CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Negatives for the bank:

A. Advanced, custom-made tech equipment – poor resale value and high obsolescence risk, weak security.

C. Premises on a long-term lease and not fully fitted out – limited asset security; further capital outlay still needed.

E. Essential ongoing R&D – continuing cash demands and uncertainty of returns.

Positives, so not negatives:

B. Continuing profitability and net cash generation – good for servicing debt.

D. Founders’ personal investment – shows commitment and loss-sharing; strengthens equity base.

Interest rate swaps are covered in CIMA F3 under risk management and derivative instruments, specifically as tools for managing interest rate risk. An interest rate swap is an agreement between two parties to exchange interest payment obligations, typically swapping fixed-rate interest payments for floating-rate payments, or vice versa, on a notional principal amount.

Option A is TRUE.

CIMA F3 recognises that although swaps are primarily used for hedging, some companies may enter into interest rate swaps for speculative or risk-taking purposes. If management believes it has superior forecasts of future interest rate movements compared to the market, it may deliberately increase exposure to interest rate risk by swapping into floating rates or fixed rates accordingly. This behaviour is discussed in F3 as speculation rather than pure hedging.

Option E is TRUE.

An interest rate swap is an external hedging technique. CIMA F3 clearly distinguishes between:

Internal hedging (e.g. matching assets and liabilities, netting, leading and lagging), and

External hedging, which involves using financial instruments with third parties, such as forwards, futures, options and swaps.

Since a swap involves a counterparty (often a bank or financial institution), it is classified as an external hedge.

The remaining options are incorrect:

B is FALSE. Default risk does not automatically become “high” for the floating-rate payer when interest rates rise; it depends on the firm’s overall financial strength and cash flows. Rising rates increase payments, but not necessarily default risk to a high level.

C is FALSE. When interest rates fall, the fixed-rate payer is at a disadvantage (paying above-market rates), which may increase rather than reduce financial strain.

D is FALSE. An interest rate swap is not an internal hedging technique; it requires an external counterparty.

✅ Final Answer: A and E

Pre-acquisition:

Company X: earnings = $50m, P/E = 10 → value = 50 × 10 = $500m; shares = 100m → price = $5

Company Y: earnings = $15m, P/E = 10 → value = 15 × 10 = $150m; shares = 50m → price = $3

Combined earnings = 50 + 15 = $65m

Post-acquisition assumptions:

Earnings increase by 10% → 65 × 1.10 = $71.5m

Combined P/E remains 10 → total market value = 71.5 × 10 = $715m

We want X’s new share price to be 10% higher than $5 → target price = $5.50.

Share price = total value ÷ total X shares after issue:

5.50=715Total shares⇒Total shares=7155.5=130m5.50 = \frac{715}{\text{Total shares}} \Rightarrow \text{Total shares} = \frac{715}{5.5} = 130\text{m}5.50=Total shares715​⇒Total shares=5.5715​=130m

X currently has 100m shares, so must issue 30m new shares to Y’s shareholders.

Y has 50m shares → each Y share must get:

30m50m=0.6 X shares per Y share\frac{30m}{50m} = 0.6 \text{ X shares per Y share}50m30m​=0.6 X shares per Y share

Check options:

B: 3 X for 5 Y → 3/5 = 0.6 X per Y ✔

So that exchange ratio gives exactly 30m new X shares and hence a 10% increase in X’s share price.

Correct answer: B – 3 shares in Company X for 5 shares in Company Y.