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Total 85 questions

Certified Cloud Native Platform Engineering Associate Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which IaC approach ensures Kubernetes infrastructure maintains its desired state automatically?

Options:

A.

Declarative

B.

Imperative

C.

Hybrid

D.

Manual

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Question 2

A developer is struggling to access the necessary services on a cloud native platform due to complex Kubernetes configurations. What approach can best simplify their access to platform capabilities?

Options:

A.

Increase the number of required configurations to enhance security.

B.

Implement a web portal that abstracts the Kubernetes complexities.

C.

Limit user access to only a few services.

D.

Provide detailed documentation on Kubernetes configurations.

Question 3

In a GitOps workflow, how should application environments be managed when promoting an application from staging to production?

Options:

A.

Merge changes and let a tool handle the deployment

B.

Create a new environment for production each time an application is updated.

C.

Manually update the production environment configuration files.

D.

Use a tool to package the application and deploy it directly to production.

Question 4

Which of the following observability pillars provides detailed information about the path a request takes through different services in a distributed system?

Options:

A.

Traces

B.

Logs

C.

Events

D.

Metrics

Question 5

Which of the following best describes the primary function of an incident management system during a platform outage?

Options:

A.

Automatically generate detailed incident documentation, including the timeline and actions taken by the response team.

B.

Centralize alerts, facilitate notification to the appropriate on-call personnel, coordinate communication, and provide visibility into the incident status.

C.

Retroactively analyze system logs and metrics after the incident resolution to identify the root cause.

D.

Automatically execute predefined remediation scripts on the affected systems to resolve the incident without human intervention.

Question 6

In a Continuous Integration (CI) pipeline, what is a key benefit of using automated builds?

Options:

A.

Minimizes server costs.

B.

Eliminates coding errors.

C.

Ensures consistent builds.

D.

Reduces code redundancy.

Question 7

What is a key cultural aspect that drives successful platform adoption in an organization?

Options:

A.

Mandating that all teams must use the platform without exceptions

B.

Keeping platform development separate from application teams.

C.

Prioritizing platform security over usability.

D.

Encouraging platform feedback loops from developers to improve usability.

Question 8

In a cloud native environment, what is one of the security benefits of implementing a service mesh?

Options:

A.

Enabling encryption of communication between services using mTLS.

B.

Automatically scaling services to handle increased traffic.

C.

Using a centralized logging system to monitor service interactions.

D.

Limiting network access to services based on IP allowlisting.

Question 9

In designing a cloud native platform, which architectural feature is essential for allowing the integration of new capabilities like self-service delivery and observability without specialist intervention?

Options:

A.

Monolithic architecture with no APIs.

B.

Centralized integration through specialist API gateways.

C.

Extensible architecture with modular components.

D.

Static architecture with rigid components.

Question 10

For a cloud native platform handling sensitive customer data, which approach ensures compliance with data privacy regulations like GDPR and PCI DSS within a Kubernetes environment?

Options:

A.

Relying on default cloud provider IAM policies with minimal Kubernetes customizations.

B.

Utilizing standard Kubernetes Secrets with encrypted storage and manual access reviews.

C.

Deploying a policy engine like Open Policy Agent (OPA) with real-time data masking and audit logging.

D.

Implementing Kubernetes Role-based access control (RBAC) with basic network policies and periodic manual audits.

Question 11

In the context of Agile methodology, which principle aligns best with DevOps practices in platform engineering?

Options:

A.

Customer involvement should be limited during the development process to avoid disruptions.

B.

Teams should continuously gather feedback and iterate on their work to improve outcomes.

C.

Teams should strictly adhere to initial project plans without making adjustments during development.

D.

Development and operations teams should remain separate to maintain clear responsibilities.

Question 12

Which provisioning strategy ensures efficient resource scaling for an application on Kubernetes?

Options:

A.

Implementing a fixed resource allocation that does not change regardless of demand.

B.

Using a declarative approach with Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tools to define resource requirements.

C.

Manual provisioning of resources based on predicted traffic.

D.

Using an imperative approach to script resource changes in response to traffic spikes.

Question 13

In the context of platform engineering and the effective delivery of platform software, which of the following statements describes the role of CI/CD pipelines in relation to Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) and security scanning?

Options:

A.

SBOM generation and security scanning are particularly valuable for application software. While platform software may have different security considerations, these practices are highly beneficial within CI/CD pipelines for applications.

B.

CI/CD pipelines should integrate SBOM generation and security scanning as automated steps within the build and test phases to ensure early detection of vulnerabilities and maintain a clear inventory of components.

C.

CI/CD pipelines are designed to accelerate the delivery of platform software, and adding SBOM generation and security scanning would slow down the process, so these activities are better suited for periodic audits conducted outside of the pipeline.

D.

CI/CD pipelines are primarily for automating deployments; SBOM generation and security scanning are separate, manual processes performed after deployment.

Question 14

Which metric measures a cloud native platform's impact on developer productivity and deployment speed?

Options:

A.

Monitor overall cloud infrastructure cost and resource consumption.

B.

Track average time from code commits to successful production deployment.

C.

Evaluate total security vulnerabilities detected during platform usage.

D.

Measure total cloud resource utilization across all development teams.

Question 15

A platform engineering team is building an Internal Developer Platform (IDP). Which of the following enables application teams to manage infrastructure resources independently, without requiring direct platform team support?

Options:

A.

Manual infrastructure deployment services.

B.

A comprehensive platform knowledge center.

C.

Centralized logging and monitoring interfaces.

D.

Self-service resource provisioning APIs.

Question 16

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Kubernetes Custom Resource Definitions (CRDs) in a self-service platform model?

Options:

A.

CRDs automatically manage the scaling and failover of platform services without additional configuration.

B.

CRDs eliminate the need for Role-based access control (RBAC) configurations in Kubernetes clusters.

C.

CRDs enable platform teams to define custom APIs without modifying the Kubernetes API server code.

D.

CRDs provide built-in support for multi-cloud deployments without additional tooling.

Question 17

A company is implementing a service mesh for secure service-to-service communication in their cloud native environment. What is the primary benefit of using mutual TLS (mTLS) within this context?

Options:

A.

Allows services to authenticate each other and secure data in transit.

B.

Allows services to bypass security checks for better performance.

C.

Enables logging of all service communications for audit purposes.

D.

Simplifies the deployment of microservices by automatically scaling them.

Question 18

Development teams frequently raise support tickets for short-term access to staging clusters, creating a growing burden on the platform team. What's the best long-term solution to balance control, efficiency, and developer experience?

Options:

A.

Use GitOps to manage RBAC roles and allow teams to request access via pull requests with automatic approval for non-sensitive environments.

B.

Dedicate one Cloud Native Platform Engineer to triage and fulfill all access requests to maintain fast turnaround times.

C.

Set up scheduled access windows and batch all requests into specific time slots managed by the platform team.

D.

Provide pre-approved kubeconfigs to trusted developers so they can access staging clusters without platform intervention.

Question 19

A developer is tasked with securing a Kubernetes cluster and needs to implement Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) to manage user permissions. Which of the following statements about RBAC in Kubernetes is correct?

Options:

A.

RBAC does not support namespace isolation and applies globally across the cluster.

B.

RBAC allows users to have unrestricted roles and access to all resources in the cluster.

C.

RBAC is only applicable to Pods and does not extend to other Kubernetes resources.

D.

RBAC uses roles and role bindings to grant permissions to users for specific resources and actions.

Question 20

A software development team is struggling to adopt a new cloud native platform efficiently. How can a centralized developer portal, such as Backstage, help improve their adoption process?

Options:

A.

Provides a single access point for all platform services and documentation.

B.

Provides tutorials on unrelated programming languages.

C.

Offers a place for developers to share their personal projects and code snippets.

D.

Limits access to platform tools to only senior developers.

Question 21

In a GitOps approach, how should the desired state of a system be managed and integrated?

Options:

A.

By storing it in Git, and manually pushing updates through CI/CD pipelines.

B.

As custom Kubernetes resources, stored and applied directly to the system.

C.

By using a centralized management tool to push changes immediately to all environments.

D.

By storing it so it is versioned and immutable, and pulled automatically into the system.

Question 22

In a GitOps setup, which of the following correctly describes the interaction between components when using a pull-based approach?

Options:

A.

The syncer continuously checks the git repository for changes and applies them to the target cluster.

B.

The target cluster sends updates to the git repository whenever a change is made.

C.

The syncer uses webhooks to notify the target cluster of changes in the git repository.

D.

The git repository pushes configuration changes directly to the syncer without any checks.

Question 23

As a Cloud Native Platform Associate, you are tasked with improving software delivery efficiency using DORA metrics. Which of the following metrics best indicates the effectiveness of your platform initiatives?

Options:

A.

Lead Time for Changes

B.

Mean Time to Recover (MTTR)

C.

Change Failure Rate

D.

Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

Question 24

As a platform engineer, how do you automate application deployments across multiple Kubernetes clusters using GitOps, Helm, and Crossplane, ensuring a consistent application state?

Options:

A.

Employ a GitOps controller to synchronize Git-stored Helm and Crossplane configurations.

B.

Use Helm and Crossplane, with manual GUI-based configuration updates.

C.

Integrate Helm and Crossplane into a GitOps-enabled CI/CD pipeline.

D.

Leverage Git for configuration storage, with manual application of Helm and Crossplane.

Question 25

Which approach is effective for scalable Kubernetes infrastructure provisioning?

Options:

A.

Helm charts with the environment values.yaml

B.

Imperative scripts using Kubernetes API

C.

Static YAML with kubectl apply

D.

Crossplane compositions defining custom CRDs

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Total 85 questions