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Total 248 questions

Advanced Financial Reporting Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is a related party according to the definition of a related party in IAS24 Related Party Disclosures?

Options:

A.

Major customer

B.

Provider of finance

C.

Managing Director

D.

Major supplier

Question 2

MNO has calculated its return on capital employed ratio for 20X4 and 20X5 as 41% and 56% respectively.

Taking each statement in isolation, which would explain the movement in the ratio between the 2 years?

Options:

A.

In 20X5 the average interest rate on borrowing decreased compared to 20X4.

B.

In 20X4 an onerous contract was provided for and this provision did not change in 20X5.

C.

In 20X5 the increase in value of MNO's head office was reflected in the financial statements.

D.

In 20X4 an unused building was sold at a price in excess of its carrying value.

Question 3

GG's gearing is currently 50% compared to the industry average of 40% (both measured as debt/equity). GG's debt is all in the form of a single bank loan that is repayable in five years' time. The directors of GG are seeking to raise finance for a new project and they are considering an additional bank loan from the same bank.

Which of the following would prevent the bank from lending the finance for the project in the form of a new bank loan?

Options:

A.

A covenant on the existing bank loan that restricts the level of dividend that can be paid.

B.

A projected decrease in interest cover that would breach a covenant on the existing loan.

C.

The revaluation of GG's property that shows an increase in its value since the existing bank loan was taken out.

D.

A projected lack of profits to be able to claim tax relief on the additional interest arising from the new loan.

Question 4

GH issued a 6% debenture for $1,000,000 on 1 January 20X4.  A broker fee of $50,000 was payable in respect of this issue.  The effective interest rate associated with this debt instrument is 7.2%.

The carrying value of the debenture at 31 December 20X4 is:

Options:

A.

$958,400

B.

$1,065,600

C.

$1,012,000

D.

$961,400

Question 5

JK has calculated its inventory holding period:

Which THREE of the following would have contributed to the above movement in inventory holding period?

Options:

A.

JK's main supplier offered a significant one-off discount for purchases made in March 20X8.

B.

In January 20X8 a major competitor entered the market in which JK operates.

C.

A substantial contract is due to be dispatched early in April 20X8.

D.

JK is enforcing stringent inventory control techniques following management instructions.

E.

JK suffered industrial action by its production staff in the period December 20X7 to February 20X8.

F.

It has been difficult to obtain one of JK's main components due to import issues with its overseas supplier.

Question 6

AB and EF are located in the same country and prepare their financial statements to 31 October in accordance with International Accounting Standards. EF supplies AB with a component that is vital to AB's product range. AB is considering acquiring a controlling interest in EF by 31 December 20X4 in order to guarantee future supply. The Board of EF has indicated that such an approach would be postively considered. AB would use its control to make AB the sole customer of EF.

The Finance Director of AB has been granted access to EF's management accounts and has conducted some initial analysis from the financial press. The results togther with comparisons for AB for the year to 31 October 20X4 are presented below:

AB and EF are forecasting revenues of S1,500,000 and $700,000 respectively for the year ended 31 October 20X5.

AB's Finance Director met with one of the directors of EF to discuss the potential impact of the acquisition.

Which of the director's statements below is correct?

Options:

A.

The P/E ratio of EF will increase to 12 after acquisition in line with that of AB.

B.

The gross profit margin of EF will increase if AB's bargaining power is used to negotiate lower material costs for the whole group.

C.

Redundancy costs arising from reorganisation following acquisition will be provided for by charging EF's profit for the year ended 31 October 20X4.

D.

Dividend yield for both entities will be identical after the acquisition.

Question 7

RS has issued an instrument with a nominal value of $1 million, at a discount of 2.5%, and a coupon rate of 6%. The terms of the issue are that the instrument must either be redeemed at par, at the option of the holder, in three years' time, or alternatively converted into equity shares in RS.

The characteristics of this instrument taken as a whole indicates that it would be classifed as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Compound instrument

B.

Debt instrument

C.

Equity instrument

D.

Discounted instrument

Question 8

AB acquired 10% of the equity share capital of XY on 1 January 20X7 for $180,000 when the fair value of XY's net assets was $190,000.  On 1 January 20X9 AB purchased a further 50% of the equity share capital for $550,000 when the fair value of XY's net assets was $820,000.  

The original 10% investment had a fair value of $200,000 at the date control of XY was gained.  The non controlling interest in XY was measured at its fair value of $300,000 at 1 January 20X9.

Which of the following represents the correct value of goodwill arising on the acquisition of XY that would have been included by AB when it prepared its consolidated financial statements at 31 December 20X9?

Options:

A.

$230,000

B.

$30,000

C.

$210,000

D.

$40,000

Question 9

XY owned 60% of the equity share capital of AB at 1 January 20X6.  XY acquired a further 20% of AB's equity share capital on 31 December 20X6 for $500,000.  The non controlling interest in AB was measured at $720,000 immediately prior to the 20% acquisition.

Calculate the amount that XY debited to non controlling interest when it accounted for the 20% acquisition in its consolidated financial statements at 31 December 20X6.

Give your answer to the nearest $000.

$ ?  000

Options:

Question 10

Information from the financial statements of an entity for the year to 31 December 20X5:

  

 The gearing ratio calculated as debt/equity and interest cover are:

Options:

A.

gearing of 15% and interest cover of 6.

B.

gearing of 16% and interest cover of 6.

C.

gearing of 15% and interest cover of 4.

D.

gearing of 16% and interest cover of 4.

Question 11

You are a Financial Controller at BCD and are in the process of preparing the year-end financial statements. A member of your finance team has come to see you about her provisions balance at year-end.

She says that the Managing Director has asked her to increase the provisions balance by $1 million overall. She thinks this is because BCD has had a very good year in terms of profit, and the Managing Director wants to put some profit aside to protect against any future reductions in profit. $1 million is material to BCD.

You believe that the provisions balance was fairly stated without the additional $1 million.

Which TWO of the following would be appropriate actions in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Discuss the matter with the Finance Director as he is your immediate line manager.

B.

Speak to the Managing Director to explain that the level of provisions is governed by financial reporting standards.

C.

Tell the member of your finance team to ignore the Managing Director and to leave the provisions balance as it was.

D.

Contact the external auditors of BCD and tell them that the Managing Director wants to change the provisions balance.

E.

Speak to the shareholders at the upcoming annual general meeting about this issue.

Question 12

CD reported a balance of $3,000,000 for property, plant and equipment in its individual financial statements at 31 December 20X8.

Calculate the value of the property, plant and equipment that will be included in CD's consolidated statement of financial position. 

Give your answer to the nearest $000.

 $?  000

Options:

Question 13

The tax benefit on a company's asset is £180,000 and the useful life on that asset is five years. The company creates a deferred tax provision to spread this benefit over the asset's useful life.

What entry is needed to reduce this deferred tax provision in the company's year two accounts?

Options:

A.

DR Deferred tax liability (SOFP) £36,000

B.

CR Deferred tax liability (SOFP) £36,000

C.

DR Corporation tax (income statement) £36,000

D.

CR Corporation tax (income statement) £36,000

E.

DR Deferred tax liability (SOFP) £144,000

F.

CR Deferred tax liability (SOFP) £144,000

G.

DR Corporation tax (income statement) £144,000

Question 14

KL acquired 75% of the equity share capital of MN on 1 January 20X8. The group's policy is to value non-controlling interest at fair value at the date of acquisition. MN acquired 60% of the equity share capital of PQ on 1 January 20X9 for $360 million.

At 1 January 20X9 the fair value of the non-controlling interest in PQ was $220 million and the fair value of the net assets of PQ at 1 January 20X9 were $320 million.

Calculate the goodwill arising on the acquisition of PQ at 1 January 20X9.

Give your answer to the nearest million.

$  ?   million

Options:

Question 15

LM is preparing its consolidated financial statements for the year ended 30 April 20X5. During the year LM acquired 30% of the equity shares of AB giving it significant influence over AB.

LM conducted ratio analysis comparing the financial performance of the group for 30 April 20X4 and 20X5.

Which of the following ratios would not be comparable as a result of the acquisition of AB? 

Options:

A.

Operating profit margin.

B.

Return on capital employed.

C.

Earnings per share.

D.

Interest cover.

Question 16

Entity A entered into a 3 year operating lease on 1 April 20X3.  The rentals are £5,000 a year payable in advance with an additional payment of $1,800 payable on 1 April 20X3. 

The rental expense to be included in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X3 will be:

   

Options:

A.

$4,200

B.

$5,000

C.

$6,800

D.

$5,600

Question 17

When accounting for a finance lease under IAS 17 Leases, which TWO of the following are recognised in the statement of profit or loss?

Options:

A.

Finance cost element of the lease payments

B.

Depreciation of the leased asset

C.

Lease payments paid

D.

Lease payments payable

E.

Capital repayment element of the lease payments

Question 18

The consolidated statement of profit or loss for VW for the year ended 30 September 20X7 includes the following:

  

What is VW's interest cover for the year ended 30 September 20X7?

Options:

A.

4.5

B.

3.3

C.

4.1

D.

5.1

Question 19

Which of the following principles are the basic principles followed by the consolidated income statement?

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

Include all of the parent's income and expenses plus all of the subsidiaries' income and expenses

B.

Ignore investment income from subsidiary to parent (e.g. dividend payments or loan interest)

C.

After profit for the period, show the profit split between amounts attributable to the parent's shareholders and other shareholders

D.

Include all of the parent's income and expenses minus all of the subsidiaries' income and expenses

E.

Include investment income from subsidiary to parent (e.g. dividend payments or loan interest)

Question 20

Which TWO of the following are true for an entity raising equity finance using a rights issue rather than a placing of equity shares to new investors?

Options:

A.

The administration is more complex and therefore likely to be more costly.

B.

The shares will sell at a higher price and therefore generate more funds.

C.

The voting rights of existing shareholders will be unaffected if the shareholders take up their rights.

D.

The cost of underwriting will be lower because the risk of the issue is lower.

E.

The issue will widen the base of shareholders if all shareholders take up their rights.

Question 21

GH's financial statements show the following:

  

What is the value of the dividend received from the associate to be included in GH's consolidated statement of cash flows for the year?

Give your answer to the nearest $000.

 $ ? 000

Options:

Question 22

The dividend yield of ST has fallen in the year to 31 May 20X5, compared to the previous year.

The share price on 31 May 20X4 was $4.50 and on 31 May 20X5 was $4.00.  There were no issues of share capital during the year.

Which of the following should explain the reduction in the dividend yield for the year to 31 May 20X5 compared to the previous year?

Options:

A.

The dividend paid in the year was reduced in order to pay for new assets.

B.

Surplus cash was used to pay a special dividend in addition to the normal dividend in the year.

C.

The profit for the year fell significantly and the dividend per share stayed the same.

D.

To compensate investors for the reduction in share price a higher dividend per share was paid.

Question 23

RST sells computer equipment and prepares its financial statements to 31 December.

On 30 September 20X5 RST sold computer software along with a two year maintenance package to a customer. The customer is given the right to return the goods within six months and claim a full refund if they are not satisfied with the computer software. The risk of return is considered to be insignificant for RST.

How should the revenue from this transaction and the right of return be recognised in the financial statements for the year ended 31 December 20X5?

Options:

A.

Recognise 100% of the revenue from both the sale of goods and the maintenance contract and create a provision for the anticipated level of returns.

B.

Do not recognise any revenue from the sale of goods or the maintenance contract and do not create a provision for the anticipated level of returns.

C.

Recognise 12.5% of the revenue from both the sale of goods and the maintenance contract and do not create a provision for the anticipated level of returns.

D.

Recognise 100% of the revenue from the sale of goods,12.5% of the revenue from the maintenance contract and create a provision for the anticipated level of returns.

Question 24

Which of the following defines the calculation of interest cover?

Options:

A.

Profit before interest and tax divided by finance costs

B.

Finance costs divided by profit before interest and tax

C.

Profit after tax divided by finance costs

D.

Finance costs divided by profit after tax

Question 25

ST has in issue unquoted 7% debentures which were issued at par and are redeemable in 1 year's time. These debentures cannot be traded. The yield to maturity on these debentures has been calculated at 5%.

Which of the following would explain why the yield to maturity is lower than the coupon?

Options:

A.

ST will benefit from the tax relief on the interest payment.

B.

The debentures will be redeemed at a discount to their par value.

C.

The debentures will be redeemed at their par value.

D.

The market value of the debentures must be higher than their par value.

Question 26

When producing the consolidated statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income, which TWO of the following will be disclosed as attributable to the equity holders of the parent company and the non-controlling interests?

Options:

A.

Profit before tax

B.

Profit after tax

C.

Other comprehensive income

D.

Total comprehensive income

E.

Operating profit

Question 27

GH's financial statements show the following:

  

What is the value of the dividend received from the associate to be included in GH's consolidated statement of cash flows for the year?

Give your answer to the nearest $000.

 $ ? 000

Options:

Question 28

ST acquired two financial investments in the year to 31 December 20X8.  One of these investments was initially classified as held for trading, the other as available for sale.  ST remeasured both investments at fair value at 31 December 20X8 in accordance with IAS 39 Financial Instruments: Recognition and Measurement.  The resulting gains were calculated as follows:

• Gain on held for trading investment $50,000 

• Gain on available for sale investment $40,000

What was the value of the gain that ST presented in its other comprehensive income when it prepared its financial statements for the year to 31 December 20X8?

Give your answer to the nearest $000.

$ ?  000

Options:

Question 29

AB acquired 10% of the equity share capital of XY for $180 million in 20X4. On 1 January 20X8 AB acquired a further 45% of the equity share capital of XY for $900 million and at that date the original investment had a fair value of $200 million.

Place the correct values in the boxes below in order to complete the consideration transferred element of the goodwill calculation on the acquisition of XY.

Options:

Question 30

The yield to maturity of a redeemable bond is calculated as the internal rate of return of the relevant cash flows associated with the bond. 

Which TWO of the following are considered relevant cash flows in this calculation?

Options:

A.

The annual interest payments net of tax relief.

B.

The redemption value of the bond at the date of redemption.

C.

The market value of the bond now.

D.

The nominal value of the bond now.

E.

The value of the conversion premium on conversion to equity shares.

Question 31

AB acquired an investment in a debt instrument on 1 January 20X5 at its nominal value of $25,000, which it intends to hold until maturity. The instrument carried a fixed coupon interest rate of 5%, payable in arrears. Transactions costs of $5,000 were paid in respect of this investment.  The effective interest rate applicable to this instrument was estimated at 9%.  

Calculate the value of this investment that AB will include in its statement of financial position at 31 December 20X5.

Give your answer to the nearest whole number. 

$ ?  

Options:

Question 32

AB owned 80% of the equity share capital of FG at 1 January 20X6.  AB disposed of 10% of FG's equity share capital on 31 December 20X6 for $400,000.  The non controlling interest was measured at $700,000 immediately prior to the disposal.  

Which of the following represents the adjustment that AB made to non controlling interest in respect of the disposal when it prepared its consolidated financial statements at 31 December 20X6?

Options:

A.

Credit of $350,000

B.

Debit of $400,000

C.

Debit of $350,000

D.

Credit of $50,000

Question 33

What is meant by the term "a placing of ordinary shares"?

Options:

A.

Selling new ordinary shares to a financial institution on a pre-arranged basis.

B.

Selling new ordinary shares directly to the public.

C.

Selling existing ordinary shares to new investors through a stock exchange.

D.

Selling new ordinary shares to existing shareholders.

Question 34

AB acquired an investment in a debt instrument on 1 January 20X5 at its nominal value of $25,000, which it intends to hold until maturity. The instrument carried a fixed coupon interest rate of 5%, payable in arrears. Transactions costs of $5,000 were paid in respect of this investment.  The effective interest rate applicable to this instrument was estimated at 9%.  

Calculate the value of this investment that AB will include in its statement of financial position at 31 December 20X5.

Give your answer to the nearest whole number. 

$ ?  

Options:

Question 35

How would KL account for its investment in MN in its consolidated financial statements for the year to 31 December 20X9?

Options:

A.

Joint venture

B.

Joint arrangement

C.

Financial asset

D.

Subsidiary

Question 36

In recent years EBITDA has been adopted by large entities as a key measure of performance. The following figures have been extracted from the financial statements of UV for the year ended 30 November 20X9:

  

What is EBITDA for UV for the year ended 30 November 20X9?

Give your answer to the nearest $'000.

Options:

Question 37

LM are just about to pay a dividend of 20 cents a share. Historically, dividends have grown at a rate of 5% each year.

The current share price is $3.05.

The cost of equity using the dividend valuation model is:

Options:

A.

12.4%

B.

11.9%

C.

7.4%

D.

6.9%

Question 38

Which of the following are limitations of financial statement figures for ratio analysis? Select the ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

Only provides historic data

B.

Only provides financial information

C.

Limited information to identify trends over time

D.

Provide only summarised information

E.

Contains complicated information that needs to be summarised

F.

Only provides forecast data

Question 39

Which of the following is NOT an example of an unconsolidated structured entity as defined in IFRS12 Disclosure of Interests in Other Entities?

Options:

A.

A post-employment benefit plan

B.

A securitisation vehicle

C.

An asset-backed financing scheme

D.

An investment fund

Question 40

Which of the following would limit the effectiveness of analysis performed on the operating profit margins of two separate entities with the same total revenue over a12 month period?

Options:

A.

Different accounting estimates in respect of depreciation of property, plant and equipment.

B.

Different approaches to allocating expenses to cost of sales, administration expenses and distribution costs.

C.

Different interest rates on loan finance available to the entities.

D.

Different pattern of monthly revenues caused by seasonality.

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Total 248 questions