CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

In CIMA F3, rights issues and post-issue valuation are taught under the learning outcomes relating to financing decisions, equity issuance, and shareholder value analysis. The Theoretical Ex-Rights Price (TERP) represents the price a share should trade at immediately after the rights issue when the “value dilution” and “value added” of the project are taken into account.

According to the financial strategy principles taught in F3, the TERP is calculated by adding:

The current market value of equity,

The cash raised from the rights issue, and

The net present value (NPV) of the investment project,

then dividing by the total number of shares after the issue. This reflects the CIMA F3 view that share prices should adjust to reflect both new financing inflows and future economic benefits associated with positive-NPV projects.

Step-by-step application of the F3 method

(1) Current shareholders’ equity value:

(2) Rights issue price:

Rights issued at a 10% discount:

(3) Number of new shares issued:

(4) Total shares after issue:

(5) Total value after issue and project:

Add value of cash raised and NPV:

(6) TERP formula:

Rounded to two decimal places:

This calculation follows the CIMA F3 principle that positive-NPV projects increase shareholder wealth, and therefore must be added to the total post-issue company valuation before dividing by the enlarged share capital.

CIMA F3 links the cost of debt to the tax shield created by the tax deductibility of interest. The effective cost of servicing debt to a company is therefore the post-tax cost of debt, commonly expressed as kd(1−T)k_d(1-T)kd​(1−T). This makes statement C correct: when evaluating financing decisions and WACC, the company benefits from interest tax relief, so the relevant servicing cost is after tax. Statement A is also treated as correct in the standard F3 exam context: zero-coupon debt pays no periodic coupon interest, so there are no regular interest payments generating the conventional annual tax-deductible interest expense and therefore the familiar tax-shield effect on “interest payments” is not obtained in the same way (i.e., the typical coupon-based shield is eliminated). Statement B is incorrect because the size of the tax shield depends on the tax rate; if corporation tax changes, the value of the tax relief changes. Statement D is incorrect because if corporation tax rates rise, the tax shield from deductible interest would increase, not reduce (a higher tax rate increases the tax saving per dollar of interest). Hence the two correct statements are A and C.

A. Any opportunity to benefit from future exchange rate movements is lost.

True – a money market hedge locks in the effective exchange rate now, so you remove both downside risk and upside potential.

B. It can be tailored to match the size of the payment.

True – you can structure the borrowing/lending and FX transaction to exactly match the foreign currency amount due.

C. It manages transaction risk.

True – transaction risk (uncertainty in the home currency value of a known future foreign-currency cash flow) is what a money market hedge directly addresses.

D. It offers a significantly better outcome than a forward contract.

False – under interest rate parity, a money market hedge and a forward contract should give similar effective rates (ignoring spreads and costs).

E. It avoids the need to find immediate finance.

False – for a payable, you normally borrow or use cash now as part of the hedge, so it does not avoid immediate financing; it actually requires it.

✅ Answer to Q29: A, B, C