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Free and Premium Zscaler ZTCA Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 75 questions

Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate Questions and Answers

Question 1

Is risk the same across users?

Options:

A.

Yes.

B.

No.

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Question 2

What facilitates constant and uniform application of policy enforcement?

Options:

A.

Open and clear communication channels across Network and Security teams.

B.

The policy remains the same, conditionally, and is applied equally regardless of the location of the enforcement point.

C.

Leveraging policy enforcement capabilities available through traditional security appliances.

D.

Application access happens on-premises, typically either from within the data center or the corporate campus, where large security stacks are deployed.

Question 3

What are two categories of destination applications in Zero Trust?

Options:

A.

(a) Known: the application has been categorized, classified, and updated dynamically; (b) Unknown: the application does not meet an existing category and must be profiled, learned, and controlled conditionally.

B.

(a) Google, (b) non-Google.

C.

(a) SaaS, (b) PaaS.

D.

(a) all things on the internet, (b) all things internal.

Question 4

Zero Trust is about controlling initiator access. This is based on validating the identity of the user, and that is the sole attribute used to control access.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 5

Identifying and proving the who value, that is, who is the initiating entity, is usually a function of a government agency.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 6

The Zscaler Zero Trust Exchange has:

Options:

A.

Inspection controls only in limited core sites.

B.

Locations in few high-traffic geographic regions.

C.

Scalable inspection solutions at 150+ public locations and locally in private locations.

D.

Expanded its scope to try to provide the proof for Fermat’s Last Theorem.

Question 7

What needs to be known to help inform policy decision enforcement?

Options:

A.

The time of day.

B.

The location and time zone of the initiator.

C.

Full context of the user, application, device posture, and related conditions.

D.

The verified identity of the initiator.

Question 8

There are alternative traffic forwarding methods to the Client Connector that leverage edge forwarding protocols to connect sites to the Zero Trust Exchange. Two of these protocols are:

Options:

A.

IPSec and GRE.

B.

Single Sign-On and Public Cloud Access.

C.

Security Appliance and Router.

D.

IPSec and IKEv2.

Question 9

In a Zero Trust architecture, what is required to apply the first levels of control policy decisions?

Options:

A.

Inspection of SSL/TLS connections.

B.

Local breakout so that traffic goes directly to SaaS applications from branches.

C.

Context and Identity.

D.

Segmenting an OT network so that it is air-gapped from the IT environment.

Question 10

Enterprises can deliver full security controls inline, without needing to decrypt traffic.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 11

Businesses undertake ________ to increase efficiency, improve agility, and achieve a competitive advantage.

Options:

A.

Digital transformation journeys

B.

Blue teaming exercises

C.

Red teaming exercises

D.

Disaster recovery planning

Question 12

Verification of user and device identity is to be enabled for:

Options:

A.

Any person who wants to connect to an enterprise-controlled application, including employees, third parties, and partners.

B.

Remote employees only.

C.

Untrusted third parties only.

D.

Employees connecting from unmanaged endpoint devices only.

Question 13

What protects Personally Identifiable Information (PII) accidentally shared by a colleague to the entire company?

Options:

A.

SSL/TLS inspection.

B.

Verifying identity and context through a secure identity provider.

C.

Data Loss Prevention (out-of-band and inline).

D.

Virtual firewalls.

Question 14

What are the advantages that Zero Trust solutions offer over legacy network controls?

Options:

A.

Ensuring that a user is correctly authorized at the application.

B.

Delivering connectivity, regardless of network or location, but only for authorized and compliant requests.

C.

By connecting an initiator to a cloud network-gateway edge and then routing the user traffic over internal networks.

D.

Layering in IP-level ACLs, which can require thousands of rules for modern web applications that are constantly adding new source IPs.

Question 15

Sometimes authorized and allowed initiators may request malicious access to services. What would be the best policy enforcement for an enterprise?

Options:

A.

Allow access only during business hours.

B.

Allow untethered access.

C.

Conditionally block (Deceive).

D.

Conditionally allow access and have a resource from Network Security review based on logs later.

Question 16

A Zero Trust policy enablement and subsequent application connection should always be permanent.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 17

In a network secured with a stack of security appliances and firewalls, what happens when people want to work from outside the network?

Options:

A.

Networks get extended using VPNs.

B.

Users simply need a reliable Wi-Fi connection.

C.

Work from outside the network is not possible.

D.

A single sign-on solution can be leveraged to accomplish this.

Question 18

How is policy enforcement in Zero Trust done?

Options:

A.

As a binary decision of allow or block.

B.

Without trust, for example Zero Trust.

C.

Conditionally, in that an allow or a block will have additional controls assigned, for example Allow and isolate, or Block and Deceive.

D.

At the network level, by source IP.

Question 19

Which of the following actions can be included in a conditional “block” policy? (Select 2)

Options:

A.

Quarantine: Ensure access is stopped and assessed.

B.

Deceive: Direct any malicious attack to a restricted decoy.

C.

Firehose: Send TCP resets to the initiator.

D.

Allow the connection.

Question 20

What is the cause of performance issues for some VPN connections?

Options:

A.

A split tunnel VPN where you break out traffic destined for certain IP addresses to go direct.

B.

VPN vendors throttle network traffic on the overlay by default to reduce overhead on the VPN headend.

C.

Hairpinning cloud application traffic through a data center bottleneck.

D.

Interoperability issues between IPSec standards like IKEv1 and IKEv2.

Question 21

Where is it most effective to assess the content of a connection?

Options:

A.

At the policy enforcement point, as close to an initiator as possible, for example the closest edge.

B.

Within a data center deployed in a one-armed concentrator mode.

C.

On disk, after first being copied several times for a backup.

D.

Within an ISP’s fiber backbone.

Question 22

When connecting to internal applications, something that you manage, what is the right way to implement Zero Trust for inbound connections?

Options:

A.

Direct access to internal applications must never be allowed. Furthermore, internal applications should never be exposed to any untrusted initiator and thus must be dark. Only authorized users can connect.

B.

Allow direct access for on-site initiators and enforce authorization for remote connections.

C.

Allow direct access for connections from enterprise-managed devices and enforce authorization for unmanaged devices, on-site or remote.

D.

Only allow connections via a secure point-to-point VPN connection.

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Total 75 questions