in the same foreign currency. By financing the acquisition with BS borrowings, AAB creates a BS liability that offsets BBA’s BS net assets, reducing the net exposure to translation movements.

A$: equity in A$ doesn’t hedge BS assets.

Multi-currency bank accounts and forward contracts mainly address transaction risk, not long-term translation of balance sheet net assets.

Reasoning:

A share exchange allows Company B’s shareholders to stay invested and participate in the future gains (synergies, growth) of the combined business.

A is wrong: cash offers are what “realise” an investment and crystallise a capital gain.

B is wrong: a share exchange introduces foreign currency exposure (to A$), whereas a cash offer in B$ does not.

C is wrong: Company B is in the older, more established market, so it is more likely that market is efficient, not Company A’s.

So D is the correct explanation.