Summer Certification Sale 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: save70

Free and Premium CSI CSC2 Dumps Questions Answers

Page: 1 / 17
Total 232 questions

Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Questions and Answers

Question 1

What type of investment typically involves massive amounts of capital provided by a small number of investors?

Options:

A.

Derivatives

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Bonds

D.

Commodities

Buy Now
Question 2

What is the most accurate feature of a Canada Education Savings Grant (CESG)?

Options:

A.

CESG payments are made directly to the RESP firm.

B.

CESG may be earned until the beneficiary is 21 years of age.

C.

The maximum CESG per beneficiary is $2,500 annually.

D.

The maximum lifetime CESG per beneficiary is $8,500.

Question 3

What is a characteristic of a fixed-period withdrawal plan?

Options:

A.

Withdrawals are based on a predetermined life expectancy of the plan holder.

B.

Withdrawals are a consistent amount from the fund after the fixed period.

C.

Withdrawals are a set percentage of the fund holdings each payment period.

D.

Withdrawals are set to collapse the plan by the end of the period.

Question 4

Melanie has RRSP contribution room of $17,500 for the current tax year. Her husband, Jack, has RRSP contribution room of $5,000. What is the maximum tax-deductible contribution Melanie can make to her RRSP and/or a spousal RRSP?

Options:

A.

$17,500.

B.

$20,000.

C.

$5,000.

D.

$22,500.

Question 5

When a company issues a number of common shares, some of which are held by institutional investors, what are the institutional investors ' shares known as?

Options:

A.

Market capitalization shares.

B.

Outstanding shares.

C.

issued shares

D.

Public float shares.

Question 6

A client who seeks advice from an investment advisor but does not require financial planning guidance.

Which platform is most appropriate for this client?

Options:

A.

Family office

B.

Self-directed brokerage.

C.

Exchanged-traded fund.

D.

Discount brokerage.

Question 7

How can an analyst use trend analysis to analyze a company’s financial statements?

Options:

A.

Computer the company’s current ratios with its ratios from prior years to determine a trend.

B.

Review the company’s ratio over the past year, as they provide the best estimate of near-term performance and future trends.

C.

Identity trends by selecting the lowest ratio for the base year, even if a loss is experienced, as it represents a good starting point for analyzing the growth in the ratios.

D.

Analyze the ratios against companies in a wide a range of industries to see how the company is trending in the current economic cycle.

Question 8

What risk exists for an investor unable to readily exit a position in an alternative investment near current prices?

Options:

A.

Default.

B.

Liquidity.

C.

Trading.

D.

Deal breakage.

Question 9

What is name of the procedure used to calculate the income deemed to have been earned by segregated fund contract holders?

Options:

A.

Distribution.

B.

Payout.

C.

Allocation.

D.

Redemption.

Question 10

What actions can a government take to lower a $40 billion national deficit?

Options:

A.

Increase taxation

B.

Increase government spending.

C.

Decrease taxation

D.

Increase interest rates.

Question 11

What investment becomes liquid when securitized?

Options:

A.

Airport.

B.

Real estate.

C.

Fine art.

D.

Gold.

Question 12

What does a fundamental analyst believe that is contrary to the beliefs of a technical analyst?

Options:

A.

History repeats itself.

B.

Fiscal policy, monetary policy and inflation may be analyzed.

C.

The movements in price movements must be studied.

D.

The profitability of the issuer is paramount.

Question 13

Anwar is placing a market order to purchase 100 shares of AJL when the bid/ask is $10.25. " $ 10.75. Before the trade is complete, the bid/ask moves to $10.207S1Q70. What is the share price that Anwar will pay on the purchase transaction?

Options:

A.

$10.70

B.

$10.75

C.

$10.29

D.

$10.20

Question 14

What information must be disclosed in ETF Facts documents that may be excluded from Fund Facts documents?

Options:

A.

The management fee

B.

The total value of all units within the fund

C.

The investment exposure.

D.

The market price and bid-ask spread.

Question 15

During which step of the financial planning process should an engagement be formalized with a professional service contract?

Options:

A.

Implement recommendations.

B.

Establish the client-advisor relationship.

C.

Recommend strategies to meet goals.

D.

Collect data and information.

Question 16

What is a characteristic of a company in a growth industry?

Options:

A.

Generates large cash flows that are paid out in dividends.

B.

Exhibits lower costs of production with increased competition.

C.

Sales and earnings closely match the overall rate of economic growth.

D.

Has low price-to-earnings ratio and high dividend yield.

Question 17

What industry stocks tend to have lower betas than the market?

Options:

A.

Transportation

B.

Capital goods

C.

Utilities

D.

Automobiles and components

Question 18

Which type of ETF is also referred to as smart beta ETF?

Options:

A.

Rules-based

B.

Standard

C.

Synthetic

D.

Index-based

Question 19

Based on market capitalization. which sector of the SSP. ' TSX Composite index has one of the highest weightings within the index?

Options:

A.

Energy

B.

Health care

C.

Utilities

D.

Information technology

Question 20

What type of risk were mortgage-backed securities designed to address?

Options:

A.

Liquidity

B.

Interest rate

C.

Rollover

D.

Prepayment

Question 21

What is the objective of a relative value strategy?

Options:

A.

To eliminate market risk by combining securities with perfect negative correlation

B.

To assume a net long position by combining both long and short positions on a basket of securities

C.

To exploit market price inefficiencies by simultaneously taking matched long and short positions

D.

To take long positions in convertible bond securities paired with long positions in equities

Question 22

What is the reason for an individual to use an estate freeze?

Options:

A.

Eliminate probate fees

B.

Reduces asset price volatility

C.

Transfer control of the assets.

D.

Limit the tax liability for future growth

Question 23

Omar invests $5,000 in a labour-sponsored venture capital corporation (LSVCC) in Ontario, his province of residence. What is the total LSVCC tax credit that Omar is eligible to receive from this investment?

Options:

A.

$1,500

B.

$750

C.

$1,625

D.

$875

Question 24

Which type of commodity ETF is most suitable for an investor seeking to gain exposure to the spot price of a commodity?

Options:

A.

Physical-based

B.

Swap-based

C.

Futures-based.

D.

Equity-based

Question 25

Stuart has a non-registered account and redeems his entire mutual fund units for $15,000. His initial investment was $10,000. Over the years, he has received $2,000 in dividends on his units, which he has reinvested in the fund. If Stuart has made no other purchases or sales within this mutual fund, and ignoring any possible sales charges, what is his gain for tax purposes?

Options:

A.

$7,000.

B.

$2,000.

C.

$5,000.

D.

$3,000.

Question 26

In a multi-mandate managed account, who sets the overall optimal asset mix?

Options:

A.

Investment advisor

B.

Sub-advisor

C.

Client

D.

Overlay manager

Question 27

What is one at the most important factors to determine how much of a product people buy or sell in a given marketplace?

Options:

A.

Consumer satisfaction

B.

Government spending

C.

Price level

D.

Maximized profits

Question 28

According to the Bank of Canada, approximately how many months does it take for the effect of changes in monetary policy to be felt through the whole economy?

Options:

A.

18

B.

6

C.

3

D.

36

Question 29

Where would the description d a company ' s fixed assets normally be found?

Options:

A.

In the auditor report

B.

In the annual report

C.

In the notes to the financial statements

D.

In the statement of financial position.

Question 30

Which type of industry typically has a high inventory turnover ratio?

Options:

A.

Wineries.

B.

Distillers.

C.

Steel manufacturers.

D.

Cosmetics.

Question 31

An advisor wants to explain the benefits of labour sponsored funds (LSVCC) to some of his clients. With which client should the advisor have this discussion?

Options:

A.

Client 1.

B.

Client 4.

C.

Client 2.

D.

Client 3.

Question 32

What must happen for a redemption to be processed from a mutual fund?

Options:

A.

Payment for redeemed securities must be within two business days after the NAVPS is determined.

B.

Mutual funds representatives must submit the order within two business days of when the order is received from the client.

C.

The offering price of the mutual fund must be calculated.

D.

The client redeeming the mutual fund must receive a Fund facts document.

Question 33

For a market capitalization-weighted ETF focused on the S & P/TSX Composite Index, what is likely the greatest contributor to underperformance relative to the reference index?

Options:

A.

Liquidity.

B.

Fees.

C.

Rebalancing.

D.

Cash drag.

Question 34

What item compares the expected return of the market portfolio to the riskless rate?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Risk premium

C.

Alpha

D.

Variance

Question 35

What do technical analysis and fundamental analysis have in common?

Options:

A.

They compare the intrinsic value against a security’s current price.

B.

They are nullified a according to the random walk theory.

C.

They are used to predict changes in security prices.

D.

They study the causes of security’ s price movements.

Question 36

Pierre has been plotting the price behaviour of QLT using a 100-day moving average. The 100-day moving average line has been above the daily market price for several weeks. However, the price of QLT broke through the moving average line with heavy trading volume, and the moving average line is moving higher. What action should Pierre take based on this information?

Options:

A.

Buy put option on QLT shares

B.

Sell QLT shares

C.

Buy QLT shares

D.

Sell call option on QLT shares

Question 37

What is most likely true of a portfolio that is managed from a value basis?

Options:

A.

Portfolio turnover is high, so investors can expect to incur frequent capital gains

B.

The portfolio will realize higher dividend yields than a growth equity portfolio

C.

Stock selections tend to have a higher beta than those chosen by a growth manager

D.

This portfolio style tends to perform best in up markets, with minimal gains in down markets

Question 38

A fixed-rate bond was originally priced at $100 and paid $5 per year in interest. Currently, the bond is trading at $102.75. What is the impact on the current yield of coupon of the bond as a result of the change in price?

Options:

A.

The coupon is higher than 5%.

B.

The current yield is higher man 5%.

C.

The current yield is lower than 5%

D.

The coupon is lower than 5%.

Question 39

How are monthly Canada Pension Plan (CPP) benefits treated when both spouses are eligible for CPP?

Options:

A.

Each spouse receives the higher pension amount.

B.

Each spouse can only receive their own benefits.

C.

Each spouse receives the lower pension amount.

D.

Each spouse can share a portion of the total pension amount.

Question 40

What is a characteristic of provincial savings bonds?

Options:

A.

Backed by provincial assets

B.

Available only at a certain time

C.

Can be issued Internationally.

D.

Mature every six months

Question 41

Which ratio, when showing a decreasing trend, suggests declining operating efficiency?

Options:

A.

Price-earnings

B.

Return on common equity

C.

Dividend payout

D.

Debt/equity

Question 42

Which form of private equity investing focuses on fixed-income securities of public companies that are in financial trouble?

Options:

A.

Distressed debt.

B.

Leveraged buyout.

C.

Growth capital.

D.

Late-stage venture capital.

Question 43

Which primary value is violated if an advisor places an unsuitable order requested by a client?

Options:

A.

Compliance.

B.

Integrity.

C.

Duty of care.

D.

Professionalism.

Question 44

Which ratio helps compare the shares of companies within the same industry?

Options:

A.

Price-to-earnings.

B.

Asset coverage.

C.

Debt-to-equity.

D.

Working capital.

Question 45

If a mutual fund is set up as a corporation, how much of income generated by the fund flows through directly to the shareholders?

Options:

A.

100% of dividends

B.

100% of interest

C.

None

D.

50% of capital gain

Question 46

Who generally executes portfolio strategy within a buy-side firm?

Options:

A.

Portfolio manager.

B.

Head of fixed income

C.

Investment advisor.

D.

Trader

Question 47

What do a hedge fund’s liquidity dates indicate?

Options:

A.

The period that the hedge fund manager is forced to unwind all its investment positions.

B.

The period that existing investors in the hedge fund can redeem their shares.

C.

The period that non-accredited investors can enter a hedge fund by purchasing newly issued shares.

D.

The period that a hedge fund is expected to cover its short positions.

Question 48

SK AI-Equity Mutual Fund reported a year-end NAVPS of $25.50, a beginning of the year NAVPS of $21.50, and a dividend yield of 4.34%. What was the performance of the SK fund assuming reinvestment of all dividends and that no additions or withdrawals were made?

Options:

A.

22.94%

B.

18.60%

C.

15.69%

D.

14.25%

Question 49

Which would most likely be a violation of the Know Your Client Duty of Care guideline?

Options:

A.

Not verifying if a proposed transaction is suitable for a client

B.

Borrowing a client ' s excess funds held in their account

C.

Failing to disclose a conflict of interest to the client

D.

Not changing account information when the client ' s needs change

Question 50

The principle of retraction in retractable preferred shares is identical to what other security?

Options:

A.

Callable preferred shares.

B.

Retractable common shares

C.

Redeemable preferred shares.

D.

Retractable bonds and debentures

Question 51

Which derivatives transaction has the greatest default risk?

Options:

A.

Individual investor buying shares on an exchange during the ex-rights period.

B.

Interest rate forward agreement between an investment dealer and a corporation.

C.

Exchange-traded equity option contract between an individual investor and a dealer.

D.

Individual investor entering future contract with an institutional investor.

Question 52

What is the measure of risk commonly applied to portfolio and to individual securities within that portfolio?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Standard Deviation.

C.

Correlation.

D.

Alpha

Question 53

The following financial information is available for fund SKE:

What is SKE fund’s net asset value per share?

Options:

A.

$9,90

B.

$11, 90

C.

$12,00

D.

$10, 00

Question 54

Why is liquidity important when analyzing the shares of a public company?

Options:

A.

Trading should be sufficient to absorb transactions without undue distortion in the market price.

B.

It affects the company’s ability to raise additional capital.

C.

Too much liquidity causes excessive buying or selling in the market.

D.

It affects the trading cost and volume of the stock for retail investors.

Question 55

Which fiscal policy measure was designed to encourage individuals to save?

Options:

A.

First Home Savings Account.

B.

Capital gain inclusion rate.

C.

Dividend tax credit.

D.

Tax Free Savings Account.

Question 56

What is the main benefit of investing in preferred shares?

Options:

A.

Priority to receive fixed dividends ahead of common shareholders.

B.

Priority to claim assets ahead of debt holders.

C.

Higher potential for capital appreciation than common shares.

D.

Guaranteed dividend payment.

Question 57

What is the meaning of ex-ante return?

Options:

A.

The real return on the security.

B.

The return of the security based on the risk-free rate.

C.

The historical return of the security.

D.

The expected return of the security.

Question 58

In what way do ETFs differ from mutual funds?

Options:

A.

Primarily trade liquid securities.

B.

Provider works with a designated broker to create and redeem units.

C.

Invest in emerging markets.

D.

Subject to National Instrument 81-102 regulations.

Question 59

Tracy invests $12,000 in a five-year PPN linked to the S & P/TSX 60, with a participation rate of 75% and a performance cap of 27%. On the issue date of the PPN, the index level was 825, and at the PPN ' s maturity, the level was 1,200. How much will Tracy receive upon the PPN ' s maturity?

Options:

A.

$14,813

B.

$17,455

C.

$16,091

D.

$15,240

Question 60

What is the best description of growth-style investment managers?

Options:

A.

Managers focus on identifying the current phase of the economic cycle, the direction the economy is headed in, and the various sectors affected

B.

Managers buy discounted stocks that should eventually rise in price by screening stocks for cheap fundamentals

C.

Managers are usually concerned with quarterly portfolio fluctuations

D.

Managers deliver long-term total return mostly through capital appreciation

Question 61

What type of return is calculated for a security held for 18 months if no adjustments to the return are made?

Options:

A.

Effective rate of return.

B.

Nominal rate of return.

C.

Annualized total return.

D.

Holding period return.

Question 62

Which macroeconomic factors would have a positive impact on investor expectations and the price of securities?

Options:

A.

Targeting certain sectors of the economy with monetary policy measures and tax breaks.

B.

Increased taxes on corporations with the goal of lower government debt.

C.

Low levels of government debt and consumer indebtedness.

D.

A decrease in government spending with corresponding tax outs to individuals.

Question 63

When a futures contract is entered into, who sets the minimum initial margin rate?

Options:

A.

investment dealer

B.

Buyer

C.

Seller

D.

Exchange

Question 64

What is the difference between sinking funds and purchase funds concerning the redemption of bonds poor to maturity?

Options:

A.

Sinking funds have mandated redemptions while purchase funds can redeem only upon certain market conditions.

B.

Sinking funds can redeem bonds only if they trade below a stipulated price while purchase runes do not have such a requirement.

C.

Sinking funds involve the issuer determining when bonds are redeemed while purchase funds Involve the investor determining when the bonds are redeemed.

D.

Sinking funds can redeem fie bones any time while purchase funds follow a prearranged schedule.

Question 65

What responsibility falls on the buy-side portfolio manager?

Options:

A.

To busy securities in the market on demand to maintain liquidity in a security.

B.

To maintain constant contact with the investment dealer counterparties.

C.

To inform the trade about the market conditions and risks.

D.

To provide pertinent market information to the department heads of various asset classes.

Question 66

How is the ex-port real rate of return calculated?

Options:

A.

The ex-ante nominal rate of return adjusted by portfolio beta.

B.

The ex-post nominal rate of return minus the risk-free rate.

C.

The ex-ante nominal rate of return minus the annual inflation rate.

D.

The ex-post nominal rate of return minus the annual inflation rate.

Question 67

What investment dealer function is part of the back-office operations?

Options:

A.

Information technology.

B.

Research.

C.

Compliance.

D.

Corporate treasury.

Question 68

Which investor right must be disclosed in a Fund Fact document?

Options:

A.

Investors have the right to rescind the purchase if these is misrepresentation in the document.

B.

Investors have a right to withdrawal from their purchase within 24 hours after confirmation of the purchase is received.

C.

Investors can request a paper copy of the simplified prospectus for a small charge.

D.

Investors have the right to act or claim damages without any limitation.

Question 69

When considering management accounts, what is most accurate regarding model-based account management?

Options:

A.

It is only intended for short-term use.

B.

It requires solicitation.

C.

It permits tax loss selling.

D.

It requires client permission before executing trades.

Page: 1 / 17
Total 232 questions