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Total 403 questions

CC - Certified in Cybersecurity Questions and Answers

Question 1

A hacker launches a specific attack to exploit a known vulnerability. This is called:

Options:

A.

Breach

B.

Event

C.

Exploit

D.

Intrusion

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Question 2

A team activates procedures to mitigate a cyberattack. What plan is this?

Options:

A.

Business Continuity Plan

B.

Incident Response Plan

C.

Disaster Recovery Plan

D.

Security Operations Plan

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT an element of system security configuration management?

Options:

A.

Baselines

B.

Updates

C.

Inventory

D.

Audit logs

Question 4

Which of the following attacks can TLS help mitigate?

Options:

A.

Cross-site Scripting (XSS) attacks

B.

Social engineering attacks

C.

Man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks

D.

SQL injection attacks

Question 5

Which device is used to control traffic flow between networks?

Options:

A.

SDN

B.

Switch

C.

Hub

D.

Router

Question 6

A ________ creates an encrypted tunnel to protect your personal data and communications.

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

VPN

C.

Anti-virus

D.

IDS

Question 7

Which physical controls protect against electromagnetic eavesdropping?

Options:

A.

EMI shielding

B.

Screening rooms

C.

White noise generators

D.

All

Question 8

Which of the following best describes a zero-day vulnerability?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability that has been identified and patched

B.

A vulnerability that has not yet been discovered or publicly disclosed

C.

A vulnerability exploitable only by experts

D.

A vulnerability that affects only legacy systems

Question 9

What security feature is used in HTTPS?

Options:

A.

IPSec

B.

SSH

C.

ICMP

D.

SSL/TLS

Question 10

XenServer, LVM, Hyper-V, and ESXi are:

Options:

A.

Type 2 hypervisors

B.

Type 1 hypervisors

C.

Both

D.

None

Question 11

Which access control model is best suited for a large organization with many departments and varied access needs?

Options:

A.

DAC

B.

RBAC

C.

MAC

D.

RuBAC

Question 12

A hacker intercepts network traffic to steal login credentials. Which OSI layer is being attacked?

Options:

A.

Data Link layer

B.

Physical layer

C.

Network layer

D.

Application layer

Question 13

Which layer provides services directly to the user?

Options:

A.

Application Layer

B.

Session Layer

C.

Presentation Layer

D.

Physical Layer

Question 14

The documented set of procedures to detect, respond to, and limit the consequences of cyberattacks is called:

Options:

A.

IR

B.

IRP

C.

BCP

D.

DRP

Question 15

Which of the following is often associated with Disaster Recovery planning?

Options:

A.

Checklists

B.

Antivirus

C.

Firewalls

D.

All

Question 16

A popular way of implementing the principle of least privilege is:

Options:

A.

MAC

B.

DAC

C.

RBAC

D.

ABAC

Question 17

What is the process of verifying a user’s identity called?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Authentication

C.

Authorization

D.

Identification

Question 18

An unusual occurrence in a system or network is best described as:

Options:

A.

Breach

B.

Exploit

C.

Event

D.

Intrusion

Question 19

What does the termbusinessin business continuity planning refer to?

Options:

A.

The financial performance of the organization

B.

The technical systems of the organization

C.

The operational aspects of the organization

D.

The physical infrastructure of the organization

Question 20

A company analyzes system requirements, functions, and interdependencies to prioritize contingency needs. What is this process called?

Options:

A.

BCP

B.

DRP

C.

IRP

D.

BIA

Question 21

Which control identifies that an attack has occurred or is occurring?

Options:

A.

Preventive control

B.

Detective control

C.

Corrective control

D.

Recovery control

Question 22

Which of these tools is commonly used to crack passwords?

Options:

A.

Burp Suite

B.

Nslookup

C.

Wireshark

D.

John the Ripper

Question 23

What is the purpose of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Restore IT services

B.

Mitigate security violations

C.

Provide DRP overview

D.

Analyze system requirements to determine recovery priorities

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main components of an SQL database?

Options:

A.

Views

B.

Schemas

C.

Tables

D.

Object-oriented interfaces

Question 25

Restoring IT and communications after a disruption is the goal of:

Options:

A.

BCP

B.

IRP

C.

DRP

D.

None

Question 26

Malicious code that acts like a remotely controlled “robot” for an attacker.

Options:

A.

Rootkit

B.

Malware

C.

Bot

D.

Virus

Question 27

A power outage disrupts operations. Which plan helps sustain operations?

Options:

A.

DRP

B.

IRP

C.

BCP

D.

All

Question 28

A portion of the network exposed to the outside world with additional controls is called:

Options:

A.

VPN

B.

VLAN

C.

Zero Trust

D.

DMZ

Question 29

Ignoring a risk and continuing business operations is known as:

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk avoidance

D.

Risk transfer

Question 30

A set of instructions to detect, respond to, and recover from security incidents is a:

Options:

A.

BCP

B.

IRP

C.

DRP

D.

None

Question 31

What is the primary purpose of a honeytoken in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

To lure and detect attackers

B.

To encrypt sensitive data

C.

To enhance network performance

D.

To manage user access

Question 32

When is the Business Continuity Plan (BCP) enacted?

Options:

A.

When there is an event

B.

When there is an incident

C.

When there is a loss of business operations

D.

When there is a natural disaster

Question 33

Which scenario best represents defense in depth?

Options:

A.

Relying only on a firewall

B.

Storing all data on one server

C.

Requiring only a username and password

D.

None

Question 34

A DLP solution should be deployed so it can inspect all forms of data leaving the organization, including:

Options:

A.

Posting to websites

B.

Applications and APIs

C.

Copying to portable media

D.

All

Question 35

A hacker gains unauthorized access and steals confidential data. What term best describes this?

Options:

A.

Event

B.

Breach

C.

Intrusion

D.

Exploit

Question 36

What is the main objective of DRP after a breach shuts down systems?

Options:

A.

Relocation

B.

Employee safety

C.

Prosecution

D.

Restore systems

Question 37

Which regulation addresses personal privacy?

Options:

A.

HIPAA

B.

GDPR

C.

NIST

D.

ISO

Question 38

Which is related to standards?

Options:

A.

NIST

B.

GDPR

C.

HIPAA

D.

All

Question 39

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of objectives is called:

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk management

Question 40

Which fire suppression system is more friendly to electronics?

Options:

A.

Carbon dioxide–based

B.

Chemical-based

C.

Water-based

D.

Foam-based

Question 41

Token Ring operates at which OSI layer?

Options:

A.

Application

B.

Network

C.

Transport

D.

Physical

Question 42

An approach using software-based controllers and APIs to direct network traffic:

Options:

A.

VLAN

B.

SDN

C.

VPN

D.

SAN

Question 43

Flooding a server with traffic to make services unavailable is called:

Options:

A.

Phishing

B.

Virus

C.

Spoofing

D.

DDoS

Question 44

Information should be consistently and readily accessible for authorized parties.

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Authentication

C.

Availability

D.

Non-repudiation

Question 45

Which type of control minimizes the impact of an attack and restores normal operations as quickly as possible?

Options:

A.

Compensatory control

B.

Corrective control

C.

Recovery control

D.

Detective control

Question 46

An IP network protocol standardized by the IETF through RFC 792 to determine if a host is available is:

Options:

A.

IP

B.

ICMP

C.

IGMP

D.

HTTP

Question 47

A company’s servers are down due to malware. What is the FIRST step the DR team should take?

Options:

A.

Disconnect affected systems

B.

Conduct risk assessment

C.

Restore from backups

D.

Contact law enforcement

Question 48

A measure combining impact and likelihood is known as:

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Risk

C.

Threat

D.

Threat vector

Question 49

Which access control model can grant access to a given object based on complex rules?

Options:

A.

ABAC

B.

DAC

C.

MAC

D.

RBAC

Question 50

Which zero-trust component breaks LANs into very small, localized security zones?

Options:

A.

Zero Trust

B.

DMZ

C.

VPN

D.

Microsegmentation

Question 51

Limiting access based on data sensitivity and user authorization is known as:

Options:

A.

DAC

B.

MAC

C.

RuBAC

D.

RBAC

Question 52

Which plan provides immediate response procedures and management guidance?

Options:

A.

BCP

B.

IRP

C.

DRP

D.

All

Question 53

A practitioner needing step-by-step instructions to complete a provisioning task should consult a:

Options:

A.

Standard

B.

Policy

C.

Procedure

D.

Laws or regulations

Question 54

Often offered by third-party organizations and covering advisory or compliance objectives:

Options:

A.

Standard

B.

Policy

C.

Procedure

D.

Laws or Regulations

Question 55

The purpose of risk identification is:

Options:

A.

Employees at all levels help identify risks

B.

Identify risks to communicate clearly

C.

Identify risks to protect against them

D.

All

Question 56

Why is security training important?

Options:

A.

Because it fulfills regulatory requirements

B.

Because it helps people perform job duties more efficiently

C.

Because it reduces the risk of attacks such as social engineering

D.

All

Question 57

Which one of the following controls is NOT particularly effective against the insider threat?

Options:

A.

Least privilege

B.

Background checks

C.

Firewalls

D.

Separation of duties

Question 58

Four main components of Incident Response are:

Options:

A.

Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment, Eradication and Recovery

B.

Preparation, Detection, Analysis and Containment

C.

Detection, Analysis, Containment, Eradication and Recovery

D.

All

Question 59

Which plan is activated when Incident Response and BCP fail?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

BIA

C.

DRP

D.

None

Question 60

A transaction over $50,000 requires approval from both a manager and an accountant. Which concept applies?

Options:

A.

MAC

B.

Defense in Depth

C.

Two-Person Integrity

D.

Principle of Least Privilege

Question 61

What is knowledge-based authentication?

Options:

A.

Authentication based on a passphrase or secret code

B.

Authentication based on a token or smart card

C.

Authentication based on biometrics

D.

Authentication based on behavior

Question 62

Which type of software testing focuses on examining the source code for vulnerabilities and security issues?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Functional testing

D.

User acceptance testing

Question 63

Which OSI layer does a VPN primarily operate at?

Options:

A.

Layer 5

B.

Layer 6

C.

Layer 1

D.

Layer 3

Question 64

If a device is found to be non-compliant with the security baseline, what action should the security team take?

Options:

A.

Report

B.

Evaluate

C.

Ignore

D.

Disable or isolate it into a quarantine area until it can be checked and updated

Question 65

An integrated platform and graphical tool for security testing of web applications is:

Options:

A.

Burp Suite

B.

Wireshark

C.

Fiddler

D.

Zenmap

Question 66

A company’s governing board decides that only legal services may review third-party contracts. They create a document stating that no other department has permission to do so. This document is a:

Options:

A.

Procedure

B.

Policy

C.

Standard

D.

Law

Question 67

Which penetration testing technique requires the team to do the MOST work and effort?

Options:

A.

White box

B.

Blue box

C.

Gray box

D.

Black box

Question 68

What is the purpose of multi-factor authentication (MFA) in IAM?

Options:

A.

To simplify user access

B.

To eliminate the need for authentication

C.

To add an additional layer of security by requiring multiple forms of verification

D.

To grant unrestricted access to all users

Question 69

What kind of control is it when we add a backup firewall that takes over if the main one stops working?

Options:

A.

Clustering

B.

High availability (HA)

C.

Load balancing

D.

Component redundancy

Question 70

Which document identifies the principles and rules governing an organization’s protection of information systems and data?

Options:

A.

Procedure

B.

Guideline

C.

Policy

D.

Standard

Question 71

Which security control is designed to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information by ensuring it is accessible only to authorized users?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Firewall

C.

Antivirus

D.

Access control

Question 72

How does IPSec protect against replay attacks?

Options:

A.

By using sequence numbers

B.

By limiting network access

C.

By using digital signatures

D.

By encrypting all traffic

Question 73

Natalia wants to ensure the authenticity of her organization’s domain name records using digital signatures. What technology should she use?

Options:

A.

DNSSIGN

B.

DNSSEC

C.

CERTDNS

D.

DNS2

Question 74

A prolonged, targeted cyberattack where an intruder remains undetected for an extended period is called:

Options:

A.

Spoofing

B.

Phishing

C.

DoS

D.

Advanced Persistent Threat

Question 75

Why is identifying roles and responsibilities important in IR planning?

Options:

A.

To prevent incidents

B.

To ensure everyone knows their role

C.

To reduce impact

D.

To select containment strategy

Question 76

Which is the most efficient and effective way to test a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Simulations

B.

Discussions

C.

Walkthroughs

D.

Reviews

Question 77

Duke would like to restrict users from accessing a list of prohibited websites while connected to his network. Which control would BEST achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

URL filter

B.

IP address block

C.

DLP solution

D.

IPS solution

Question 78

Which threat is directly associated with malware?

Options:

A.

APT

B.

Ransomware

C.

Trojan

D.

DDoS

Question 79

Which is very likely to be used in a Disaster Recovery effort?

Options:

A.

Guard dogs

B.

Contract personnel

C.

Data backups

D.

Anti-malware solutions

Question 80

Which type of application can intercept sensitive information such as passwords on a network segment?

Options:

A.

Log server

B.

Network scanner

C.

Firewall

D.

Protocol analyzer

Question 81

Malware that disguises itself as legitimate software is called:

Options:

A.

Worm

B.

Trojan

C.

Virus

D.

Ransomware

Question 82

Which provides confidentiality by hiding or obscuring a message so it cannot be understood by unauthorized parties?

Options:

A.

Hashing

B.

Encoding

C.

Cryptography

D.

All

Question 83

In which cloud model does the customer have theleast responsibilityover infrastructure?

Options:

A.

FaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

Question 84

Selvaa presents a user ID and password to log on. Which characteristic must the user ID have?

Options:

A.

Authorization

B.

Authentication

C.

Availability

D.

Identification

Question 85

What federal law requires the use of vulnerability scanning on information systems operated by federal government agencies?

Options:

A.

FISMA

B.

HIPAA

C.

GLBA

D.

FERPA

Question 86

What is the main purpose of using multi-factor authentication (MFA) in a security system?

Options:

A.

To prevent data breaches

B.

To protect against malware

C.

To ensure data integrity

D.

To add an extra layer of security to user authentication

Question 87

Which document serves as specifications for implementing policy and dictates mandatory requirements?

Options:

A.

Policy

B.

Guideline

C.

Standard

D.

Procedure

Question 88

What cybersecurity principle focuses on granting users only the privileges necessary to perform their job functions?

Options:

A.

Least privilege

B.

Defense in depth

C.

Separation of duties

D.

Need-to-know basis

Question 89

What is the first step in incident response planning?

Options:

A.

Develop a management-approved policy

B.

Identify critical systems

C.

Train staff

D.

Form the IR team

Question 90

Which can be considered a fingerprint of a file or message?

Options:

A.

Hashing

B.

Encryption

C.

Decryption

D.

Encoding

Question 91

Dylan is creating a cloud architecture that requires connections between systems in two different private VPCs. What is the BEST way to enable this access?

Options:

A.

VPN connection

B.

Internet gateway

C.

Public IP address

D.

VPC endpoint

Question 92

An employee unintentionally shares confidential information with an unauthorized party. What term best describes this?

Options:

A.

Event

B.

Exploit

C.

Intrusion

D.

Breach

Question 93

The magnitude of harm expected from unauthorized disclosure, modification, destruction, or loss of information is known as:

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Vulnerability

C.

Impact

D.

Likelihood

Question 94

Which is NOT a function of an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?

Options:

A.

Encrypt network traffic

B.

Monitor network traffic

C.

Filter network traffic

D.

Detect and prevent attacks

Question 95

IDS can be described in terms of what fundamental functional components?

Options:

A.

Response

B.

Information sources

C.

Analysis

D.

All of the choices

Question 96

Which phase of the access control process (AAA) does a user prove his/her identity?

Options:

A.

Authentication

B.

Authorization

C.

Identification

D.

Accounting

Question 97

Natalia is concerned that users on her network may be storing sensitive information, such as Social Security numbers, on their hard drives without proper authorization or security controls. What third-party security service can she implement to best detect this activity?

Options:

A.

IDS – Intrusion Detection System

B.

IPS – Intrusion Prevention System

C.

DLP – Data Loss Protection

D.

TLS – Transport Layer Security

Question 98

What are registered ports primarily used for?

Options:

A.

Core TCP/IP protocols

B.

Web servers

C.

In-house applications

D.

Vendor and proprietary applications

Question 99

Which TLS extension is used to optimize the TLS handshake process by reducing the number of round trips between the client and server?

Options:

A.

TLS Renegotiation

B.

TLS Heartbeat

C.

TLS Session Resumption

D.

TLS FastTrack

Question 100

In DAC, a subject granted access can:

Options:

A.

Change security attributes

B.

Choose attributes for new objects

C.

Change access rules

D.

All

Question 101

Networks that are heavily microsegmented with firewalls at connection points are characteristic of:

Options:

A.

DMZ

B.

VPN

C.

VLAN

D.

Zero Trust

Question 102

An analysis of system requirements and interdependencies used to prioritize recovery is known as:

Options:

A.

BIA

B.

DR

C.

BCP

D.

IRP

Question 103

What is the primary goal of Identity and Access Management (IAM) in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

To ensure 100% security against all threats

B.

To provide secure and controlled access to resources

C.

To eliminate the need for user authentication

D.

To monitor network traffic for performance optimization

Question 104

Which ensures maintaining business operations during or after an incident?

Options:

A.

Incident Response

B.

Business Continuity

C.

Disaster Recovery

D.

All

Question 105

A set of rules that everyone must comply with and that usually carry monetary penalties for noncompliance are:

Options:

A.

Standards

B.

Policies

C.

Procedures

D.

Laws or regulations

Question 106

Why is an asset inventory so important?

Options:

A.

It tells you what to encrypt

B.

The law requires it

C.

It contains a price list

D.

You can’t protect what you don’t know you have

Question 107

A centralized organizational function that monitors, detects, and analyzes security events to prevent disruptions is called:

Options:

A.

IRP

B.

BCP

C.

SOC

D.

DRP

Question 108

Which attack most effectively maintains remote access and control over a victim’s computer?

Options:

A.

Phishing

B.

Trojans

C.

XSS

D.

Rootkits

Question 109

Which aspect of cybersecurity is MOST impacted by Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Integrity

C.

Availability

D.

Confidentiality

Question 110

Which type of risk involves unauthorized use or disclosure of confidential information such as passwords, financial data, or personal information?

Options:

A.

Compliance risk

B.

Reputational risk

C.

Operational risk

D.

Information risk

Question 111

When operating in a cloud environment, which cloud deployment model provides security teams with the greatest access to forensic information?

Options:

A.

FaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

Question 112

Example of a deterrent control:

Options:

A.

CCTV

B.

BCP

C.

DRP

D.

IRP

Question 113

Which of the following is NOT a feature of a cryptographic hash function?

Options:

A.

Deterministic

B.

Unique

C.

Useful

D.

Reversible

Question 114

What is the purpose of the CIA triad?

Options:

A.

Make security understandable

B.

Describe security concepts

C.

Define the purpose of security

D.

All

Question 115

Embedded systems and network-enabled devices that communicate with the Internet are:

Options:

A.

Endpoints

B.

Nodes

C.

IoT

D.

Routers

Question 116

What should be done to limit damage caused by a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Use a different email client

B.

Add more domain administrators

C.

Delete all emails with attachments

D.

Limit administrative privileges to only when required

Question 117

Which is the loopback address?

Options:

A.

::1

B.

127.0.0.1

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

Both A and B

Question 118

The order of controls used in defense in depth:

Options:

A.

Assets → Physical → Administrative → Technical

B.

Assets → Administrative → Physical → Technical

C.

Physical → Administrative → Technical → Assets

D.

Assets → Administrative → Technical → Physical

Question 119

What is the primary goal of input validation?

Options:

A.

Secure storage

B.

Prevent unauthorized access

C.

Prevent code injection attacks

D.

Encrypt data

Question 120

A backup is which type of security control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Recovery

D.

Corrective

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Total 403 questions