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Free and Premium WGU Managing-Cloud-Security Dumps Questions Answers

WGU Managing Cloud Security (JY02, GZO1) Questions and Answers

Question 1

An organization is conducting an external audit of the IT policies governing its production environment after moving all of its production systems to the cloud. Which IT policy will have a low priority in this environment?

Options:

A.

Data classification

B.

Hardware management

C.

Software procurement

D.

Acceptable use

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Question 2

An engineer needs to create segmentation using the built-in tools provided by the company's cloud provider. The InfoSec team has given the engineer directions to limit traffic using a security group between two cloud deployments in the organization. Which mechanisms should the engineer use to create this segmentation?

Options:

A.

MAC addresses and protocols

B.

Ports and protocols

C.

Unique identifiers and protocols

D.

Definitions and protocols

Question 3

Which design pillar encompasses the ability to support development and run workloads effectively, gain insights into operations, and continuously improve supporting processes to deliver business value?

Options:

A.

Performance efficiency

B.

Operational excellence

C.

Reliability

D.

Sustainability

Question 4

An organization negotiates a new contract with a cloud provider and wants to ensure that its critical business data is protected if the cloud provider goes out of business. For this reason, the organization wants the cloud provider to store a copy of the organization's data with a neutral third party, which would release the data in case the provider is unable to meet its obligations. Which type of provision should be included in the contract to ensure this?

Options:

A.

Indemnification

B.

Escrow

C.

Offboarding

D.

Encryption

Question 5

Which aspect of strong authentication is part of enterprise risk management?

Options:

A.

Federated identities

B.

Entitlement consideration

C.

Privileged user management

D.

Distributed organizations

Question 6

Which threat modeling process would a security analyst use to test a new application from a malicious actor's perspective?

Options:

A.

Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, and Discoverability (DREAD)

B.

Architecture, Threats, Attack Surfaces, and Mitigation (ATASM)

C.

Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis (PASTA)

D.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privileges (STRIDE)

Question 7

Which action should be taken to ensure that unencrypted network traffic is protected?

Options:

A.

Data should be transmitted using the secure socket layer (SSL) protocol.

B.

Data should be transmitted after it is compressed and password protected using gunzip (GZ).

C.

Data should be transmitted using generic routing encapsulation (GRE).

D.

Data should be transmitted using the transport layer security (TLS) protocol.

Question 8

Which jurisdictional protection factor should be known if personally identifiable information (PII) is to be stored in the cloud?

Options:

A.

Physical location of the web application firewall (WAF)

B.

Jurisdictional location of data

C.

Physical location of load balancer

D.

Jurisdictional location of availability zone

Question 9

An organization needs to provide space where security administrators can centrally monitor network traffic and events and respond to threats or outages. What should the organization create?

Options:

A.

Emergency response team (ERT)

B.

Security operations center (SOC)

C.

Disaster response team (DRT)

D.

Network operations center (NOC)

Question 10

Which factor should be the basis of a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Costs

B.

Risks

C.

Customers

D.

Locations

Question 11

A breach caused by lack of security management resulted in a civil lawsuit. The organization must communicate with the entity that is responsible for performing adequate oversight. Who should be contacted?

Options:

A.

Cloud customer

B.

IT department

C.

High-level government agencies

D.

Board of director members

Question 12

Developers need to be aware of a common application programming interface (API) threat that occurs when attackers send malicious code through a form input to a web application so that it may then be executed. Which type of attack represents this API threat?

Options:

A.

On-path

B.

Injection

C.

Credential

D.

Denial-of-service

Question 13

An organization consists of many divisions. Its leadership team has gathered the managers and key team members in each division to help create a disaster recovery plan. It studies the type of natural events that commonly occur and the risk involved for each location in which the organization has a data center. What is the leadership team doing in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Performing an asset inventory

B.

Running a disaster declaration process

C.

Identifying the actions

D.

Defining the disaster criteria

Question 14

Which technology is increasingly deployed in enterprise environments for applications such as digital tracking of the supply chain?

Options:

A.

Internet of Things

B.

Cloud computing

C.

Big data

D.

Machine learning

Question 15

A customer requests that a cloud provider physically destroys any drives storing their personal data. What must the provider do with the drives?

Options:

A.

It should destroy them only if the contract includes hardware disposal insurance.

B.

It should use cryptographic erasure to securely remove any personal data from the drives.

C.

It should destroy them only if dedicated hardware disposal is specified in the contract.

D.

It should use degaussing tools to securely remove any personal data from the drives.

Question 16

Which service model requires the most consumer responsibility for security issues?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

C.

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Question 17

Which security issue may occur when application programming interfaces (APIs) without sufficient validation are used in cloud services?

Options:

A.

Inefficient bandwidth utilization

B.

Perimeter security breach

C.

Data breach

D.

Crypto-shredding

Question 18

An organization is reviewing a contract from a cloud service provider and wants to ensure that all aspects of the contract are adhered to by the cloud service provider. Which control will allow the organization to verify that the cloud provider is meeting its obligations?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

Confidential computing

C.

Regulatory oversight

D.

Incident management

Question 19

A network administrator is concerned about the loss of physical control when moving data to the cloud. Which countermeasure should be implemented to avoid this threat?

Options:

A.

Multi-layer control

B.

Tertiary control

C.

Ancillary control

D.

Compensating control

Question 20

In which service model would the cloud service provider bear the greatest responsibility for security?

Options:

A.

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

B.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Question 21

Which security testing method requires compliance with the cloud service provider’s terms of service?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Continuous delivery pipeline

C.

Static analysis

D.

Code review

Question 22

Which business area in the enterprise risk management (ERM) strategy is concerned with formal risk assessments when forming new or renewing existing vendor relationships?

Options:

A.

Software development

B.

Procurement

C.

Quality assurance

D.

Marketing

Question 23

Which security control is a countermeasure against vendor lock-in and lock-out?

Options:

A.

Offsite backups

B.

Video surveillance

C.

Disk redundancy

D.

Training programs

Question 24

Which strategy will reduce the impact of risk in the business continuity and disaster recovery planning process?

Options:

A.

Insurance

B.

Avoidance

C.

Mitigation

D.

Acceptance

Question 25

Which approach helps prepare for common application vulnerabilities that developers are likely to encounter when working with cloud applications?

Options:

A.

Sandboxing

B.

Threat modeling

C.

Application virtualization

D.

Multitenancy

Question 26

Which document, commonly existing in an IT enterprise, can be used to speed up the process of identifying a potential cloud service provider (CSP)?

Options:

A.

Entity relationship and data flow diagrams

B.

Physical plant blueprint

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plan

D.

Egress safety design

Question 27

Which requirement in the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) is included to protect private data?

Options:

A.

Independent auditor

B.

Gap analysis

C.

Information security plan

D.

Limited scope definition

Question 28

Which regulation provides a guide for implementing the risk management framework?

Options:

A.

NIST SP 800-37

B.

ISO 31000:2009

C.

ISO 27001

D.

PCI-DSS

Question 29

Which cloud storage architecture enhances the opportunity for data policy enforcement such as data loss prevention (DLP)?

Options:

A.

Object

B.

Flash

C.

Database

D.

Ephemeral

Question 30

Which regulation defines requirements for the electronic transfer of healthcare data to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Stark Law

B.

Healthcare Quality Improvement Law

C.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

D.

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

Question 31

As part of training to help the data center engineers understand different attack vectors that affect the infrastructure, they work on a set of information about access and availability attacks that was presented. Part of the labs requires the engineers to identify different threat vectors and their names. Which threat prohibits the use of data by preventing access to it?

Options:

A.

Brute force

B.

Encryption

C.

Rainbow tables

D.

Denial of service

Question 32

Which category of cloud service provides on-demand, self-service access to basic building blocks, such as virtualized servers, block storage, and networking capacity, that can be used to create custom IT solutions?

Options:

A.

Networking as a service (NaaS)

B.

Platform as a service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

Question 33

Which open-source software (OSS) cloud computing platform provides a full set of features and components for a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Apache OpenStack

B.

Hypervisor

C.

VMware vSphere

D.

Open Web Application Security Project

Question 34

Which security control could be implemented as part of a layered physical defense at a cloud hosting site?

Options:

A.

Access control enforcement

B.

Background checks

C.

Video surveillance capability

D.

Multifactor authentication

Question 35

Which security strategy is associated with data rights management solutions?

Options:

A.

Persistent protection

B.

Multilevel aggregation

C.

Enhanced detail

D.

Unexpired digital content

Question 36

Which item determines whether a server has the capacity and the instance allocation to meet a customer’s requirements?

Options:

A.

Cloud provider

B.

Instance provider

C.

Cloud controller

D.

UniFi controller

Question 37

An organization is concerned that it will be unable to recover or access data if the cloud provider goes into bankruptcy and leaves the market. How is this concern addressed in a business continuity and disaster recovery plan?

Options:

A.

Consider options for portability and interoperability

B.

Enable multiple zones to mitigate service disruptions

C.

Revise contractual and personnel obligations

D.

Use best tools to securely connect to the cloud

Question 38

Which level of compliance is required by a cloud service provider to protect customer data at banks and insurance companies?

Options:

A.

IDEA

B.

DMCA

C.

FERPA

D.

GLBA

Question 39

An organization’s security architects determined that all authentication and authorization requests need to be validated before any employee can access corporate resources. Because of this, the organization needs to implement a system that stores and manages the employees' credential information and then validates any requests sent. Which system would allow the organization to meet the architects' requirements?

Options:

A.

Hardware security module (HSM)

B.

Zero trust

C.

Bastion host

D.

Identity provider (IdP)

Question 40

How does a cloud-based distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) protection strategy help in the event of an attack?

Options:

A.

Using round-robin load balancing

B.

Rerouting traffic to the mitigation services

C.

Having multiple endpoints

D.

Scaling the receiving application

Question 41

A security analyst is tasked with compiling a report of all people who used a system between two dates. The thorough report must include information about how long and how often the system was used. Which information should the analyst ensure is in the report?

Options:

A.

Informational logs and message of the day

B.

Environmental errors and 802.1x logs

C.

User identifications and access timestamps

D.

User commands and error timestamps

Question 42

An organization’s leadership team gathered managers and key team members in each division to help create a disaster recovery plan. They realize they lack a complete understanding of the infrastructure and software needed to formulate the plan. Which action should they take to correct this issue?

Options:

A.

They should create a checklist of the necessary tasks.

B.

They should determine the criteria of a disaster.

C.

They should identify the key roles in a disaster.

D.

They should perform an inventory of assets.

Question 43

Which risk relates to the removal of a person’s information within the public cloud by legal authorities?

Options:

A.

Remote wiping

B.

Vendor lock-in

C.

Data masking

D.

Data seizure

Question 44

Which term refers to taking an accurate account of a system's desired standard state so changes can be quickly detected for approval or remediation?

Options:

A.

Baselining

B.

Patch management

C.

Deployment

D.

Capacity management

Question 45

Which general body of law covers data breach violations in a cloud environment at a federal agency?

Options:

A.

Criminal

B.

Civil

C.

Administrative

D.

Tort

Question 46

Which concept focuses on operating highly available workloads in the cloud?

Options:

A.

Resource hierarchy

B.

Security

C.

Operational excellence

D.

Reliability

Question 47

What is the process of identifying and procuring stored data as evidence for legal purposes?

Options:

A.

Chain of custody

B.

Forensic imaging

C.

Electronic discovery

D.

Gap analysis

Question 48

Which of the following is an iterative software development methodology that focuses on achieving customer satisfaction by delivering the software early in the process and welcoming changing requirements from the customer, even late in the process?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

Spiral

C.

Waterfall

D.

Lean

Question 49

A governmental data storage organization plans to relocate its primary North American data center to a new property with larger acreage. Which defense should the organization deploy at this location to prevent vehicles from causing harm to the data center?

Options:

A.

Locks

B.

Cameras

C.

Bollards

D.

Fences

Question 50

Which cloud infrastructure component employs a hierarchical and distributed database that contains mappings?

Options:

A.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Clustered hosting

D.

Resource sharing

Question 51

Which process is implemented during the hardening of an operating system (OS) and its workloads?

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Incident management

C.

Patch management

D.

Security management

Question 52

Which role ensures that third parties take adequate technical and organizational security measures to safeguard data?

Options:

A.

Cloud user

B.

Data controller

C.

Cloud provider

D.

Data subject

Question 53

Which security risk is co-owned by the enterprise team and the cloud provider in the software as a service (SaaS) model?

Options:

A.

Application

B.

Data

C.

Physical

D.

Platform

Question 54

Which type of data sanitization should be used to destroy data on a USB thumb drive while keeping the drive intact?

Options:

A.

Key revocation

B.

Physical destruction

C.

Overwriting

D.

Degaussing

Question 55

Which data source provides auditability and traceability for event investigation as well as documentation?

Options:

A.

Block storage

B.

Object storage

C.

Database logs

D.

Database rows

Question 56

Which tier from Uptime Institute's Data Center Site Infrastructure Tier Standards is considered to be the most secure, reliable, and redundant in design and operational elements?

Options:

A.

Tier IV

B.

Tier I

C.

Tier II

D.

Tier III

Question 57

An accountant in an organization is allowed access to a company's human resources database only to adjust the number of hours that the organization’s employees have worked in a fiscal year. However, the accountant modifies an employee's personal information. Which part of the STRIDE model describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Spoofing

B.

Denial of service

C.

Tampering

D.

Elevation of privilege

Question 58

An organization is implementing a new hybrid cloud deployment and wants all employees to provide a username, password, and security token before accessing any of the cloud resources. Which type of security control is the organization leveraging for its employees?

Options:

A.

Authorization

B.

Web application firewall (WAF)

C.

Access control list (ACL)

D.

Authentication

Question 59

Which cloud storage design is based on a hierarchical system?

Options:

A.

Database

B.

Block

C.

File

D.

Object

Question 60

Which security device includes anti-distributed denial of service (DDoS) capabilities in order to protect cloud data storage?

Options:

A.

Extensible markup language (XML) gateway

B.

Web application firewall (WAF)

C.

Network-based database activity monitor (NDAM)

D.

Agent-based database activity monitor (ADAM)

Question 61

Which phase in secure application design and development includes threat modeling?

Options:

A.

Define

B.

Design

C.

Training

D.

Develop