CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

This question examines loan covenant compliance, a topic covered in CIMA F3 under Debt Finance, Financial Risk, and Dividend Policy. Loan covenants are contractual restrictions imposed by lenders to protect their interests. Breaching a covenant can trigger penalties or loan repayment demands, so directors must assess compliance carefully using projected financial information.

The company has two covenants:

Interest cover must not fall below 4 times

Retained earnings for the year must not fall below $5.00 million

Step 1: Interest Cover Covenant

CIMA F3 defines interest cover as:

From the projections:

EBIT = $25.00 million

Interest = $3.20 million

Since 7.8 > 4, the company meets the interest cover covenant.

Step 2: Retained Earnings Covenant

Earnings after tax are projected at $15.26 million.

The most recent dividend per share is $0.10, and dividends are planned to increase by 8%:

With 100 million shares in issue:

Retained earnings for the year:

Since $4.46 million < $5.00 million, the company breaches the retained earnings covenant.

Conclusion (CIMA F3 Interpretation)

Interest cover covenant: Complied with

Retained earnings covenant: Breached

Under CIMA F3 guidance, directors must recognise that even when profitability appears strong, dividend policy can cause covenant breaches if distributions are excessive.

Company X is an established, unquoted, specialist IT advisory firm with steady results, predictable dividends and cashflows. Company P is only buying 30% (a minority stake).

B. Dividend based using DVM – Very suitable because dividends are predictable and regular. For a minority stake, dividends are often the main measurable return, so a dividend valuation model is appropriate.

C. Cash based using free cash flow before interest – A DCF valuation based on free cash flow to the firm is also appropriate for a profitable, growing, going concern. You can value the whole business using FCFF and then take 30% of the equity value.

Asset-based (A) is less relevant for a specialist service company with relatively few tangible assets. P/E-based methods (D and E) are less ideal given there are few direct competitors, making comparables unreliable.

Reasoning:

A share exchange allows Company B’s shareholders to stay invested and participate in the future gains (synergies, growth) of the combined business.

A is wrong: cash offers are what “realise” an investment and crystallise a capital gain.

B is wrong: a share exchange introduces foreign currency exposure (to A$), whereas a cash offer in B$ does not.

C is wrong: Company B is in the older, more established market, so it is more likely that market is efficient, not Company A’s.

So D is the correct explanation.