Weekend Sale 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: save70

Free and Premium SCDM CCDM Dumps Questions Answers

Page: 1 / 11
Total 150 questions

Certified Clinical Data Manager Questions and Answers

Question 1

A statistician analyzes data from a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study and finds that the placebo outperformed the investigational product. Which of the following is a plausible explanation for this?

Options:

A.

The placebo was intended to contain medicinal properties.

B.

Sites appropriately dispensed the investigational product to the subjects.

C.

The treatment codes were incorrectly entered into the database.

D.

The investigational product performed well in this study population.

Buy Now
Question 2

A Data Manager is establishing a timeline for database lock for a 100-person study where the data have been maintained almost all clean throughout the study. All data from external labs have been received and reconciled. Which is the best estimate of the amount of time needed to lock the database after Last Patient Last Visit?

Options:

A.

A few hours

B.

A few days

C.

A few months

D.

A few weeks

Question 3

An asthma study is taking into account local air quality and receives that data from the national weather bureau. Which information is needed to link research subject data to the air-quality readings?

Options:

A.

Location identifier

B.

Location and time identifiers

C.

Location, time and subject identifiers

D.

Location, time, subject and site identifiers

Question 4

Which of the following laboratory findings is a valid adverse event reported term that facilitates auto coding?

Options:

A.

Elevated HDL

B.

ALT

C.

Abnormal SGOT

D.

Increased alkaline phosphatase, increased SGPT, increased SGOT, and elevated LDH

Question 5

Which of the following processes is the most likely to remain in a study that utilizes electronic data capture?

Options:

A.

Tracking case report forms

B.

Updating the in-house database

C.

Resolving queries

D.

Retrieving case report forms

Question 6

Which mode of data entry is most commonly used in EDC systems?

Options:

A.

Double entry

B.

Blind verification

C.

Single entry

D.

Third party compare

Question 7

A data manager takes the INTERSECTION data in two tables wanting only the 50 records common to both tables. What operation did the data manager perform?

Options:

A.

Left outer join

B.

Right outer join

C.

Inner join

D.

Full outer join

Question 8

Which list should be provided to support communication with sites regarding late data and queries?

Options:

A.

List of entered and clean data by site

B.

List of subjects screened and enrolled by site

C.

List of user account activity by site

D.

List of outstanding data and queries by site

Question 9

A Data Manager is asked to manage SOPs for a department. Given equal availability of the following systems, which of the following is the best choice for managing the organizational SOPs?

Options:

A.

Document management system

B.

Customized Excel spreadsheet

C.

Learning management system

D.

Existing paper filing system

Question 10

Which document contains the details of when, to whom, and in what manner the vendor data will be sent?

Options:

A.

Project Plan

B.

Communication Plan

C.

Data Transfer Agreement

D.

Data Management Plan

Question 11

According to ICH E6, developing a Monitoring Plan is the responsibility of whom?

Options:

A.

Sponsor

B.

CRO

C.

Data Manager

D.

Monitor

Question 12

Which database table structure is most appropriate for vital signs data collected at every-other visit for each patient in a study?

Options:

A.

One record per visit

B.

One record per patient per study

C.

One record per patient per visit

D.

One record per patient

Question 13

A Data Manager is designing a CRF for a study for which the efficacy data are not covered by the current SDTM domains. Which of the following should the Data Manager consult first?

Options:

A.

Data elements used in clinical registries in the therapeutic area

B.

SNOMED terms used in the therapeutic area

C.

Forms used by other sponsors in the same therapeutic area

D.

A CDISC therapeutic-area implementation guide

Question 14

Which is the MOST appropriate flow for EDC set-up and implementation?

Options:

A.

CRF “wire-frames” created, CRFs reviewed, CRFs printed, CRFs distributed to sites

B.

Protocol finalized, Database created, Edit Checks created, Database tested, Sites trained

C.

Database created, Subjects enrolled, Database tested, Sites trained, Database released

D.

Database created, Database tested, Sites trained, Protocol finalized, Database released

Question 15

ePRO data are collected for a study using study devices given to subjects. Which is the most appropriate quality control method for the data?

Options:

A.

Programmed edit checks to detect out of range values after submission to the database

B.

Manual review of data by the site study coordinator at the next visit

C.

Data visualizations to look for site-to-site variation

D.

Programmed edit checks to detect out of range values upon data entry

Question 16

What additional task does the site study coordinator role perform when utilizing an EDC application compared to paper CRF?

Options:

A.

Resolving queries

B.

Data entry

C.

Data curation

D.

Medical record abstraction

Question 17

Which data are needed to monitor site variability in eligibility screening?

Options:

A.

Number of sites with low enrollment

B.

Number of subjects screened and number of subjects enrolled

C.

Number of subjects enrolled

D.

Number of sites with high enrollment

Question 18

An astute monitor discovers that a site is using nebulized albuterol rather than the inhaler provided in the study screening kit for the albuterol challenge. Which is the best response from the Data Manager?

Options:

A.

No response is needed, the problem does not impact data

B.

Contact the Ethics Committee

C.

Update the CRF Completion Guidelines and notify all sites of the update

D.

Query the site to enter a Protocol Violation

Question 19

During a database audit, it was determined that there were more errors than expected. Who is responsible for assessing the overall impact on the analysis of the data?

Options:

A.

Data Manager

B.

Statistician

C.

Quality Auditor

D.

Investigator

Question 20

A study numbers subjects sequentially within each site and does not reuse site numbers. Which information is required when joining data across tables?

Options:

A.

Subject number and site number

B.

Subject number

C.

Study number and subject number

D.

Site number

Question 21

What significant difference is there in the DM role when utilizing an EDC application?

Options:

A.

Data updates are implemented by the sites

B.

Database validation is not required

C.

Metrics generation is required

D.

Tracking of eCRFs is a monitor's responsibility

Question 22

A study is collecting ePRO assessments as well as activity-monitoring data from a wearable device. Which data should be collected from the ePRO and activity-monitoring devices to synchronize the device data with the visit data entered by the site?

Options:

A.

Study subject identifier

B.

Study subject identifier and date/time

C.

Geo-spatial location

D.

Geo-spatial location and study subject identifier

Question 23

Which method would best identify clinical chemistry lab data affected by a blood draw taken distal to a saline infusion?

Options:

A.

Abnormally high sodium values in a dataset

B.

Lab values from a blood draw with a very high sodium and very low other values

C.

Abnormally low urine glucose values in a dataset

D.

Lab values from a blood draw with a very low sodium and very high other values

Question 24

Which of the following scenarios requires a query to be sent to the central lab first when there is a discrepancy between the final lab data transfer and the CRF?

Options:

A.

Both the central lab and the CRF have data present for a visit

B.

The CRF has data for a visit but the central lab has missing data for the visit

C.

The central lab has data for a visit but the CRF has missing data for the visit

D.

Both the central lab and the CRF data have missing data for a visit

Question 25

What is the main reason 21 CFR Part 11 requires that EDC systems maintain an audit trail?

Options:

A.

To preserve data integrity

B.

To preserve the ability for modifications

C.

To preserve source document verifications

D.

To preserve data availability

Question 26

A study uses and collects pacemaker interrogation data for each patient weekly by selecting and downloading the data from the manufacturer's website. There are 200 patients in the study and it takes the Data Manager 30 minutes per file to download, import, and process the data. Assuming that the distribution of work is uniform over the six-month trial, how many Data Managers are needed for the activity data alone?

Options:

A.

Two and a half Data Managers per month

B.

Fifty percent of a Data Manager per month

C.

One Data Manager per month

D.

Two Data Managers per month

Question 27

Every database lock should follow documented approval of which stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Clinical/Scientific Representative, Data Manager, Biostatistician

B.

Clinical/Scientific Representative, Biostatistician, Programmer

C.

Clinical/Scientific Representative, Data Manager

D.

Clinical/Scientific Representative, Biostatistician

Question 28

A protocol amendment adds three data elements to the vital signs screen and two additional data-collection time points. Which is best practice for handling changes to the form completion guidelines?

Options:

A.

Update the guidelines and notify sites of changes prior to implementing the change

B.

Update the guidelines and post the new version on the trial portal

C.

Rely on the revised CRF to enforce the changes without updating guidelines or notifying sites

D.

Notify sites of the change without a guideline update

Question 29

For clinical investigational sites on an EDC trial, which of the following archival options allows traceability of changes made to data?

Options:

A.

Storing the computer used at the clinical investigational site

B.

Paper copies of the source documents

C.

PDF images of the final eCRF screens for each patient

D.

ASCII files of the site's data and related audit trails

Question 30

A Clinical Data Manager is drafting data element definitions for a new study. One of the definitions provided is:

"Baby's crown to heel length measured lying on back, measured physical quantity, precision of 0.1."

Which of the following is missing from the definition?

Options:

A.

Discrete values for a drop-down list

B.

Enumeration

C.

Data type of the data element

D.

Unit or dimensionality of measure

Question 31

A Data Manager is drafting a report for clinical operations staff for support in responding to questions about milestone-based site payments. Which is the most important information to display?

Options:

A.

Milestones met by month, by site

B.

Milestones met by month, by type

C.

Expected versus actual milestones met to date, by site

D.

Milestones included in the last payment by site, by patient

Question 32

A Data Manager is importing lab data for a study. The lab data and the associated audit trail is kept at the central lab. What is necessary to maintain traceability of the transferred data at the Data Manager's location?

Options:

A.

Making changes only after data have been imported

B.

Maintaining a copy of the data as received

C.

Making changes only for exceptions

D.

Making changes only on the copy of the received data

Question 33

The result set from the query below would be which of the following?

SELECT Pt_ID, MRN, SSN FROM patient

Options:

A.

Wider than the patient table

B.

Shorter than the patient table

C.

Longer than the patient table

D.

Narrower than the patient table

Question 34

Which type of edit check would be implemented to check the correctness of data present in a text box?

Options:

A.

Manual Check

B.

Back-end check

C.

Front-end check

D.

Programmed check

Question 35

What does RACI stand for?

Options:

A.

Responsible, Accountable, Contribute, Input

B.

Recommend, Approve, Calibrate, Innovate

C.

Responsibility, Accountability, Consultation, Information

D.

Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

Question 36

Which is the best way to see site variability in eligibility screening?

Options:

A.

List eligibility waivers by site

B.

Summarize screening rate by site

C.

Graph enrollment by site

D.

Plot eligibility rate by site

Question 37

Which of the following statements would be BEST included in a data management plan describing the process for making self-evident corrections in a clinical database?

Options:

A.

A senior level data manager may make audited changes to the database without further documentation.

B.

Self-evident corrections made in the database will be reviewed and approved by a team leader or manager.

C.

No changes will be made in the database without a query response signed by the investigator.

D.

Self-evident changes may be made per the listed conventions and documented to the investigative site.

Question 38

A study team member suggests that data for a small, 50-patient, 2-year study can be entered and cleaned in two weeks before lock. Which are important other considerations?

Options:

A.

Processing the data in two weeks after the study is over would save money because the data manager would not be involved until the end

B.

Without the ability to capture the data electronically, the data cannot be checked or used to monitor and manage the study

C.

Processing the data in two weeks after the study is over would save money because the EDC system would only be needed for a month

D.

It would take more than two weeks to get second iteration queries generated and resolved

Question 39

Which is the best way to identify sites with high subject attrition?

Options:

A.

Proportion of patients for which two visit periods have passed without data by site

B.

Number of late visits per site

C.

Proportion of late visits by site

D.

Number of patients for which two visit periods have passed without data

Question 40

Which information is most useful in working with sites to catch up a backlog of unresolved queries at sites?

Options:

A.

Graph and summary table of clean cases by site

B.

Table of outstanding queries counts by site

C.

Graph of expected versus actual enrollment

D.

List of late queries by site and summary table

Question 41

At a cross-functional study team meeting, a statistician suggests collecting blood gases electronically through the existing continuous hemodynamic monitoring system at sites rather than having a person record the values every five minutes during the study procedure. Assuming that sending, receiving, and integrating these data are possible, what is the best response?

Options:

A.

Manual recording is preferred because healthcare devices are not validated to 21 CFR Part 11 standards

B.

Manual recording is preferred because the sites may forget to turn on the machine and lose data

C.

Electronic acquisition is preferable because more data points can be acquired

D.

Electronic acquisition is preferable because the chance for human error is removed

Question 42

The Scope of Work would answer which of the following information needs?

Options:

A.

To determine the number of data transfers budgeted for a project

B.

To look up the date of the next clinical monitoring visit for a specific site

C.

To look up which visit PK samples are taken

D.

To find the name and contact information of a specific clinical data associate

Question 43

When a hospitalized subject in a cardiovascular trial experiences a repeated but mild episode of tachycardia, the physician decides to extend the subject's hospital stay for continued observation. How would this event be characterized?

Options:

A.

Serious adverse event

B.

Adverse event

C.

Severe adverse event

D.

Spontaneous adverse event

Question 44

Which is the most important reason for why a data manager would review data before a monitor reviews it?

Options:

A.

Data managers write the Data Management Plan that specifies the data cleaning workflow.

B.

Data can be viewed and discrepancies highlighted prior to a monitor's review.

C.

Data managers have access to programming tools to identify discrepancies.

D.

The GCDMP recommends that data managers review data prior to a monitor's review.

Question 45

Which of the following data verification checks would most likely be included in a manual or visual data review step?

Options:

A.

Checking an entered value against a valid list of values

B.

Checking adverse event treatments against concomitant medications

C.

Checking mandatory fields for missing values

D.

Checking a value against a reference range

Page: 1 / 11
Total 150 questions