CFE-Financial-Transactions-and-Fraud-Schemes Exam Questions Tutorials

Detailed Explanation:

Rationale for Correct Answer:The Asset Turnover Ratio measures how efficiently a company uses its assets to generate revenue. It is calculated as Net Sales ÷ Average Total Assets. Higher ratios indicate better efficiency.

Analysis of Incorrect Options:

A. Quick ratio – Liquidity ratio, not asset efficiency.

B. Receivable turnover ratio – Measures efficiency in collecting receivables, not overall asset use.

C. Debt-to-equity ratio – Capital structure metric, not efficiency.

Key Concept: Financial ratio analysis — asset utilization efficiency.

Rationale for Correct Answer:The price-level adjusted historical cost method adjusts the original purchase price of an asset for inflation, providing a more current value while still tied to historical cost principles. It addresses one of the limitations of strict historical cost accounting.

Key Concept:Inflation adjustments in asset valuation.

Detailed Explanation:

Rationale for Correct Answer:This statement is False. Research in occupational fraud consistently shows that when employees believe there is a strong likelihood of being caught, they are less likely to engage in theft or deviant behavior. Deterrence theory emphasizes that perceived certainty of detection is one of the most effective controls against occupational fraud.

Key Concept:Deterrence through perceived detection.

Detailed Explanation:

Rationale for Correct Answer: Past posting occurs when an insured reinstates or purchases insurance coverage after a loss has already occurred and then submits a false claim, backdating the loss to appear covered. Joe’s scheme fits this exactly.

Analysis of Incorrect Options:

A. Staged accident – Fraudulent accidents deliberately caused, not applicable here.

B. Inflated damages – Exaggerating actual losses, not retroactive coverage.

D. Vehicle repair – General claim fraud, but not the scheme in question.

Key Concept: Insurance fraud – past posting schemes.