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Nokia 4A0-100 Dumps

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Total 352 questions
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Nokia Scalable IP Networks Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

Options:

A.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

Question 2

Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?

Options:

A.

Provides an unreliable, connectionless data transmission service.

B.

Provides a mechanism for flow control.

C.

Verifies the integrity of all received datagrams.

D.

Provides services equivalent to the OSI data link layer.

Question 3

Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

Options:

A.

Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Question 4

What is NOT a function of the IOM?

Options:

A.

It forwards the data to the switch fabric.

B.

It discards excess data packets.

C.

It converts the incoming data to an internal format.

D.

It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data.

Question 5

How many DS-3 frames can be transported in an OC-3 frame?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 6

If a 4-port LAG is configured with the option of 'port-threshold 2' and 'action down' what will happen if the total operational links in the LAG is 2?

Options:

A.

If dynamic-cost is enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF.

B.

If dynamic-cost is not enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF by dividing the link bandwidth by 2.

C.

The LAG will be changed to an operational state of 'down'.

D.

The LAG will function with only 2 ports. There will be no change to the routing metric.

Question 7

Click the Exhibit Button below:

An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram below:

How many broadcast and collision domains are on this LAN?

Options:

A.

9 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

B.

3 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

C.

3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains.

D.

1 broadcast domain, 9 collision domains.

Question 8

What happens immediately after an Ethernet switch receives an Ethernet frame?

Options:

A.

It records the destination MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

B.

It records the source MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

C.

It floods the frame out of all its interfaces except the interface on which the frame arrived.

D.

It transmits the frame out of the appropriate interface.

Question 9

Which of the following describes the Nokia 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)?

Options:

A.

Small optical module available in a variety of formats.

B.

Contains a CPU for managing the forwarding hardware in each flexible fast path.

C.

Converts traffic from an external standard format to an internal format.

D.

Contains the CPU that runs the routing protocol software as well as the switch fabric.

Question 10

Which of the following statements is TRUE of Layer 3 addressing?

Options:

A.

Internet devices on the same network can have the same Layer 3 address in different broadcast domains.

B.

Every Host device must have a unique Layer 3 address in order to access the Internet.

C.

Internet devices need unique Layer 3 addresses to communicate directly with upper layers.

D.

A router must have only one address to allow it to be uniquely identified.

Question 11

Which of the following command lines would be found in a list of commands designed to permit only certain type of traffic from exiting router RTR-A to router RTR-B?

Options:

A.

RTR-A>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1

B.

RTR-B>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1

C.

RTR-B>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1

D.

RTR-A>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1

Question 12

Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Controls distribution of IP addresses.

B.

Simplifies protocol functionality.

C.

Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.

D.

Increases protocol operational efficiencies.

E.

Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

Question 13

What is available for auto completion of commands within the CLI on the Nokia 7750 SR Service Router?

Options:

A.

Type the first letters of the command, then press Ctrl C

B.

Type the first letters of the command, then press Esc

C.

Type the first letters of the command, then press Tab

D.

Type the first letters of the command, then type ?

Question 14

Given the following (Network address: 208.40.224.0, Network prefix: /28.) What is the address range, including the network and broadcast addresses, for the fourth sub-network?

Options:

A.

208.40.224.0 208.40.224.255

B.

208.40.4.0 208.40.4.255

C.

208.40.224.16 208.40.224.31

D.

208.40.224.48 208.40.224.63

E.

208.40.227.0 - 208.40.224.255

Question 15

Which of the following is typically a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?

Options:

A.

Provides a universal addressing scheme to uniquely identify destinations in the network.

B.

The size of the Layer 2 frame cannot exceed 1518 bytes.

C.

Provides error checking of the frame contents after transmission.

D.

All the above.

Question 16

When a device in an IP network receives an echo request message that is destined for itself, it then:

Options:

A.

Estimates the round trip-time.

B.

Generates an echo reply.

C.

Calculates the data loss statistics.

D.

Verifies the data field of the message.

Question 17

Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?

Options:

A.

IEEE

B.

IETF

C.

NSFNET

D.

ITU-T

E.

APNIC

Question 18

What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?

Options:

A.

100 m.

B.

500 m.

C.

1 Km.

D.

10 Km.

Question 19

Which of the following enables service providers to support multiple customers with the same VLAN ID over the same backbone?

Options:

A.

VLAN Trunking

B.

VLAN Stacking

C.

VLAN Tagging

D.

VLAN Routing

Question 20

Which of the routers is the iLER for LSP B?

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Router R3

D.

Router R4

Question 21

What is the most specific aggregate prefix for the following 4 subnets?

100.1.1.4/30

100.1.1.8/30

100.1.1.12/30

100.1.1.16/30

Options:

A.

100.1.1.0/25

B.

100.1.1.0/26

C.

100.1.1.0/27

D.

100.1.1.0/28

Question 22

Which of the following about the displayed IP filter is TRUE?

Options:

A.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic between addresses 1.2.3.0/24 and 2.3.4.0/24 is dropped.

B.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 1.2.3.0/24 to destination address 2.3.4.0/24 is forwarded.

C.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 2.3.4.0/24 to destination address 1.2.3.0/24 is dropped.

D.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 1.2.3.0/24 to destination address 2.3.4.0/24 is dropped.

Question 23

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to the compact flash?

Options:

A.

Console

B.

Session

C.

Memory

D.

File

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Internet layer in the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

Unique network addressing scheme to identify hosts globally

B.

Orderly access to the transmission medium

C.

Routing protocols for path determination

D.

End-to-end forwarding of datagrams

Question 25

When forwarding a packet, which field in the following table determines the egress interface?

Options:

A.

Preference

B.

Metric

C.

Next-hop

D.

Cost

Question 26

Which Ethernet frame field allows the transmitter and receiver to synchronize communications?

Options:

A.

Preamble

B.

Start Frame Delimiter

C.

Length/Type

D.

Frame Check Sequence

Question 27

On the Nokia 7750 SR, which key displays all command options and their descriptions?

Options:

A.

?

B.

Tab

C.

Space bar

D.

Return

Question 28

A given network with address 200.12.30.0 and network mask 255.255.255.0 is divided into 16 equal-sized subnetworks. How many hosts does each subnetwork support?

Options:

A.

6

B.

14

C.

30

D.

62

Question 29

Which of the following about the displayed IP filter is TRUE?

Options:

A.

UDP (protocol 17) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and destination port number between 200 and 300 are forwarded.

B.

UDP (protocol 17) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and destination port number between 200 and 300 are dropped.

C.

UDP (protocol 17) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 or destination port numbers 200 or 300 are dropped.

D.

UDP (protocol 17) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number between 200 and 300 are dropped.

Question 30

Which of the following is NOT an advantage pf TCP/IP layering?

Options:

A.

It provides a standardized method of communication.

B.

It simplifies complex procedures.

C.

It reduces protocol overhead.

D.

It isolates layers and defines how they should interact.

Question 31

Which of the following statements are TRUE about the Nokia SR 7750? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It can boot without a compact flash in the CF3 slot.

B.

It cannot boot without a compact flash in the CF3 slot.

C.

It can operate without a compact flash in the CF3 slot once it has booted.

D.

It cannot operate without a compact flash in the CF3 slot once it has booted.

Question 32

Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for providing the user’s interface to the network?

Options:

A.

the application services layer

B.

The transport layer

C.

The Internet protocol layer

D.

The network interface layer

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Ethernet?

Options:

A.

It is a broadcast technology that can send frames to all devices attached to shared media.

B.

It uses a passive, wait-listen protocol called Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/ CD).

C.

It uses IP addresses to identify interfaces on the common network media.

D.

It is part of the network interface layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite.

Question 34

What type of BGP sessions does router R2 need to establish in order to reach networks 192.168.1.0/27 and 192.168.5.0/27?

Options:

A.

eBGP peering sessions with routers R1, R3 and R4

B.

iBGP peering sessions with routers R1 and R5

C.

An eBGP peering session with router R1, and iBGP peering sessions with routers R3 and R4

D.

An iBGP peering session with router R1, and an eBGP peering session with router R4

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

Options:

A.

Each customer’s traffic is isolated from other customers.

B.

Service providers utilize a shared infrastructure to support multiple VPNs.

C.

Customer data is altered as it traverses a VPN.

D.

A VPN is created specifically to meet the requirements of each customer.

Question 36

What is the sequence of events that must occur for a client to receive an IP address using DHCP?

Options:

A.

Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledgement

B.

Request, Offer, Discover, Acknowledgement

C.

Discover, Acknowledgement, Request, Offer

D.

Request, Acknowledgement, Discover, Offer

Question 37

What must the sender do when it receives a window size of 0 from the receiver?

Options:

A.

Stop transmitting.

B.

Terminate the TCP session.

C.

Send the next segment.

D.

Retransmit the previous segment.

Question 38

Where would you expect to find a P router in a service provider's network?

Options:

A.

At the edge of the provider's network facing the customer.

B.

At the edge of the customer's network facing the provider.

C.

In the core of the provider's network.

D.

On the customer premises.

Question 39

Which of the following statements regarding TCP is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Sequence numbers are used to ensure that the data received is offered to the application in the correct order.

B.

The SYN flag is used to identify congestion in the network.

C.

The NACK flag is set on confirmation segments to acknowledge FCS errors.

D.

The window size is transmitted in all TCP segments to communicate MTU limitations of lower layer protocols to upper layer applications.

Question 40

Which of the following information can be seen within the FILE context of the SR 7x50? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

File sizes

B.

Port statistics

C.

Log-id 100 files

D.

TiMOS image files

Question 41

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Ethernet half-duplex transmission?

Options:

A.

Half-duplex transmission is less efficient because the frame MTU is smaller.

B.

An end-station connected to a hub will always be half-duplex.

C.

Ethernet switches only support half-duplex transmission.

D.

All of the above.

Question 42

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what is the next-hop used on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1?

Options:

A.

next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

next-hop 192.168.2.1

C.

next-hop 10.2 3.1

D.

next-hop 192.168.2.0

Question 43

In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with sequence number 112 from R7 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. Later it receives a copy of the same LSA with a sequence number of 111 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

Options:

A.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

B.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

D.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

Question 44

What is the function of an LSR?

Options:

A.

Label Switching Routers make switching decisions based on the original MAC Header.

B.

Label Switching Routers make routing decisions based on the original IP Header.

C.

Label Switching Routers make forwarding decisions based on the MPLS label.

D.

Label Switching Routers make decisions based on ATM header information.

Question 45

The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will be obtained with this mask?

Options:

A.

4 subnets, 64 hosts

B.

64 subnets, 4 hosts

C.

4 subnets, 62 hosts

D.

64 subnets, 2 hosts

E.

6 subnets, 30 hosts

Question 46

What metric does a link state protocol use to choose the best path to a destination network?

Options:

A.

Link bandwidth.

B.

Round trip time.

C.

Hop count.

D.

Route preference.

Question 47

Which is the public AS in the diagram?

Options:

A.

65001

B.

65003

C.

2002

D.

All of the above.

E.

None of the above.

Question 48

How does LDP select the path used for an LSP?

Options:

A.

LDP monitors the available bandwidth on all links and signals the LSP based on this information.

B.

LDP uses the shortest hop-count between two endpoints for the LSP.

C.

LDP must be configured hop-by-hop by the service provider.

D.

LDP follows the path chosen by the IGP.

Question 49

Which statement best describes a VPRN service?

Options:

A.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected by the same set of dark fibers.

B.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private switched network administered by the service provider.

C.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private routed network administered by the service provider.

D.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites have public internet access administered by the service provider.

Question 50

Which of the following is characteristic of a static route?

Options:

A.

Responds in real time to network failures.

B.

Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system.

C.

Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.

D.

Explicitly defines the next hop based on operator input.

Question 51

Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering session with other BGP speakers?

Options:

A.

TCP port 179.

B.

UDP port 179.

C.

TCP port 22.

D.

UDP port 22.

Question 52

From the CE perspective, how does a VPLS operate?

Options:

A.

A VPLS operates as if 2 sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single router.

D.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point routed connections.

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