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Free and Premium Insurance Licensing Virginia-Life-Annuities-and-Health-Insurance Dumps Questions Answers

Virginia Life, Annuities, and Health Insurance Examination Series 11-01 Questions and Answers

Question 1

All of the following are basic underwriting actions in health insurance EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Rejecting applicants

B.

Deleting uniform policy provisions

C.

Issuing standard policies as applied for

D.

Issuing policies with exclusion riders

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Question 2

Which is a lawful cause for cancellation of an individual long-term care insurance policy by the insurer?

Options:

A.

Nonpayment of premium

B.

Medicaid eligibility

C.

Insurer insolvency

D.

Nuisance claims

Question 3

An immediate annuity:

Options:

A.

May be purchased in installments

B.

Pays a lump sum benefit to the annuitant

C.

Lacks an accumulation period

D.

Normally permits tax-deductible contributions

Question 4

What does the annuitant usually receive during the distribution phase of an annuity?

Options:

A.

Cash withdrawals upon request

B.

Benefit payments at regular intervals

C.

A lump sum

D.

Nothing

Question 5

In dental insurance coverage, which one of the following typically is EXCLUDED?

Options:

A.

Treatment started prior to the eligibility date

B.

Preventive care

C.

Dental X-rays

D.

Root canal therapy

Question 6

Which term in a disability income contract refers to two separate periods of disability that may be counted as one?

Options:

A.

Recurrent

B.

Presumptive

C.

Renewable

D.

Elimination

Question 7

What is often payable to a life insurance policyowner when a medical condition drastically limits the insured’s life expectancy?

Options:

A.

Death benefit

B.

Accelerated death benefit

C.

Reduced paid-up insurance

D.

Extended term insurance

Question 8

An insured with a long-term care (LTC) policy knowingly and intentionally misrepresented relevant facts relating to the insured’s health. How long does an insurer have to contest the coverage?

Options:

A.

Any time up to six months

B.

Any time up to two years

C.

Any time during the duration of the policy

D.

The insurer is prohibited from contesting the coverage

Question 9

Pre-existing conditions include conditions of health that:

Options:

A.

Are never insurable under any circumstances or degree of severity

B.

Must exist before an applicant can be accepted by an insurer

C.

Have been medically treated or diagnosed prior to the effective date of coverage

D.

Develop after the effective date of the policy but before the expiration of the time limit on certain defenses

Question 10

A licensee must report an administrative action taken by another state or governmental agency to the Bureau of Insurance within how many calendar days after final disposition?

Options:

A.

10 days

B.

20 days

C.

30 days

D.

45 days

Question 11

Who has the right to change the beneficiary of a health policy with a revocable beneficiary designation?

Options:

A.

The policyowner

B.

The beneficiary

C.

The insurer

D.

The agent

Question 12

When there is a misstatement of age by an applicant for a disability income policy:

Options:

A.

Any amount payable will be the amount of coverage the premium would have purchased at the insured's correct age

B.

The insurer is not liable for any claims made during the period before correction of the insured's age

C.

The company will cancel the policy immediately upon discovery of the misstatement of age

D.

The policy will be void from its inception because of the insured's misrepresentation

Question 13

All of the following statements about life annuities are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

They provide for the systematic liquidation of a principal sum

B.

Benefit payments start after the annuitant's death

C.

They are a form of insurance since risk sharing is involved

D.

They can protect against outliving one's financial resources

Question 14

In health insurance, the insurance policy, the endorsements, and any relevant papers attached to the policy make up the:

Options:

A.

Completed application

B.

Entire contract

C.

Uniform mandatory policy provisions

D.

Notice of coverage

Question 15

Under the notice of claim provision, notice given to a health insurance company’s agent is:

Options:

A.

An incomplete preliminary notice of claim

B.

Notice to the insurer

C.

Not valid notice to the company

D.

Contrary to the uniform mandatory provisions

Question 16

All of the following are advantages of whole life insurance EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Policy loans may be available

B.

Long-term protection is provided

C.

The initial cost of coverage is lower than for an equivalent amount of term insurance

D.

There is a cash value if the policy is terminated after a sufficient period of time

Question 17

Which of the following statements is true regarding an insurance agent’s license?

Options:

A.

The license fee is paid to the insurance company

B.

It authorizes the agent to transact insurance until otherwise terminated, suspended, or revoked

C.

It must be renewed annually

D.

A separate license must be issued for each insurer the agent represents

Question 18

Giving policyholders some part of the agent’s commission as an inducement to purchase insurance is an unfair trade practice known as:

Options:

A.

Twisting

B.

Rebating

C.

Replacement

D.

Retention

Question 19

All of the following factors influence the underwriting of group health insurance for an association EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The average age of the membership

B.

Prior claims experience of the association

C.

Marital status of the members

D.

Type of trade or occupation of the association’s members

Question 20

Which of the following is an advantage of term life insurance?

Options:

A.

The cost is about the same as whole life insurance

B.

It will be cost-effective in the long term if it is maintained to age 65 and beyond

C.

It provides insurance protection on a permanent basis

D.

The initial premium is lower than for an equivalent amount of whole life insurance

Question 21

The information which gives an insurer necessary personal data regarding an individual and helps determine whether the individual can be insured under an individual health insurance policy is contained in the:

Options:

A.

Enrollment form

B.

Policy schedule

C.

Application

D.

Agent’s statement

Question 22

An IRA owner names the spouse as beneficiary. Which is true if the owner dies before any distributions are made?

Options:

A.

All future distributions are forfeited

B.

The surviving spouse can roll the account into another IRA

C.

Distributions must begin within six months of the decedent’s death

D.

Distributions must begin in the year after the deceased would have reached age 70½

Question 23

An individual or business entity conducting business under an assumed or fictitious name must notify the Bureau of Insurance either at the time the license application is filed or:

Options:

A.

Within 30 calendar days from the date the name is adopted

B.

Within 60 calendar days from when the first policy is sold under the assumed name

C.

At the time of license renewal

D.

30 days before the assumed name is no longer being used

Question 24

The owner of a life insurance policy who enters into a viatical settlement contract is called:

Options:

A.

A viatical settlement provider

B.

A viatical settlement broker

C.

A viator

D.

A viatee

Question 25

Medical expense insurance typically EXCLUDES coverage for:

Options:

A.

Hospital care extending past 30 days

B.

Expenses incurred for primarily cosmetic surgery

C.

Maternity care benefits

D.

Hospital laboratory tests

Question 26

In Virginia, a group health certificate of insurance must contain:

Options:

A.

A copy of the group contract

B.

A list of all participating physicians

C.

The insurer’s financial statement

D.

A summary of policy features and benefits

Question 27

If an insurer pays an individual health insurance claim during a policy’s grace period:

Options:

A.

The deductible is waived

B.

A 10% service fee is charged

C.

The policy is canceled automatically at the end of the grace period

D.

The amount of unpaid premium may be subtracted from the reimbursement

Question 28

A mutual insurance company is wholly owned by its:

Options:

A.

Policyholders

B.

Shareholders

C.

Executive officers

D.

Board of directors

Question 29

An individual currently owns a long-term care policy. At the time of application for similar coverage, which item must be signed by the applicant and retained by the insurer?

Options:

A.

A cancellation notice

B.

A substitution notice

C.

A replacement notice

D.

A duplication notice

Question 30

On an application for individual health insurance, all of the following are typically included on the agent’s report EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Agent’s relationship to the applicant

B.

Applicant’s financial status

C.

Applicant’s general character

D.

Applicant’s signature

Question 31

In individual health insurance, a proof of loss typically should be submitted to the insurer within:

Options:

A.

30 days from the date of loss

B.

60 days from the date of loss

C.

90 days from the date of loss

D.

120 days from the date of loss

Question 32

Which of the following is an advantage of term life insurance?

Options:

A.

The cost is about the same as whole life insurance

B.

It will be cost effective in the long term if it is maintained to age 65 and beyond

C.

It provides insurance protection on a permanent basis

D.

The initial premium is lower than for an equivalent amount of whole life insurance

Question 33

Immediate annuities are often purchased by people who:

Options:

A.

Desire a tax deduction in the current year

B.

Want to contribute to a tax-sheltered annuity

C.

Have a lump sum to invest at retirement

D.

Want to accumulate funds for retirement at a later date

Question 34

Which is true about a term life insurance policy?

Options:

A.

It usually provides a cash value

B.

It provides temporary protection

C.

It may only be written for periods of five years or less

D.

It usually can be renewed at the same premium

Question 35

Generally, an indemnity plan which covers dental expenses:

Options:

A.

Rarely requires an insured to pay a deductible or coinsurance portion for major services such as crowns

B.

Covers preventive care for adults and children once every six months

C.

Covers all dependent family members living in the insured's household, including dependent parents

D.

Only allows insureds to be treated by certain preselected providers

Question 36

A function performed by both the life insurance agent and the home office underwriter is:

Options:

A.

Finding new clients

B.

Evaluating risks

C.

Collecting premiums

D.

Reviewing a client’s coverage periodically

Question 37

A person with dishonest tendencies may pose a:

Options:

A.

Dynamic hazard

B.

Physical hazard

C.

Mental hazard

D.

Moral hazard

Question 38

Which of the following statements about the contestability of a life insurance policy is true?

Options:

A.

The policy cannot be contested by the insurer once it is paid for and issued

B.

The policy can be contested by the insurer only during the first two years of the contract

C.

The policy can be contested by the insurer at all times

D.

The policy can be contested only if the insured is convicted of a felony

Question 39

Life insurance policies are required to have all of the following provisions EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The waiver of premium clause

B.

The misstatement of age clause

C.

The grace period clause

D.

The incontestability clause

Question 40

What is the agent’s primary role in underwriting life insurance?

Options:

A.

Assuring that the application provides proper information to the insurer

B.

Binding coverage immediately without home office approval

C.

Issuing the policy if all underwriting information is satisfactory

D.

Securing information from the Medical Information Bureau

Question 41

Replacement rules are designed primarily to protect the interest of the:

Options:

A.

Insurer replacing a policy

B.

Insurer whose policy is being replaced

C.

Policyowner

D.

Agent who sold the original policy

Question 42

An insurer operating in the U.S. but headquartered outside the U.S. is:

Options:

A.

A foreign insurer

B.

An alien insurer

C.

A captive insurer

D.

A reciprocal insurance exchange

Question 43

If a claim payment is delayed under a health policy, the insurer must pay:

Options:

A.

The claim proceeds ONLY

B.

Interest on the proceeds ONLY

C.

The claim proceeds plus interest

D.

A $1,000 penalty

Question 44

In a noncancelable disability income policy:

Options:

A.

The premium cannot be increased above the schedule specified in the policy

B.

The premium can be increased at the insurer’s will

C.

The insured has no renewal rights

D.

The insurer can refuse to renew the policy

Question 45

Which statement about an adjustable life insurance policy is true?

Options:

A.

Evidence of insurability may be required when the amount of insurance is increased

B.

It is a form of variable annuity

C.

It is most appropriate for people who are over age 50

D.

The plan of coverage may be changed only if the new form of coverage has a lower premium

Question 46

Under a single premium deferred annuity (SPDA), the annuitant generally:

Options:

A.

Will receive benefit payments beginning immediately

B.

Can make tax-free withdrawals until the principal is recovered

C.

Is designated as the beneficiary

D.

Is permitted to make only one premium payment

Question 47

Disability income insurance policies usually provide coverage for loss of income resulting from:

Options:

A.

Self-inflicted injuries

B.

Injuries incurred while in military service

C.

Disability resulting from war

D.

Accidental injuries

Question 48

If an agent misleads or fails to adequately disclose the title and true nature of a policy offered to a potential insured, it may be considered:

Options:

A.

Defamation

B.

Unfair discrimination

C.

Misrepresentation

D.

Coercion

Question 49

The entire contract clause in a life insurance policy states that the complete contract between the insurer and the policyowner usually consists of the policy and the:

Options:

A.

Conditional premium receipt

B.

Attached application

C.

Waiver of premium rider

D.

Declaration page

Question 50

The reinstatement provision in individual health insurance:

Options:

A.

Reinstates the amount of insurance after payment of a loss

B.

Allows the insured to reinstate the policy after coverage lapses for nonpayment of premium

C.

Allows the insured to change statements made in the application

D.

Requires that all reinstatement applications must be approved by the Bureau of Insurance

Question 51

Medical expense insurance typically EXCLUDES payment for treatment of injury or sickness resulting from:

Options:

A.

Auto accidents

B.

Sporting accidents

C.

War

D.

Tropical disease

Question 52

An agent learned that a client covered by a large employer group health plan has just suffered kidney failure. Which health plan will be primary during the months immediately following the onset of kidney failure?

Options:

A.

Medicare Part A Hospital Insurance

B.

Medicare Part B Medical Insurance

C.

The Medicaid program

D.

The employer group health plan

Question 53

Which one of the following determines the amount of loss that the insured must pay before a major medical expense policy begins to pay for a covered loss?

Options:

A.

Unallocated benefit amount

B.

Nonparticipation insurance amount

C.

Deductible amount

D.

Coinsurance percentage

Question 54

When a five-year renewable term life insurance policy issued at age 35 is renewed, the premium rate will be the current rate for:

Options:

A.

Five-year term insurance for a person aged 40

B.

Five-year term insurance for a person aged 35

C.

Yearly renewable term insurance for a person aged 40

D.

Yearly renewable term insurance for a person aged 35

Question 55

All of the following statements about the installments for a fixed period settlement option in life insurance policies are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The amount of the periodic payment is based on the beneficiary’s age

B.

The longer the period of time, the smaller each installment

C.

Each installment payment consists of both principal and interest

D.

The beneficiary may elect this option unless the policyowner has specified otherwise

Question 56

All of the following underwriting criteria are useful in evaluating the health risks of a group EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Stability of the group’s membership

B.

Composition of the group in terms of age, sex, and income

C.

Industrial classification of the group

D.

Persistency of the employer’s group contract

Question 57

What are long-term care insurance "ADL's"?

Options:

A.

Aggregate dollar limits

B.

Aggregate days limitation

C.

Activities of daily living

D.

Approved doctor lists

Question 58

An agent’s appointment with an insurer:

Options:

A.

Is in effect until terminated

B.

Must be renewed quarterly

C.

Must always be approved by the NAIC

D.

Can only be terminated after a proper hearing

Question 59

The purpose of the Rules Governing Standards for Medicare Supplement Policies is to:

Options:

A.

Provide guaranteed coverage that duplicates Medicare

B.

Provide coverage for Accident and Sickness Insurance to individuals of Labor Unions

C.

Ensure no Medicare Supplement policy or certificate contains limitations and exclusions of coverage

D.

Provide full disclosure in the sale of Accident and Sickness Insurance to persons eligible for Medicare

Question 60

Employer-paid premiums for qualified long-term care insurance are:

Options:

A.

Included in an employee’s gross income

B.

Deductible as a business expense

C.

Deductible on an employee’s federal income tax return

D.

Reimbursed by the employee

Question 61

Medicare Part B Medical Insurance pays benefits for:

Options:

A.

Hospice care

B.

Psychiatric hospitalization

C.

General inpatient hospital services

D.

Outpatient hospital treatment

Question 62

All of the following are common features found in health maintenance organizations (HMOs) EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Wellness programs

B.

Discounts on local health spa memberships

C.

Twenty-four hour access to emergency care

D.

Outpatient medical services

Question 63

Unless an insured has made fraudulent statements on the application for individual health coverage, subsequent claims may not be denied under the provision for:

Options:

A.

Legal actions

B.

Time limit on certain defenses

C.

Grace period

D.

Time payment of claims

Question 64

Long-term care insurance policies may exclude coverage for all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

War and acts of war

B.

Alcohol and drug dependency

C.

Self-inflicted injury

D.

Senile dementia

Question 65

The consideration clause in health insurance usually lists the insured’s consideration given for the policy as:

Options:

A.

Payment of the first premium and the application

B.

Payment of the first premium and the insurer’s acceptance of the risk

C.

The application and the insured’s acceptance of the risk

D.

The application and completion of an investigative report

Question 66

In long-term care insurance, ADLs normally include:

Options:

A.

Age, sex, income, and occupation

B.

Physicians, surgeons, dentists, and optometrists

C.

Spouse, children, parents, and siblings

D.

Dressing, eating, bathing, and mobility

Question 67

All of the following are typical health maintenance organization (HMO) preventive care services provided by a primary care physician EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Well-baby checkups

B.

Immunizations for children

C.

Experimental surgery

D.

Physical examinations

Question 68

The injury or damage sustained by the insured is called:

Options:

A.

A claim

B.

A peril

C.

A loss

D.

An accident

Question 69

An insurance contract that identifies individuals by relationship to a particular organization is called:

Options:

A.

Contributory insurance

B.

Group insurance

C.

Health insurance

D.

COBRA coverage

Question 70

If two group health insurance plans have coordination of benefits provisions, the plan that pays first is called the:

Options:

A.

Master contract

B.

Qualified plan

C.

Primary plan

D.

Comprehensive major medical plan

Question 71

One feature that distinguishes a continuous premium whole life policy from a limited payment whole life policy is:

Options:

A.

The length of time premiums will be paid

B.

The settlement options available

C.

The mortality table from which premiums are calculated

D.

The form in which dividends are paid

Question 72

All of the following statements about tax-sheltered annuities (TSAs) are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Only employees of certain tax-exempt organizations may participate

B.

The employee is normally the applicant, owner, and annuitant under the contract

C.

The employee issues periodic personal checks to purchase the contract

D.

An employee’s rights under the contract are nonforfeitable

Question 73

Which of the following terms may NOT be used in the advertisement of Accident and Sickness Insurance?

Options:

A.

Reductions

B.

Exclusions

C.

Pre-existing conditions

D.

Unlimited Benefits

Question 74

The period of time during which a new employee is ineligible for group health insurance coverage is called a:

Options:

A.

Participation period

B.

Grace period

C.

Probationary period

D.

Contributory period

Question 75

Which is true about ownership of a deferred annuity contract?

Options:

A.

All of the participants in a group contract are part-owners

B.

Ownership rights are neither transferable nor assignable

C.

An owner may be the annuitant or the beneficiary or neither

D.

An owner’s rights take effect when the benefit payment phase begins

Question 76

All of the following factors are used to determine insurability when underwriting an individual health insurance application EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Age

B.

Weight

C.

Occupation

D.

Religious preference

Question 77

Needs analysis is a method of life insurance planning which:

Options:

A.

Identifies the needs of an individual and the individual’s dependents

B.

Eliminates the need for estimating future interest and inflation rates

C.

Requires the team effort of the agent and home office underwriter

D.

Ignores Social Security benefit payments

Question 78

All of the following are elements of an insurable risk EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Speculative risk

B.

Accidental loss

C.

A large number of similar units

D.

An ability to measure the loss

Question 79

A typical disability income insurance policy EXCLUDES benefits for which one of the following causes of loss?

Options:

A.

Permanent injuries

B.

Intentional self-inflicted injuries

C.

Sporting accidents

D.

Falls

Question 80

When the business of insurance is no longer conducted under an assumed name, an agent must notify:

Options:

A.

The Bureau of Insurance

B.

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners

C.

The Chamber of Commerce

D.

The Surety Organization of Virginia

Question 81

The interest that an insurance company earns on life insurance premiums paid helps to:

Options:

A.

Increase the life insurance premium rate

B.

Increase the mortality rate

C.

Decrease the life insurance premium rate

D.

Decrease the mortality rate

Virginia-Life-Annuities-and-Health-Insurance Question Answers