CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

We want methods that give the value of equity, not the value of the whole entity.

A. D₁ / (kₑ – g) → Gordon growth dividend model = value of equity (share value). ✅

B. Total earnings × P/E → market capitalisation = equity value. ✅

C. Free cash flows to all investors discounted at WACC → enterprise / firm value (equity + debt). ❌

D. Free cash flows to equity discounted at cost of equity → equity value. ✅

E. NCA + CA − CL → value of net assets before deducting long-term debt, i.e. value of the business to all capital providers, not just equity. ❌

So correct choices: A, B, D.

Cash flows:

Years 1–3: 100, 100, 100

From year 4: grow at 2% forever. Cost of capital = 12%.

PV of years 1–3:

PV1−3=1001.12+1001.122+1001.123≈240\text{PV}_{1-3} = \frac{100}{1.12} + \frac{100}{1.12^2} + \frac{100}{1.12^3} \approx 240PV1−3​=1.12100​+1.122100​+1.123100​≈240

Terminal value at end of year 3:

Year 4 CF = 100×1.02=102100 \times 1.02 = 102100×1.02=102

TV3=1020.12−0.02=1020.10=1,020\text{TV}_3 = \frac{102}{0.12 - 0.02} = \frac{102}{0.10} = 1{,}020TV3​=0.12−0.02102​=0.10102​=1,020

PV of terminal value:

PV(TV)=1,0201.123≈726\text{PV(TV)} = \frac{1{,}020}{1.12^3} \approx 726PV(TV)=1.1231,020​≈726

Total value ≈ 240+726=966240 + 726 = 966240+726=966.

So the value is $966 million → Option A.

B. Using present value of earnings (or free cash flows) is more appropriate when valuing a controlling interest, because the acquirer can change the dividend policy. ✅

C. A 5% historical dividend growth rate may not reflect future growth – assuming it will continue indefinitely is a big weakness. ✅

D. The industry average beta may not reflect Company B’s specific financial (gearing) risk; it should ideally be adjusted to reflect B’s capital structure. ✅

The others:

A is incorrect – you should generally use the target’s cost of equity (or project-specific) not Company A’s.

E is incorrect – unlisted companies can use CAPM via proxy/industry betas.