CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Current debt interest:

Existing: 5m×8%=0.40m5\text{m} \times 8\% = 0.40\text{m}5m×8%=0.40m

New: 2m×10%=0.20m2\text{m} \times 10\% = 0.20\text{m}2m×10%=0.20m

Total interest = 0.60m

Let annual sales = SSS.

Operating profit margin = 20% → OP = 0.20 S.

Interest cover covenant:

0.20S0.60≥4⇒0.20S≥2.4⇒S≥2.40.20=12.0 million\frac{0.20 S}{0.60} \ge 4 \Rightarrow 0.20 S \ge 2.4 \Rightarrow S \ge \frac{2.4}{0.20} = 12.0\ \text{million}0.600.20S​≥4⇒0.20S≥2.4⇒S≥0.202.4​=12.0 million

Correct answer: A. $12.00 million

A – “X may be able to sell the receipts forward.”

If X invoices in customers’ currencies, it will receive known foreign-currency amounts and can hedge the exchange risk using forward contracts. So this is correct.

D – “The overseas customers may have difficulty obtaining X's home currency … so the proposal may increase sales.”

Right now, customers must obtain X’s currency to pay, bearing FX costs and risk. If X invoices in their local currency, buying becomes easier and could boost sales. So D is correct.

Why the others are wrong:

B: Effective sales price might go up or down; it isn’t necessarily lower.

C: Invoicing in customers’ currency removes certainty for X in home-currency terms unless hedged.

E: That describes the current position (customers bear the risk), not the proposed change.

Price to buy each target (equity market value):

A = 25

B = 62

C = 67

D = 60 (all $m)

Combined equity value before deducting cash consideration:

Z + A = 620

Z + B = 655

Z + C = 666

Z + D = 652 (all $m)

After paying cash, equity value = “combined value” − “price paid”:

A: 620 − 25 = 595

B: 655 − 62 = 593

C: 666 − 67 = 599

D: 652 − 60 = 592

Best post-acquisition value is with C (599m).

Answer: C – Acquire Company C.