CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

The company is repurchasing and cancelling its own shares.

When shares are cancelled:

Share capital is reduced by the nominal value of the shares bought back. ✅

Any amount paid above nominal value reduces equity reserves (such as share premium and/or retained earnings), but it does not go through the Income Statement.

Total equity does decrease by the full repurchase amount (so option C is wrong).

No element of the repurchase (including any “premium to market value”) is treated as an expense in the Income Statement under IFRS – it’s purely an equity transaction (so D is wrong).

Option A is too specific and not strictly correct, because the premium over nominal is not necessarily all charged only to retained earnings – it can also be charged to share premium / other reserves.

So the one fully correct statement is:

B. The share capital figure would reduce by the nominal value of the shares purchased.

For a company valued using the free cash flow to equity with constant growth, the standard Gordon growth formula is:

Value of equity=FCF1ke−g\text{Value of equity} = \frac{\text{FCF}_1}{k_e - g}Value of equity=ke​−gFCF1​​

Where:

FCF₁ = free cash flow in one year’s time

kek_eke​ = cost of equity

ggg = constant growth rate

Here:

FCF₁ = $100,000

ke=10%=0.10k_e = 10\% = 0.10ke​=10%=0.10

g=5%=0.05g = 5\% = 0.05g=5%=0.05

Correct valuation:

Value=100,0000.10−0.05=100,0000.05=$2,000,000\text{Value} = \frac{100{,}000}{0.10 - 0.05} = \frac{100{,}000}{0.05} = \$2{,}000{,}000Value=0.10−0.05100,000​=0.05100,000​=$2,000,000

The analyst instead did:

100,000×(1+0.05)/0.10=105,000/0.10=$1,050,000100{,}000 \times (1 + 0.05) / 0.10 = 105{,}000 / 0.10 = \$1{,}050{,}000100,000×(1+0.05)/0.10=105,000/0.10=$1,050,000

So the true value is $2,000,000 and the analyst’s value is $1,050,000.

Undervaluation=2,000,000−1,050,000=$950,000\text{Undervaluation} = 2{,}000{,}000 - 1{,}050{,}000 = \$950{,}000Undervaluation=2,000,000−1,050,000=$950,000

So the company has been undervalued by $950,000 → Option A.

IFRS 7 requires detailed disclosures about financial instruments and risk management, including currency risk, sensitivity analysis, and how those risks are managed. When these are published for the first time, investors may learn new information about:

The extent of US$ exposure (40% export sales), and

The quality of risk management (hedging, matching, etc.).

Efficient market theory (covered in F3) says prices adjust to new, relevant information. That new information could make investors more confident (if risks are well managed) or more concerned (if risks are high and poorly managed). So the share price could either increase or decrease, depending on the market’s reaction.

That matches option D.

Options A and C assume a one-way direction (always up or always down), which is unrealistic. B is wrong because segmental analysis does not normally give the same detailed, risk-focused disclosure as IFRS 7.