8006 Exam Dumps : Exam I: Finance Theory Financial Instruments Financial Markets - 2015 Edition

Statement I is not correct because the 4% bond with the same modified duration as the zero coupon bond will have a maturity much later in the future than the zero coupon, and the final repayment coming much later will cause its convexity to be greater than the equivalent duration zero coupon bond.

Statement II is not correct as the convexity of a bond increases not in a linear fashion but in proportion to the square root of time as the maturity of the bond is increased.

Statement III is not correct as mortgage based bonds bring negative convexity even in the case of long positions,

Statement IV is not correct as the duration of a zero coupon bond maturing in 10 years has a modified duration greater than that of a coupon bearing bond of the same maturity, which means its convexity is higher and not lower (note this is different from statement I where the modified durations were identical. Here, the maturity is identical which has different implications.)

Therefore none of the statements is correct and Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

This question requires a calculation of the present value of the future cash flows from the bond. The correct answer is $94.92, calculated as =(5/(1 + 5%)) + (5/(1+ 6%)^2) + (105/(1 + 7%)^3).

The duration of a perpetuity is 1/running yield. Therefore the correct answer is 1/.05 = 20 years