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Free and Premium ACDIS CCDS-O Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 140 questions

Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Questions and Answers

Question 1

PCP notes describe the presence of atrial fibrillation for 10 days. Atenolol, sotalol and rivaroxaban are ordered. Possible ablation is discussed. Identify the type of atrial fibrillation described in this clinical scenario.

Options:

A.

Paroxysmal

B.

Persistent

C.

Chronic

D.

Permanent

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Question 2

Given the following CMS-HCC categories, which is the correct order (highest to lowest) in the hierarchy?

Options:

A.

HCC 35, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 38

B.

HCC 38, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 35

C.

HCC 35, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 38

D.

HCC 38, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 35

Question 3

Which of the following acronyms is often used in considering reportability of conditions?

Options:

A.

OPPS

B.

MEAT

C.

MACRA

D.

RADV

Question 4

A CDI specialist is writing a query and including information from another facility’s EHR via shared notes. Understanding that the ability to view shared notes may be revoked by the patient at any time, and to ensure HIPAA guidelines are followed, which of the following elements are BEST to include when sending the query?

Options:

A.

Location of shared note, date of shared note, provider name, and specific documentation

B.

Location of shared note, provider name, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

C.

Provider name, date of shared note, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

D.

Provider name, date of shared note, follow-up procedure, and date of review

Question 5

If a patient is being seen for follow-up and the documentation indicates that the patient was admitted to the hospital 28 days ago with an acute cerebral infarction with remaining right-sided weakness, which of the following diagnoses would be MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

Cerebral infarction, unspecified, hemiparesis affecting right dominant side

B.

Hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting unspecified side

C.

Hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting right dominant side

D.

Other sequelae of cerebral infarction

Question 6

Which of the following is a leading query?

Options:

A.

“The documentation includes modifications for current Celexa dosages. Can you please identify the condition treated with this medication?”

B.

“The patient has a past medical history of RUL lung cancer. Should lung cancer be classified as: A) currently being treated, B) History of lung CA?”

C.

“The patient has a BMI of 42 per the nursing documentation. Does this patient have a medically relevant diagnosis to accompany the BMI? Please select one of the following options. A) morbid obesity, B) obesity, C) overweight, D) Other____, E) Clinically undetermined”

D.

“Your documentation states the patient drinks a 6-pack of beer nightly. Does this patient have alcohol dependence? Yes/No (circle one)”

E.
F.
G.
Question 7

When reviewing physician metrics, a CDI specialist notes upward trends in the use of unspecified diagnoses. Which of the following diagnoses provides the BEST opportunity to positively influence the providers’ RAF score in the CMS-HCC model?

Options:

A.

Cystic fibrosis, unspecified

B.

Kaposi’s sarcoma, unspecified

C.

Arthropathic psoriasis, unspecified

D.

Angina pectoris, unspecified

Question 8

Which of the following is true of the RAF metric?

Options:

A.

It predicts how much the individual provider will be reimbursed for the concurrent practice year.

B.

It is based only on demographic factors such as Medicaid status, gender, or aged/disabled.

C.

It is a relative measure of the probable costs to meet the healthcare needs of the individual beneficiary.

D.

It is used to calculate each primary care office visit reimbursement based on documentation of chronic conditions.

Question 9

Symbicort® is used to treat which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Degenerative osteoarthritis

B.

Persistent asthma

C.

Diabetic neuropathy

D.

Congestive heart failure

Question 10

What diagnoses are included in code category N18, chronic kidney disease?

Options:

A.

Dialysis, chronic uremia, and polycystic kidney disease

B.

GFR, ATN, and unspecified kidney failure

C.

AKI, ESRD, and dialysis

D.

CKD stage 3, CKD severe, and ESRD

Question 11

Which of the following BEST defines a risk score under the CMS-HCC model?

Options:

A.

Beneficiary's demographics and social determinants

B.

Beneficiary and family demographics

C.

Beneficiary's individual demographic and health status

D.

Beneficiary's health status and risk of mortality

Question 12

A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Status of ostomy

B.

Status of the sleep apnea

C.

Status of the COPD

D.

Status of colon cancer

Question 13

A patient presents to the office complaining of lower abdominal pain and burning urination. Urinalysis indicates WBC >10, positive nitrites, and leuk esterase. Documentation identifies pain, urinary frequency, and fever likely UTI. Cultures are pending for E-Coli. The patient is started on antipyretics and Levaquin. Which of the following conditions can be reported?

Options:

A.

Abdominal pain, fever, and pyuria

B.

UTI

C.

E-Coli, UTI, and fever

D.

Abdominal pain, fever, and urinary frequency

Question 14

Clinic visit documentation describes patient complaints of increased shortness of breath, following recent inpatient admission for pneumonia. Diagnoses include COPD - GOLD stage 3. Increase home O2 to 3 liters. Home health follow-up to begin home nebulizers, and Solu-Medrol ordered. Which of the following is the MOST significant query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Specificity of the organism causing the pneumonia

B.

Acuity of the COPD

C.

Presence of chronic respiratory failure

D.

Oxygen dependence

Question 15

Which statement is MOST accurate about the problem list?

Options:

A.

Problem list diagnoses should be removed after one year.

B.

A well-maintained problem list is vital in the continuity of patient care.

C.

More diagnoses on the problem list assist the provider in caring for the patient.

D.

A CDI specialist should update the problem list to provide continuity of care.

Question 16

A female patient presents for her yearly wellness check-up. Her vital signs are within normal limits with the exception of dyspnea. Her weight is 165 lbs, up 10 lbs from her previous clinic visit 2 weeks prior. Problem list includes diagnoses of obesity, COPD, heart failure, and diabetes without complications. The patient’s A1c noted 9.2 up from 7.2 from previous year wellness exam. Based on the clinical indicators, which of the following medications should be evaluated and addressed during this clinic visit?

Options:

A.

Megace and ferrous sulfate

B.

Metformin and methotrexate

C.

NovoLog and Lasix

D.

Wellbutrin and Allegra

Question 17

PCP notes describe declining renal function with creatinine trending upward over the last 12 months. Nephrology consult ordered. Which of the following diagnostic tests could support a query to identify status of the patient’s baseline renal function?

Options:

A.

Creatinine

B.

BUN (Blood urea nitrogen)

C.

eGFR (glomerular filtration rate)

D.

ACR (albumin to creatinine ratio)

Question 18

In which of the following ways does payment determination (risk score calculation) differ between HHS-HCCs and CMS-HCCs?

Options:

A.

HHS-HCCs use the current year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the current year’s spending.

B.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the next year’s spending.

C.

HHS-HCCs use current ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the current year’s spending.

D.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the next year’s spending.

Question 19

Which performance metric is MOST appropriate for an outpatient program to share with providers?

Options:

A.

APC payment rates

B.

RAF scores

C.

HCC per member per month payments

D.

Major complication comorbidity (MCC) rates

Question 20

Which of the following is the major difference between MIPS and APMs?

Options:

A.

MIPS participation is required by eligible providers (non-participation results in a financial penalty), and APM participation is voluntary.

B.

APM participation is required by eligible providers (non-participation results in a financial penalty), and MIPS participation is voluntary.

C.

MIPS and APM participation is voluntary by eligible providers.

D.

MIPS and APM participation is required of eligible providers.

Question 21

PCP notes describe declining renal function with creatinine trending upward over the last 12 months. Nephrology consult ordered. Which of the following diagnostic tests could support a query to identify status of the patient’s baseline renal function?

Options:

A.

Creatinine

B.

BUN (Blood urea nitrogen)

C.

eGFR (glomerular filtration rate)

D.

ACR (albumin to creatinine ratio)

Question 22

Which of the following illustrates an example of a compliant, prospective query?

Options:

A.

“Dr.: Your patient has a past medical history of CHF noted in her problem list. A review of her medication list shows Lasix 20 mg QD. Please review this diagnosis for pertinence and relevance during her upcoming visit and specify the type and acuity of the CHF if the diagnosis is still being addressed.”

B.

“Dr.: Your patient was ordered an echocardiogram at her last visit. Can you please document that the CHF was addressed as the basis for the study?”

C.

“Dr.: Your patient has chronic diastolic heart failure documented in her problem list. Can you please add this diagnosis to your progress note from her office visit?”

D.

“Dr.: Your patient was here for her Annual Wellness Visit. A review of her medication list shows a new order for Lasix 20mg QD. A review of your progress note from that visit notes 2+ pitting edema bilaterally and that the patient complains of shortness of breath at night requiring her to sleep on 2 pillows. Please add CHF to the problem list if this is the diagnosis you are treating with the Lasix.”

E.
F.
G.
Question 23

A patient reports recent weight loss of 10 pounds in the last two months, decreased appetite, and no energy or desire to eat. She describes an inability to concentrate and complete simple tasks, likely due to ongoing insomnia. Documentation includes a PHQ-9 score of 11, and the patient is currently on paroxetine for depression. Which of the following is a query opportunity to obtain more specificity?

Options:

A.

Major depressive occurrence

B.

Major depressive event

C.

Major depressive disorder

D.

Major depressive reaction

Question 24

Provider documentation states: “A patient is seen today with DM type 2, peripheral neuropathy with diabetic ulcer of the left great toe, hypertension, and BMI 43. O2 dependent, chronic respiratory failure due to COPD, stopped smoking 2 years ago - 84 packs per year smoking habit.” Which of the following query opportunities will impact risk adjustment?

Options:

A.

Nicotine dependence

B.

Diabetes with complications

C.

Morbid obesity

D.

Depth of diabetic ulcer

Question 25

For outpatient/provider services, the primary sources of coding authority include the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, AHA’s Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS, as well as which of the following?

Options:

A.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS and AMA’s CPT Assistant

B.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS and ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting

C.

ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting and DRG Expert

D.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS, ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, and DRG Expert

Question 26

ICD-10-CM code assignment can be supported by documentation from someone other than the patient’s provider in which of the following circumstances?

Options:

A.

Anatomic site of previous amputation

B.

Type of obesity

C.

Stage of pressure ulcer

D.

Site of ostomy

Question 27

The majority of E/M services are based on which of the following criteria?

Options:

A.

New/established, site of service, and level of service

B.

New/established, site of service, and time

C.

New/established, physician specialty, and level of service

D.

New/established, level of service, and age of patient

Question 28

Which of the following health record elements impacts HHS-HCC risk scores?

Options:

A.

CPT codes

B.

Discharge status

C.

Gender

D.

Ethnicity

Question 29

Which of the following statements is true regarding RADV reviews?

Options:

A.

Diagnoses assigned by a diagnostic radiologist are considered during RADV reviews.

B.

Conditions reported must be documented in the final visit diagnoses or facesheet of the medical record.

C.

Acceptable physician authentication includes hand-written or electronic signatures.

D.

Diagnoses assigned by technicians are considered during RADV reviews.

Question 30

A patient is seen at the clinic for a fever, and the provider documents possible Zika virus. A CDI specialist reviews the record and notes that a positive serology test indicates the Zika virus. Which of the following should the CDI specialist do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Code the Zika virus as the reason for the visit.

B.

Query the provider to code the result of the serology test.

C.

Query the provider to confirm the diagnosis of Zika.

D.

Code the fever as the first-listed diagnosis and Zika virus as secondary.

Question 31

In the outpatient setting, which of the following guidelines depicts the reason for the encounter/visit shown in the medical record to be chiefly responsible for the services provided?

Options:

A.

Differential diagnoses

B.

Co-existing diagnoses

C.

Principal diagnosis

D.

First-listed diagnosis

Question 32

A 75-year-old with a PMH of chronic foot ulcer, CKD, and depression is seen by his PCP for continued fatigue and decreased urination. Labs drawn on previous day are reviewed. Patient describes extreme fatigue and no motivation. Assessment and plan include: “CKD 3 with renal failure - refer to nephrologist. Chronic nonpressure foot ulcer - home care for wound assessment. Depression - Rx for SSRI.” Which of the following are the validated diagnoses that risk adjust and qualify as CMS-HCCs?

Options:

A.

Renal failure; CKD 3

B.

CKD 3; chronic non-pressure ulcer

C.

Depression; renal failure

D.

Chronic non-pressure ulcer; depression

Question 33

A patient with a PMH of DM, GERD, and HTN is seen in the clinic with complaints of stuffy nose, fever, and feeling tired for the past four days. The patient’s medication list includes SSI, Prilosec, and Diovan. The provider documented: “Congestion, fever, malaise, DM, GERD, HTN. Continue OTC medications for congestion and fever. Rest. Return to the clinic in one week if symptoms persist.” Which of the following ICD-10-CM guidelines BEST applies to how this scenario should be coded?

Options:

A.

Selection of first-listed condition

B.

Codes that describe symptoms and signs

C.

Uncertain diagnoses

D.

Encounters for general medical examination with abnormal finding

Question 34

An elderly patient with a PMH of CHF, DM type 1, arthritis, and HTN is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment after a recent hospitalization. After an evaluation of the patient's current health status, the provider documents the following: "HFrEF: lungs clear, no edema, continue meds. DM: no changes to insulin pump. Arthritis: asymptomatic joint destruction. HTN: BP stable. Continue meds." Which of the following is the clarification opportunity in the above scenario?

Options:

A.

The type and severity of heart failure

B.

A link between the DM and arthritis

C.

A link between HTN and heart failure

D.

The insulin status

Question 35

Which of the following therapies is MOST likely to be recommended?

Options:

A.

Ensure for morbid obesity

B.

Metoprolol for atrial fibrillation

C.

Xarelto for hematemesis

D.

Tamoxifen for chronic congestive heart failure

Question 36

Which of the following descriptors is classified as an uncertain diagnosis?

Options:

A.

Concern for streptococcal pneumonia

B.

Treating a streptococcal pneumonia with antibiotic

C.

Evidence of streptococcal pneumonia

D.

Broad spectrum antibiotic prescribed for streptococcal pneumonia

Question 37

Provider documentation states: “Type 2 Diabetes with bilateral peripheral arteriosclerotic disease of LE. Bilateral pedal pulses present. Review Hgb A1C and CBC. No change in treatment. Hypertension evaluated and well controlled on Lopressor.” Which of the following conditions should be coded?

Options:

A.

Diabetes without complications, atherosclerosis bilateral legs

B.

Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, hypertension

C.

Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, atherosclerosis bilateral legs, hypertension

D.

Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, atherosclerosis bilateral legs, diabetes with circulatory complication, hypertension

Question 38

Which of the following lab values, when trended for greater than 3 months, indicates an objective measure of chronic kidney damage?

Options:

A.

BNP >1000 pg/mL

B.

GFR <60 ml/min

C.

BUN <12 mg/dL

D.

Glucose >100 mg/dL

Question 39

Provider documentation states: “A 72-year-old patient with an active history of colon cancer, status post bowel resection, receiving chemotherapy. Newly diagnosed lung metastasis. Presents with UTI and elevated creatinine. Labs demonstrate a hemoglobin of 7.9, WBC of 2,500, and platelet count of 20,000.” Which of the following is the query opportunity that supports a disease interaction that impacts the risk adjustment?

Options:

A.

Colon cancer and lung metastasis

B.

Colon cancer and chemotherapy

C.

Acute tubular necrosis and UTI

D.

Chemotherapy induced pancytopenia

Question 40

A CDI specialist is following up on a query while the provider is seeing patients in the clinic. The BEST action that will support a quick and compliant response to the query is to

Options:

A.

wait to speak with the provider during the next scheduled meeting.

B.

catch the provider in the hallway between patients.

C.

discuss in a private room with the door closed.

D.

leave a sticky note on the chart of the next patient.

Question 41

Which of the following section(s) of the Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting are applicable to outpatient settings?

Options:

A.

Section I, Conventions, General Coding Guidelines, and Chapter Specific Guidelines

B.

Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

C.

Section III, Reporting Additional Diagnoses; and Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

D.

Section I, Conventions, General Coding Guidelines and Chapter Specific Guidelines; and Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

Question 42

Clinic documentation states: “Follow-up for post-induction chemotherapy for metastatic uterine cancer.” To BEST identify the conditions being monitored and treated, a CDI specialist should

Options:

A.

clarify the morphology of the tumor.

B.

evaluate diagnostic lab results.

C.

review the record for MRI results.

D.

query for secondary sites.

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Total 140 questions