Weekend Sale 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: save70

Free and Premium DAMA DMF-1220 Dumps Questions Answers

Page: 1 / 55
Total 725 questions

Data Management Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Question 1

Within projects, conceptual data modelling and logical data modelling are part of requirements planning and analysis activities, while physical data modelling is a design activity.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Buy Now
Question 2

Data Standards used by the enterprise must:

Options:

A.

Promote consistent results but periodically reviewed and updated

B.

Be a guideline for the organization but open to interpretation

C.

Promote consistent results so only written once and never updated

D.

Only be necessary for the Data Governance team

E.

Set by an standards organization and not by the enterprise

Question 3

Which of the following is a directive that codifies principles and management intent

into fundamental rules governing the creation, acquisition, integrity, security, quality,

and use of data and information?

Options:

A.

Data policies

B.

Data Governance

C.

Data audit principle

D.

Data asset valuation

E.

Data Management

Question 4

Bias refers to an inclination of outlook. Please select the types of data bias:

Options:

A.

Data collection for pre-defined results

B.

Hunch and search

C.

Positive reinforcement

D.

Context and Emotion

E.

Biased use of data collected

F.

Biased sampling methodology

Question 5

Sustainable Data Governance depends on:

Options:

A.

Rapid response to critical data issues

B.

The maturity level of the organization

C.

Business leadership, sponsorship, and ownership

D.

Well-documented policies

E.

Definition of 10-11 principles

Question 6

What are the three characteristics of effective Data Governance communication?

Options:

A.

It must be clear, unambiguous, and consistent

B.

It must be clear, structured, repetitive

C.

It must be viral, vital, and have volume

D.

It must be colorful, engaging, using multi-media

E.

It must be consistent, unambiguous, engaging

Question 7

Two risks with the Matching process are:

Options:

A.

False positives

B.

False Certainties

C.

False Negatives

D.

False Uncertainties

Question 8

The most important reason to implement operational data quality measurements is to inform data consumers about levels of data effectiveness.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 9

Business rules describe why business should operate internally, in order to be successful and compliant with the outside world.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 10

Integration of ETL data flows will usually be developed within tools specialised to manage those flows in a proprietary way.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 11

What type of key is used in physical and sometimes logical relational data modelling schemes to represent a relationship?

Options:

A.

Primary key

B.

Foreign key

C.

Network key

D.

Applications key

E.

Door key

F.

All of the above

Question 12

'Planning, implementation and control activities for lifecycle management of data and

information, found in any form or medium', pertains to which knowledge area?

Options:

A.

Document and Content Management

B.

Metadata Management

C.

Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

D.

Data Storage and Operations

E.

Data Integration and Interoperability

Question 13

Deliverables in the data quality context diagram include:

Options:

A.

DQM Procedures

B.

Data architecture

C.

Data governance

D.

DQ Policies and guidelines

E.

Analyses from data profiling

F.

Data quality Service Level Agreements

Question 14

Which of the following provides the strongest tangible reason for driving initiation of a Data Governance process in an enterprise?

Options:

A.

Each division of an enterprise may have its own way to describe its business and associated metrics

B.

There is disagreement among divisions on the meaning of key metrics

C.

There is typically significant waste in an enterprise through duplication of reports and metrics

D.

Increasing regulation in industry can impose real penalties in terms of substantial fines or jail terms for non-compliance to properly managed data (e.g. accurate reporting/accounting)

E.

I've been to a conference and found that lots of our competitors are doing it

Question 15

What is the best definition of Crowdsourced data collection?

Options:

A.

Crowdsourcing should not be used to gather data because there will be too many opinions and not enough facts

B.

Crowdsourcing is the process of obtaining needed data by soliciting contributions from a large group of people, and especially from an online community, rather than from traditional employees or suppliers  

C.

Crowdsourced data is the best way of finding data because so many people are contributing their definitions

D.

Crowdsourced data is the data that comes from using a company wiki to gather data because anyone in the crowd can contribute

E.

Crowdsourced data collection is only used by researchers to answer research, survey or feedback questions

Question 16

Drivers for data governance most often focus on reducing risk or improving processes. Please select the elements that relate to the improvement of processes:

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Data quality improvements

C.

Metadata management

D.

Efficiency in development projects

E.

Vendor management

F.

All of the above

Question 17

Common OLAP operations include:

Options:

A.

Drill down/up

B.

Roll-up

C.

Slice

D.

Dice

E.

All of the above

F.

Cut

Question 18

Confidentiality classification schemas might include two or more of the five confidentiality classification levels. Three correct classifications levels are:

Options:

A.

Consistency

B.

Internal use only

C.

Restricted confidential

D.

System development

E.

Confidential

F.

None of the above

Question 19

Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content management

lifecycle'?

Options:

A.

Capture records and content

B.

Manage versions and control

C.

Audit documents and records

D.

Create a content strategy

E.

Manage retention and disposal

Question 20

A goal of data governance is to enable an organisation to manage its data as a liability.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 21

A data architecture team is best described as:

Options:

A.

A group of strong database administrators

B.

A strategic planning and compliance team

C.

An operational data provisioning group

D.

The authors of reference data

E.

A well-managed project of architectural development

Question 22

Value is the difference between the cost of a thing and the benefit derived from that thing.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 23

Data Governance is at the centre if the data management activities, since governance is required for consistency within and balance between functions.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 24

Control activities to manage metadata stores include:

Options:

A.

Roadmap extrapolation

B.

Load statistical analysis

C.

Lineage

D.

Missing metadata reports

E.

Definitions resolutions improvement

F.

Job scheduling and monitoring

Question 25

Type of Reference Data Changes include:

Options:

A.

Row level changes to internal Reference Data sets

B.

Row level changes to external Reference Data sets

C.

Creation of new Reference Data sets

D.

Business model changes on column level

E.

Structural changes to external Reference Data sets

F.

None of the above

Question 26

Big Data and Data Science Governance should address such data questions as:

Options:

A.

What the data means on the source side and how to interpret the results on the on the output side

B.

What the data means on the source side but no assessment needed for the interpretation of results

C.

Whether to enrich the data and benefits of enrichment

D.

Terms for data obtained from vendors and outside organizations

E.

The approach for alignment of data visualization tools to the user community

Question 27

CMA is an abbreviation for Capability Maturity Assessment.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 28

The acronym BASE is made up of:

Options:

A.

Basically available

B.

Basically not available

C.

Software state

D.

Soft state

E.

Eventual consistency

F.

Everything considered

Question 29

Data security includes the planning, development and execution of security policies and procedures to provide authentication, authorisation, access and auditing of data and information assets.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 30

SDLC stands for:

Options:

A.

System development leverage cycle

B.

System design lifecycle

C.

System and design long cycle

D.

System development lifecycle

Question 31

The operational data quality management procedures depend on the ability to measure and monitor the applicability of data.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 32

The Belmont principles that may be adapted for Information Management disciplines, include:

Options:

A.

Respect for Persons

B.

Respect for Machines

C.

Beneficence

D.

Criminality

E.

Justice

Question 33

Data Governance deliverables commonly include:

Options:

A.

Data value chains

B.

IT methodology and practices

C.

Business culture assessment

D.

Roadmaps and implementation strategy

E.

Regulatory requirements

Question 34

Data Fabric is:

Options:

A.

A way of sewing together different data concepts into a single data warehouse

B.

A metadata repository

C.

A form of data lake that automates data acquisition and initial data quality processing

D.

A superior star schema strategy

E.

Just another data warehouse with no distinguishing features

Question 35

Those responsible for the data-sharing environment have an obligation to downstream data consumers to provide high quality data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 36

Naming standards for data domains should:

Options:

A.

Contain acronyms that are relevant to the organization because everyone should know them

B.

Be approved by the database administrators

C.

Minimize name changes across environments

D.

Should reflect their specific environment such as QA, Pre-Prod and Production

E.

Be short for ease of use

Question 37

Record management starts with a vague definition of what constitutes a record.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 38

Please select the correct general cost and benefit categories that can be applied consistently within an organization.

Options:

A.

Cost of erasing data from servers

B.

Cost of improving data

C.

What the data could be sold for

D.

Benefit of higher quality data

E.

Cost of replacing data if it were lost

F.

What competitors would pay for data

Question 39

The four main types of NoSQL databases are:

Options:

A.

Document

B.

Row-orientated

C.

Graph

D.

Strategic

E.

Key-value

F.

Column-orientated

Question 40

An implemented warehouse and its customer-facing BI tools is a technology product.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 41

What are the primary drivers of data security activities?

Options:

A.

Risk reduction

B.

Risk alleviation

C.

Business growth

D.

Business compliance

Question 42

Instant Messaging (IM) allows a user to message each other in real-time.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 43

Which of the following answers best describes an Active Data Dictionary?

Options:

A.

A dictionary that is active 24 hours a day

B.

Any data dictionary is considered active because it has codes and values used in the enterprise

C.

An integrated dictionary that is managed automatically by the database management system software

D.

A dictionary that allows users to enter data in an 'active' or open manner

E.

A dictionary that can be activated by the metadata team

Question 44

Malware types include:

Options:

A.

Trojan horse

B.

Worm

C.

Weasel

D.

Virus

E.

Adware

F.

Camware

Question 45

Examples of data enhancement includes:

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

Audit data

C.

Contextual information

D.

Incorporate Enterprise Technology

E.

Reference vocabularies

F.

Select Notation

Question 46

Enterprise service buses (ESB) are the data integration solution for near real-time sharing of data between many systems, where the hub is a virtual concept of the standard format or the canonical model for sharing data in the organization.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 47

SOA stands for:

Options:

A.

Service orchestrated architecture

B.

Service orientated access

C.

Service orientated architecture

D.

Service overall architecture

Question 48

Data management professionals who understand formal change management will be more successful in bringing about changes that will help their organizations get more value from their data. To do so, it is important to understand:

Options:

A.

The triggers for effective change

B.

Data architecture

C.

How people experience changes

D.

Data security

E.

The barriers to change

F.

Why change fails

Question 49

Controlling data availability requires management of user entitlements and of structures that technically control access based on entitlements.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 50

Test environments serve many uses:

Options:

A.

Quality Assurance Testing (QA)

B.

Integration Testing

C.

User Acceptance Testing (UAT)

D.

Performance Testing

E.

All of the above

F.

None of the above

Question 51

Examples of transformation in the ETL process onclude:

Options:

A.

De-duping

B.

Structure changes

C.

Hierarchical changes

D.

Re-ordering

E.

Semantic conversions

F.

None of the above

Question 52

Characteristics that minimise distractions and maximise useful information include, but not limited to, consistent object attributes

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 53

Enterprise data architects in an application migration project are primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

Mapping of data to business processes

B.

Changes to business processes

C.

Resolving data complexity

D.

Data mapping specifications

E.

Mapping outliers

Question 54

An effective Data Governance communication program should include the following:

Options:

A.

All of these

B.

A Data Governance Portal

C.

Events that encourage informal networking

D.

A custom training program

E.

Regular newsletters

Question 55

Service accounts are convenient because they can tailor enhanced access for the processes that use them.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 56

Please select the two concepts that drive security restrictions:

Options:

A.

Regulation

B.

Regression

C.

Confidence level

D.

Confidentiality level

Question 57

The process of identifying how different records may relate to a single entity is called:

Options:

A.

Meshing

B.

Munging

C.

Mirroring

D.

Matching

E.

Mangling

Question 58

The target of organizational change is expedition.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 59

In the Information Management Lifecycle, the Data Governance Activity "Define the Data Governance Framework" is considered in which Lifecycle stage?

Options:

A.

Create & Acquire

B.

Maintain & Use

C.

Specify

D.

Enable

E.

Plan

Question 60

Business people must be fully engaged in order to realize benefits from the advanced analytics.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 61

Over a decade an organisation has rationalised implementation of party concepts

from 48 systems to 3. This is a result of good:

Options:

A.

Data quality and data governance

B.

Data architecture and data warehousing

C.

Data operations and system rationalization

D.

System rationalization and metadata management

E.

Data architecture and data governance

Question 62

Veracity refers to how difficult the data is to use or to integrate.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 63

Reduced risk is a benefit of high quality data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 64

Examples of business metadata include:

Options:

A.

Data models

B.

Data quality rules

C.

Data usage notes

D.

Data Standards

Question 65

One of the first steps in a master data management program is to:

Options:

A.

Decommission similar data collection systems

B.

Review data security protocols

C.

Secure funding for 20 years of operations

D.

Build multiple data marts

E.

Evaluate and assess data sources

Question 66

GDPR and PIPEDA are examples of:

Options:

A.

Global data modelling standards

B.

Content management systems

C.

Data program rules

D.

Primary information parsing algorithms

E.

Data protection regulations

Question 67

Data profiling also includes cross-column analysis, which can identify overlapping or duplicate columns and expose embedded value dependencies.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 68

To build models, data modellers heavily rely on previous analysis and modelling work.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 69

XML is the abbreviation for standard mark-up language.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 70

What is the main purpose of developing a Data Architecture Roadmap?

Options:

A.

To help forward-looking decision making

B.

To help the management of the organization to see the trade-offs

C.

To manage the data dependencies that require active management

D.

To formulate a plan to address architectural problems in the business

E.

To ensure that projects are aligned with business needs and opportunities

Question 71

Data Quality rules and standards are a form of data. To be effective, they need to be managed, as data and rules should be:

Options:

A.

Managed outside of the repository and only the results of data quality assessments stored as rules metadata

B.

Documented consistently, tied to business impact, backed by data analysis, and accessible to all data consumers

C.

Organized with metrics so the data stewards can review the data and see what rules apply

D.

Focused on rules that can be integrated into application services

E.

Focused on managing relationships that have gone wrong in the past and may go wrong in the future

Question 72

Data Warehouse describes the operational extract, cleansing, transformation, control and load processes that maintain the data in a data warehouse.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 73

When assessing security risks it is required to evaluate each system for the following:

Options:

A.

The current security protections in place

B.

The requirements to protect the data

C.

None of the above

D.

All of the above

E.

The complexity of the data stored or in transit

F.

The sensitivity of the data stored or in transit

Question 74

Consistent input data reduces the chance of errors in associating records. Preparation processes include:

Options:

A.

Standardization

B.

EnrichmentC Validation

C.

Database management

Question 75

Please select the types of DBA specializations:

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Application

C.

Innovation

D.

Development

E.

Procedural

F.

All of the above

Question 76

Adoption of a Data Governance program is most likely to succeed:

Options:

A.

When the CDO is a charismatic leader

B.

In 1 or 2 months with a large consulting team

C.

When the entire enterprise is partaking at once

D.

When dictated by senior executives

E.

With an incremental rollout strategy

Question 77

An advantage of a centralized repository include: Quick metadata retrieval, since the repository and the query reside together.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 78

The TOGAF framework does NOT include a(n):

Options:

A.

Business focus

B.

Enterprise continuum approach

C.

Metamodel

D.

Methods

E.

Maturity model

Question 79

E-discovery is the process of finding electronic records that might serve as evidence in a legal action.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 80

A change management program supporting Data Governance should focus communication on what?

Options:

A.

Promoting the value of its data assets, monitor and act on feedback about Data Governance activities & implement data management training programs.

B.

Promote the value of its data assets

C.

Show the value of data stewardship & implement data management training program

D.

How many errors are in each of the various department's data

E.

Implement a data management training program and create a data dictionary

Question 81

The dependencies of enterprise technology architecture are that it acts on specified data according to business requirements.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 82

Assessment capabilities are evaluated against a pre-determined scale with established criteria. This is important because:

Options:

A.

Each process that is being evaluated must show some financial justification.

B.

It is difficult to be objective when using an internally developed assessment

C.

Each process under evaluation must be rated objectively against best practices found in many organizations and industries.

D.

Pre-determined scales give organizations a way to justify their weaknesses

E.

Established criteria in an industry make each organization more likely to want to use the industry's assessment.

Question 83

Big data primarily refers specifically to the volume of the data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 84

Data can be assessed based on whether it is required by:

Options:

A.

Regulatory reporting

B.

Capturing policy

C.

Ongoing operations

D.

Provide the starting point for customizations, integration or even replacement of an application

E.

Business policy

F.

Make the integration between data management and data analytics possible

Question 85

Data Governance Office (DGO) focuses on enterprise-level data definitions and data management standards across all DAMA-DMBOK knowledge areas. Consists of coordinating data management roles.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 86

Assessment criteria are broken into levels, and most capability maturity models use five (5) levels. This is important since:

Options:

A.

It is not important how many levels there are; vendors do this to show they have a complex model

B.

Each capability level will have specific criteria associated with its completion. To move to the next higher level, all the capabilities of the current level must be satisfied

C.

Each capability is separate, so each level represents a separate stage in development

D.

Assessments are difficult and breaking them into levels makes them more difficult to perform

E.

The organization must be able to manage each criterion, and breaking them into levels is the only way to do that

Question 87

Validity, as a dimension of data quality, refers to whether data values are consistent with a defined domain of values.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 88

Business requirements is an input in the Data Warehouse and Business Intelligence context diagram.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 89

Changes to reference data do not need to be management, only metadata should be managed.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 90

Enterprise data architecture description must include both [1] as well as [2]

Options:

A.

[1] Data Flow Design [2] Data Context Diagram

B.

[1] Enterprise Data Model [2] Architecture Diagram

C.

[1] Enterprise Data Model [2] Data Flow Design

D.

[1] Enterprise Data Model [2] Data Context Diagram

Question 91

A goal of metadata management is to manage data related business terminology in

order toc

Options:

A.

Successfully size the database

B.

Ensure accurate data requirements are gathered for reporting

C.

Ensure people understand data content and can use data consistently

D.

Ensure people understand data definition in Bl systems

E.

Ensure the business processes align to the data model

Question 92

What is the final step in the development of a business-data-driven roadmap?

Options:

A.

Describe the Data Value Chain that supports the Business Capabilities

B.

Finalize the Data flow between business capabilities

C.

Establish the sequence of projects that will be used to establish the data value chain

D.

Resequencing of some of the business capabilities to resolve data dependencies

E.

Resolve Data Dependency challenges

Question 93

When assessing tools to implement master data management solutions, functionality

must include:

Options:

A.

Auto-normalization features

B.

Backup and recovery utilities

C.

Document and content management

D.

Sophisticated integration capability

E.

Advanced analytics capabilities

Question 94

Security Risks include elements that can compromise a network and/or database.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 95

Why is it so important to conduct a Data Governance Readiness Assessment?

Options:

A.

Because it will show that the Data Governance team is working hard

B.

It will give the Business some metrics

C.

It is important because the organization will have an opportunity for business people to be identified as data stewards

D.

It is important because it will prove that the IT department is best qualified to define, develop, and manage the organization’s data assets

E.

It will identify the readiness and level of maturity that an organization will need to effectively govern and sustain its data, process, and policies

Question 96

Business Intelligence tool types include:

Options:

A.

Technology reporting

B.

Operational reporting

C.

Descriptive, self-service analytics

D.

Operations performance management (OPM)

E.

Business performance management (BPM)

F.

Predictive, self-service analytics

Question 97

The number of entities in a relationship is the arity of the relationship. The most common are:

Options:

A.

Unary

B.

Binary

C.

Trinary

D.

Ternary

Question 98

Change only requires change agents in special circumstances, especially when there is little to no adoption.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 99

In a data warehouse, where the classification lists for organisation type are

inconsistent in different source systems, there is an indication that there is a lack of

focus on:

Options:

A.

Metadata Management

B.

Data Storage

C.

Data Modelling

D.

Master Data

E.

Reference data

Question 100

Please select the correct principles of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) of the EU.

Options:

A.

Purpose Limitation

B.

Data Minimisation

C.

Accuracy

D.

Storage Limitation

E.

Accountability

F.

All of the above

Question 101

The Data Governance Council (DGC) manages data governance initiatives, issues, and escalations.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 102

Data Storage and Operations: The design, implementation and support of stored data to maximize its value.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 103

Which of the following is NOT a type of Data Steward?

Options:

A.

Coordinating

B.

Enterprise

C.

Operational

D.

Business

E.

Executive

Question 104

DBAs and database architects combine their knowledge of available tools with the business requirements in order to suggest the best possible application of technology to meet organizational goals.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 105

How can the Data Governance process best support Regulatory reporting requirements?

Options:

A.

By providing a look up service for definitions

B.

By ensuring that data is properly owned, understood, defined, documented and controlled

C.

By performing a data audit

D.

By creating a map of the enterprise data stores where copies of information may be found

E.

By highlighting challenges of multiple definitions within the enterprise

Question 106

Data professional should not balance the short-term versus long-term business interests.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 107

An input in the Metadata management context diagram does not include:

Options:

A.

Business requirements

B.

Business metadata

C.

Technical metadata

D.

Metadata standards

E.

Process Metadata

Question 108

The standard for a strong password is set by the:

Options:

A.

Data security standard

B.

Data access standard

C.

Identity management standard

D.

Data modelling standard

E.

Data naming standard

Question 109

You have completed analysis of a Data Governance issue in your organisation and have presented your findings to the executive management team. However, your findings are not greeted warmly and you find yourself being blamed for the continued existence of the issue. What is the most likely root cause for this?

Options:

A.

You did not secure appropriate budget or resources for the engagement and did not properly define the project charter

B.

You failed to correctly scope the analysis project and did not secure resources to deliver a fully executed solution to address root causes

C.

You failed to communicate to your team the importance of achieving a workable solution to the issues identified

D.

You failed to correctly manage expectations about the roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities for Data Governance in the organisation and are dependent on other areas to execute your recommendations

E.

You adopted an incorrect methodology to your Data Governance and have failed to execute necessary information management tasks

Question 110

Critical Data is most often used in

Options:

A.

Regulatory, financial, or management reporting

B.

Business operational needs

C.

Measuring product quality and customer satisfaction

D.

Business strategy, especially efforts at competitive differentiation.

E.

All of these

Question 111

If data is a governed resource, like other resources (e.g., human resources, finance, property), how is Data Governance different from other types of Governance?

Options:

A.

Oversight of a particular resource

B.

Agreed models for risk management over the particular resource

C.

Oversight of a resource that represents other resources, therefore supporting other resource governance

D.

Ensuring compliance with regulation for the particular resource

E.

Agreed models for decision making and decision rights, defined authority, and escalation paths for the resource

Question 112

Data architect: A senior analyst responsible for data architecture and data integration.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 113

The disclosure of sensitive addresses may occur through:

Options:

A.

Inappropriate use of photocopier toner

B.

Cloud-based databases

C.

Software ignoring privacy tags on the data

D.

Ineffective implementation of data architecture

E.

Stored procedures being called directly

Question 114

When constructing models and diagrams during formalisation of data architecture there are certain characteristics that minimise distractions and maximize useful information. Characteristics include:

Options:

A.

Linear symmetry

B.

A match between all diagram objects and the legend

C.

A clear and consistent legend

D.

A consistent line across display methods

E.

Consistent object attributes

F.

A clear and consistent line direction

Question 115

When data is classified as either security data or regulatory data, the result will be:

Options:

A.

Business employees are restricted from viewing the data but technical employees can store the data in databases

B.

Employees will never see classified data for any reason

C.

Employees know they have to aggregate the data

D.

Employees, both business & technical know the sensitivity of the data

E.

Employees know they cannot use the data because it has been classified

Question 116

Device security standard include:

Options:

A.

Installation of anti-malware and encryption software

B.

Relational security policies

C.

Access policies regarding connections using mobile devices

D.

Regulation compliance standards

E.

None of the above

F.

Awareness of security vulnerabilities

Question 117

Which of the following is NOT an objective of a business (data) glossary?

Options:

A.

Provide standard definitions for data and metadata

B.

Maximize search capability and enable access to documented institutional knowledge

C.

Improve the linkage between physical data assets and the business

D.

Reduce data misuse risk due to inconsistent management of a business concept

E.

Define business units, software, and other important glossary items

Question 118

Reference and Master data definition: Managing shared data to meet organizational goals, reduce risks associated with data redundancy, ensure higher quality, and reduce the costs of data integration.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 119

What position should be responsible for leading the Data Governance Council (DGC)?

Options:

A.

Chief Data Steward or Chief Data Officer

B.

Chief Information Officer or Chief Technology Officer

C.

DGC Chair should rotate among executive positions

D.

Chief Data Architect or Chief Data Modeler

E.

Any executive can chair the DGC

Question 120

Key processing steps for MDM include:

Options:

A.

Data model management

B.

Data acquisition

C.

Data validation, standardization and enrichment

D.

Entity resolution

E.

Data sharing and stewardship

F.

None of the above

Question 121

Taxonomies can have different structures, including:

Options:

A.

Polyhierarchy

B.

Application

C.

Facet taxonomy

D.

Network taxonomy

E.

Flat taxonomy

F.

All of the above

Question 122

SBA is an abbreviation for service-based architecture.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 123

ISO 8000 will describe the structure and organization of data quality management, including:

Options:

A.

Data Quality Assurance

B.

None of the above

C.

Data Quality Planning

D.

Data Quality Audit

E.

Data Quality Control

F.

Data Quality Improvement

Question 124

Within each area of consideration mentioned in question 13, they should address morale adversity as per Ethical Risk Model for Sampling Projects.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 125

The business case for enterprise warehousing is:

Options:

A.

To increase data redundancy, align information glossaries, and enable anenterprise to exploit machine leaming techniques

B.

To align data systems, improve source system management, and to enable anenterprise exploit machine learning techniques

C.

To increase data distribution, improve information generation, and enable anenterprise to use its data to increase revenue

D.

To reduce data overload, improve information governance, and enable anenterprise to use its data to make better decisions

E.

To reduce data redundancy, improve information consistency, and enable anenterprise to use its data to make better decisions

Question 126

An Operational Data Mart is a data mart focused on tactical decision support.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 127

In matching, false positives are three references that do not represent the same entity are linked with a single identifier.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 128

Content refers to the data and information inside a file, document or website.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 129

Inputs in the data quality context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Data stores

B.

Data lakes

C.

Business requirements

D.

Data quality expectations

Question 130

Which model has one Data Governance organization coordinate with multiple Business Units to maintain consistent definitions and standards?

Options:

A.

Federated Data Governance Model

B.

Central Data Governance Model

C.

Cognitive Data Governance Model

D.

Replicated Data Governance Model

E.

Associative Data Governance Model

Question 131

Data replication has two dimensions of scaling: diagonal and lateral

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 132

Deliverables in the Metadata Management context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Metadata Strategy

B.

Metadata Standards

C.

Data Lineage

D.

Metadata Architecture

E.

Metadata design

F.

Data storage and operations

Question 133

Data quality issues only emerge at initial stages of the data lifecycle.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 134

The goal of Data Governance is to enable an organization to manage data as an asset. To achieve this overall goal, a DG program must be:

Options:

A.

Modeled, sanctioned and readable

B.

Eloquent, transformative and explicit

C.

Horizontal, vertical and fluid

D.

Sustainable, embedded and measured

E.

Visionary, vertical and vivid

Question 135

Examples of interaction models include:

Options:

A.

Hub-and-spoke

B.

Publish - subscribe

C.

Point-to-point

D.

Wheel-and-spike

Question 136

Different types of product Master Data solutions include:

Options:

A.

People Lifecycle Product Management (PLPM)

B.

Product data in Manufacturing Execution Systems (MES)

C.

None of the above

D.

Product Data in Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)

E.

Product Lifecycle Management (PLM)

Question 137

Examples of business processes when constructing data flow diagrams include:

Options:

A.

Order Management

B.

Marketing & Sales

C.

Sales order

D.

Invoicing

E.

Product Development

F.

Customer

Question 138

Which Data Architecture Artifact describes how data transforms into business

assets?

Options:

A.

Implementation Roadmap

B.

Data Value Chain

C.

Master Data Models

D.

Business Value Chains

E.

Data Flows

Question 139

The DW encompasses all components in the data staging and data presentation areas, including:

Options:

A.

Operational source system

B.

Data access tools

C.

Data presentation area

D.

Data staging area

E.

All of the above

F.

Technology source system

Question 140

MPP is an abbreviation for Major Parallel Processing.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 141

When doing reference data management, there many organizations that have standardized data sets that are incredibly valuable and should be subscribed to. Which of these organizations would be least useful?

Options:

A.

The company registration organization

B.

Wikipedia

C.

ISO

D.

IEEE

E.

The national post office

Question 142

Data models comprise and contain metadata essential to data consumers.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 143

Data handling ethics are concerned with how to procure, store, manage, use and dispose of data in ways that are aligned with ethical principles.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 144

Content management includes the systems for organizing information resources so that they can specially be stored.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 145

Well prepared records have characteristics such as:

Options:

A.

Context

B.

Content

C.

Compliance

D.

Timeliness

Question 146

Data profiling examples include:

Options:

A.

Counts of null

B.

Max/Min value

C.

Max/Min length

D.

Frequency distribution

E.

Data type and format

F.

None of the above

Question 147

The need to manage data movement efficiently is a primary driver for Data Integration and Interoperability.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 148

Why is the GDPR called the most important change in data and data privacy regulation in 20 years?

Options:

A.

Because most Europeans say they want the same data protection rights across the EU and regardless of where their data is processed

B.

Because most Europeans don’t want their data used by any country but the one in which they live

C.

Because most Europeans don’t care if EU companies have their data but they don’t want it shared with non-EU companies

D.

Because most Europeans are on social media because they don’t want their data exposed

E.

Because most Europeans believe other countries are stealing their data

Question 149

Access to data for Multidimensional databases use a variant of SQL called MDX or Multidimensional expression.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 150

ANSI 859 recommends taking into account the following criteria when determining which control level applies to a data asset:

Options:

A.

Need to reuse the asset or earlier versions of the assets

B.

Consequences of change to the enterprise or project

C.

Cost of providing and updating the asset

D.

Project impact, if change will have significant cost or schedule consequences

Question 151

Volume refers to the amount of data. Big Data often has thousands of entities or elements in billions of records.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 152

Organizations conduct capability maturity assessments for a number of reasons, including:

Options:

A.

Organizational change

B.

Data management issues

C.

Regulation

D.

Data governance

E.

Data modeling

F.

New technology

Question 153

The deliverables in the data architecture context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Data flows

B.

Enterprise data

C.

Implementation roadmap

D.

Data Value Chains

E.

None of the above

F.

All of the above

Question 154

The flow of data in a data integration solution does not have to be designed and documented.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 155

Which of these best describes the purpose of a Communications Plan in Data Governance?

Options:

A.

A Communications plan is required to schedule the email updates to stakeholders

B.

Implementing Data Governance requires you to know who to communicate issues and incidents via social media

C.

Implementing Data Governance requires you to engage with external suppliers to tell them what standards have changed

D.

Implementing Data Governance is a change management activity, and planned communications are essential for successful change

E.

Implementing Data Governance is a great brand development opportunity for your organization, so you need to engage media in a planned way

Question 156

All metadata management solutions include architectural layers including:

Options:

A.

Metadata Quality Assurance Testing

B.

Metadata integration

C.

Metadata usage

D.

Metadata delivery

E.

Metadata control and management

F.

None of the above

Question 157

An application DBA leads the review and administration of procedural database objects.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 158

On example of a transformation process in ETL is:

Options:

A.

Re-ordering

B.

Recording

C.

Duping

D.

Servicing

Question 159

It is recommended that organizations not print their business data glossaries for general use, why would you not want to print the glossary?

Options:

A.

Because there is so much data in an organization's glossary that the report would be too big to handle

B.

Because the glossary contains trade 'secrets' that the organization wants to protect

C.

Because industry rules and regulation should not be printed because they vary by State

D.

Because the data is not static but is being updated by stewards as they add new fields and definitions

E.

Because the data is confidential and should not be given out in printed form

Question 160

Select three correct attributes a data governance programme must be:

Options:

A.

Embedded

B.

Flexible

C.

Measures

D.

Rigid

E.

Independent responsibility

F.

Sustainable

Question 161

Different types of metadata include:

Options:

A.

Business, Technical and Operational

B.

Business. Quality, and Introspective

C.

Business, Application and Processing

D.

Business, Information, Application and Technology

E.

Fluid, static and viscous

Question 162

Many people assume that most data quality issues are caused by data entry errors. A more sophisticated understanding recognizes that gaps in or execution of business and technical processes cause many more problems that mis-keying.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 163

What ISO standard defines characteristics that can be tested by any organisation in the data supply chain to objectively determine conformance of the data to this ISO standard.

Options:

A.

ISO 9000

B.

ISO 7000

C.

ISO 8000

D.

ISO 9001

Question 164

Class operations can be:

Options:

A.

General: Hidden

B.

Public: Externally visible

C.

Internally visible: Visible to children objects

D.

Private: Hidden

Question 165

Issues caused by data entry processes include:

Options:

A.

Data entry interface issues

B.

List entry placement

C.

Field overloading

D.

None of the above

E.

Training issues

F.

Changes to business processes

Question 166

The accuracy dimension has to do with the precision of data values.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 167

Please select valid modelling schemes or notations

Options:

A.

NoSQL

B.

Dimensional

C.

Relational

D.

Object-orientated

E.

Fact-based

F.

Matrix-based

Question 168

Big data management requires:

Options:

A.

No discipline at all

B.

Less discipline than relational data management

C.

More discipline than relational data management

D.

Big ideas with big budgets

E.

A certification in data science

Question 169

Reference and Master Data Management follow these guiding principles:

Options:

A.

Quality

B.

Stewardship

C.

Authority

D.

Ownership

E.

Exclusivity

F.

Inclusivity

Question 170

The independent updating of data into a system of reference is likely to cause:

Options:

A.

Reference data inconsistencies

B.

Duplicate data

C.

Deadlocks in the database

D.

Master data inconsistencies

E.

Transaction data inconsistencies

Question 171

There are three recovery types that provide guidelines for how quickly recovery takes place and what it focuses on.

Options:

A.

Immediate recovery

B.

Intermittent recovery

C.

Critical recovery

D.

Translucent recovery

E.

BMT recovery

F.

Non-critical recovery

Question 172

Deliverables in the document and content management context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Metadata and reference data

B.

Policy and procedure

C.

Data governance

D.

Content and records management strategy

E.

Audit trail and log

F.

Data storage and operations

Question 173

Elements that point to differences between warehouses and operational systems include:

Options:

A.

Historical

B.

Data security standards

C.

Subject-orientated

D.

Non-volatile

E.

Data quality

F.

Integrated

Question 174

Barriers to effective management of data quality include:

Options:

A.

Inappropriate or ineffective instruments to measure value

B.

Lack of awareness on the part of leadership and staff

C.

Lack of leadership and management

D.

Lack of business governance

E.

None of the above

F.

Difficulty in justification of improvements

Question 175

An information maturity assessment provides a valuable input to Data Governance planning because it provides:

Options:

A.

An assessment of the ability of the organization to utilize data and information in an advanced manner

B.

A benchmark against the organization's peers to drive dissatisfaction with current state among senior leadership

C.

A detailed roadmap for information management related change in the organization

D.

It identifies key weaknesses in the Information Strategy of the organization which impede good governance

E.

Stakeholders require a visual representation in graphical form of their current state versus target state

Question 176

A database that is growing at 100% per annum compound will be:

Options:

A.

4 times its original size at the end of year 2

B.

6 times its original size at the end of year 3

C.

2 times its original size at the end of year 5

D.

3 times its original size at the end of year 2

E.

Half its original size at the end of year 2

Question 177

In defining a Data Security Policy, what role should Data Governance play?

Options:

A.

Write the Data Security Policy

B.

Send all Data Security questions to the legal department

C.

Have no role in the Data Security Policy

D.

Review and approve the Data Security Policy

E.

Own and maintain the Data Security Policy

Question 178

Real-time data integration is usually triggered by batch processing, such as historic data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 179

Which of the following is NOT required to effectively track data quality incidents?

Options:

A.

An effective service level agreement with defined rewards and penalties

B.

An assignment process to appropriate individuals and teams

C.

A standard vocabulary for classifying data quality issues

D.

A well defined system of escalation based on the impact, duration, or urgency ofan issue

E.

An operational workflow that ensures effective resolution

Question 180

A complexity in documenting data lineage is:

Options:

A.

Establishing data quality metrics

B.

Conflicting application requirements from data owners

C.

Choosing which content management software to use

D.

Identifying source databases

E.

Different data element names and formats

Question 181

The difference between warehouses and operational systems do not include the following element:

Options:

A.

Time variant

B.

Database

C.

Subject-orientated

D.

Historical

Question 182

Please select correct term for the following sentence: An organization shall assign a senior executive to appropriate individuals, adopt policies and processes to guide staff and ensure program audibility.

Options:

A.

Principle of integrity

B.

Principle of availability

C.

Principle of retention

D.

Principle of accountability

Question 183

Change Data Capture is a method of reducing bandwidth by filtering to include only data that has been changed within a defined timeframe.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 184

Reference and Master Data Management follow these guiding principles:

Options:

A.

Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders

B.

Stewardship

C.

Monitoring the resistance

D.

Ownership

E.

Addressing all queries

F.

Controlled change

Question 185

Data access control can be organized at an individual level or group level, depending on the need.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 186

Achieving near-real-time data replication, using a source accumulation technique,

triggers on:

Options:

A.

Posting of messages on the enterprise bus

B.

Arrival of streaming data

C.

Daily batch loads

D.

Reaching a threshold or frequency schedule

E.

Request from a target system to pull data

Question 187

Data and text mining use a range of techniques, including:

Options:

A.

Profiling

B.

Application reduction

C.

Association

D.

Data reduction

E.

Clustering

F.

All of the above

Question 188

A Global ID is the MDM solution-assigned and maintained unique identifier attached to reconciled records.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 189

According to the DMBoK2, by creating Data Management Services, IT involves the Data Governance Council:

Options:

A.

To estimate the enterprise needs for these services and provide the justification for staffing and funding to provide these services

B.

To provide a funnel for data and information issues to take the administration load off IT

C.

To ensure that data and information is still managed by IT and business only plays an advisory role

D.

To enable the business to maintain oversight on data and information projects

E.

To provide data stewards as and when needs to perform services where IT resources are either not available or do not exist

Question 190

Data Governance includes developing alignment of the data management approach with organizational touchpoints outside of the direct authority of the Chief Data Officer. Select the example of such a touchpoint.

Options:

A.

Content Management

B.

Requirements

C.

Business Glossary

D.

Records Management

E.

Regulatory Compliance

Question 191

A change management program supporting formal data governance should focus communication on:

Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders

Options:

A.

Implementing data management training

B.

Monitoring the resistance

C.

Promoting the value of data assets

D.

Addressing all queries

E.

Implementing new metric and KPIs

Question 192

Please select the answer that does not represent a machine learning algorithm:

Options:

A.

Reinforcement learning

B.

Supervised learning

C.

Artificial learning

D.

Unsupervised learning

Question 193

Data Fabric is:

Options:

A.

A superior star schema strategy

B.

A form of data lake that automates data acquisition and initial data qualityprocessing

C.

A metadata repository

D.

A way of sewing together different data concepts into a single data warehouse

E.

Just another data warehouse with no distinguishing features

Question 194

Which of the following is NOT a goal of Data Quality?

Options:

A.

Identify and advocate for opportunities to improve the quality of data, throughprocess and system improvements

B.

Define standards, requirements, and specifications for data quality controls aspart of thedata lifecycle.

C.

Develop a governed approach to make data fit for purpose based on dataconsumers" requirements

D.

Define and implement processes to measure, monitor, and report on data qualitylevels

E.

Understand and comply with all relevant regulations and policies for privacy.protection, and confidentiality

Question 195

Please select the correct name for the LDM abbreviation

Options:

A.

Logical Data Model

B.

Logical Dimensional Model

C.

Lifecycle Data Model

D.

Lifecycle Dimensional Model

Question 196

Document and content management is defined as planning, implementation and control activities for storage management of data and information found in any form or medium.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 197

Referential Integrity (RI) is often used to update tables without human intervention. Would this be a good idea for reference tables?

Options:

A.

Yes, since Standards Bodies typically supply reference data, the enterprise can automatically update when a new code or value is received

B.

No, updates should always be made directly via data entry or through a specific batch interface based on operator-entered information partly because of regulatory reporting and archiving

C.

Yes, you do not have to worry about archived data with reference data so tables can be updated automatically

D.

No, but an enterprise can use program logic to do updates as there is little potential for problems to occur with reference data

E.

Yes, older transactions do not have to be removed because with the Cloud there is unlimited database storage

Question 198

SPARC published their three-schema approach to database management. The three key components were:

Options:

A.

Internal

B.

Logical

C.

Generic

D.

Conceptual

E.

External

Question 199

The roles associated with enterprise data architecture are data architect, data modellers and data stewards.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 200

DAMA International’s Certified Data Management Professional (CDMP) certification required that data management professionals subscribe to a formal code of ethics, including an obligation to handle data ethically for the sake of society beyond the organization that employs them.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 201

How can the Data Governance process in an organisation best support the requirements of various Regulatory reporting needs?

Options:

A.

By creating a map of where the enterprise data is located in IT systems.

B.

By providing a Business Glossary based look up facility for data definitions.

C.

By ensuring that data is properly categorized, owned, understood, defined, documented and controlled

D.

By highlighting the challenges of multiple data definitions within the enterprise

E.

By performing an as-is data audit

Question 202

The Data Warehouse encompasses all components in the data staging and data presentation areas, including:

Options:

A.

Data Access Tool

B.

Application Tool

C.

Operational source systems

D.

Data staging area

E.

Data presentation area

F.

All of the above

Question 203

Emergency contact phone number would be found in which master data

management program?

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Asset

C.

Service

D.

Employee

E.

Product

Question 204

When presenting a case for an organization wide Data Governance program to your Senior Executive Board, which of these potential benefits would be of LEAST importance?

Options:

A.

Better corporate compliance with legal and regulatory demands, especially in relation to data protection, security and privacy

B.

Lower operational costs resulting from better data quality and a reduced need for cost of failure and rework activities

C.

The current corporate information policy states that company data must be managed and effectively governed

D.

Enhanced customer perceptions of your company's brand and enhanced customer acquisition, retention and loyalty

E.

New sales and revenue opportunities that better managed data will enable

Question 205

There are several reasons to denormalize data. The first is to improve performance by:

Options:

A.

Creating smaller copies of fata to reduce costly run-time calculations and/or table scans of large tables.

B.

None of the above

C.

Pre-calculating and sorting costly data calculations to avoid runt-time system resource competition.

D.

Making tables more readable when no foreign key exists

E.

Combining data from multiple other tables in advance to avoid costly run-time joins

F.

All of the above

Question 206

Gathering and interpreting results from a DMM or Data Governance assessment are important because:

Options:

A.

Lack of results gathered can indicate a lack of assessment performance

B.

The assessments are done by different teams within the organization and may have different results

C.

Interpreting these results is difficult

D.

Data Management and Data Governance results are gathered and interpreted differently, depending on the organization being evaluated

E.

Performing these activities objectively can ensure the success of the assessment and affect the acceptance and implementation of the data management and/or Data Governance program

Question 207

Which of the following is a Data Quality principle?

Options:

A.

Prevention

B.

Governance

C.

Criticality

D.

Standards Driven

E.

All of these

Question 208

A primary business driver of data storage and operations is:

Options:

A.

Business data modelling

B.

Business rules

C.

Business continuity

D.

Hardware sales

E.

Business process optimization

Question 209

Time-based patterns are used when data values must be associated in chronological order and with specific time values.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 210

Organizations should evaluate several maturity assessment models for data management, and for Data Governance, before adopting one or before developing a custom maturity assessment model because:

Options:

A.

Choosing a maturity model for an organization is expensive

B.

Vendors may go out of business so organizations need to choose wisely

C.

Performing an assessment without evaluating multiple models does not provide the organization with the ability to use the easiest model

D.

Each maturity model is flawed and the organization must find the flaws and work around them

E.

Each DMMM is based on a specific approach and needs to align with an organization's needs

Question 211

When developing a Data Governance operating framework, what areas should be considered?

Options:

A.

Impacts of regulations, the value of data to the organization, data modelling skills, & third-party data policies

B.

Data inputs, context diagrams, methods and procedures

C.

Data management skills, budget considerations & organization strategy

D.

Cultural factors, the role of a data steward, & third-party data policies

E.

A model that documents the business, cultural factors, the impacts of regulations, and the value of data to the organization

Question 212

High quality data definition exhibit three characteristics:

Options:

A.

Clearness

B.

Clarity

C.

Accuracy

D.

Completeness

Question 213

Please select the correct General Accepted Information Principles:

Options:

A.

Asset Principle

B.

Audit Principle

C.

Due Diligence Principle

D.

Going Concern Principle

E.

Ethical Principle

F.

All of the above

Question 214

The purpose of enterprise application architecture is to describe the structure and functionality of applications in an enterprise.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 215

Types of metadata include:

Options:

A.

Strategic

B.

Business

C.

Column-orientated

D.

Operational

E.

Graph

F.

Technical

Question 216

Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, identifying, capturing, logging and updating actions.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 217

Domains can be identified in different ways including: data type; data format; list; range; and rule-based.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 218

Select the areas to consider when constructing an organization’s operating model:

Options:

A.

Cultural Factors

B.

Business model

C.

Impact of the regulation

D.

None of the above

E.

Value of the data to the organisation

F.

All of the above

Question 219

The information governance maturity model describes the characteristics of the information governance and recordkeeping environment at five levels of maturity for each of the eight GARP principles. Please select the correct level descriptions:

Options:

A.

Level 2 In Development

B.

Level 4 Proactive

C.

Level 2 Sub-standard

D.

Level 4 Proactive

E.

Level 3 Transformational

F.

Level 3 Essential

Exam Detail
Vendor: DAMA
Certification: CDMP
Exam Code: DMF-1220
Last Update: Jun 16, 2025
DMF-1220 Question Answers
Page: 1 / 55
Total 725 questions