International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Questions and Answers
Question 45
The arbitrage pricing theory adopts a complex multi-factor approach by:
Options:
A.
Applying a separate beta to each risk premium
B.
Making more assumptions than the capital asset pricing model
C.
Assuming any identified factors are correlated to each other
D.
Including the psychological factors of investment
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Arbitrage pricing theory explains expected returns using multiple systematic risk factors rather than relying on a single market factor. In this framework, each factor has an associated risk premium, and each security has a sensitivity to each factor. Those sensitivities are commonly described as factor betas. The expected return is constructed by adding the risk free rate to the sum of each factor beta multiplied by that factor’s risk premium. This is what makes the model multi-factor: risk is decomposed into several drivers, such as economic growth, inflation, interest rate changes, or other broad influences, with separate exposures to each. The capital asset pricing model uses one beta against a market portfolio, so it is simpler but also more restrictive. Arbitrage pricing theory does not require the strong single-factor structure and does not depend on psychological elements of investing. It also does not assume factors are correlated to each other as a defining feature. The key distinguishing point that CISI tests is that arbitrage pricing theory applies separate betas to multiple risk premiums.
Question 46
It is impossible to diversify against:
Options:
A.
Currency risk
B.
Credit risk
C.
Liquidity risk
D.
Market risk
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Diversification reduces risk by combining assets whose returns are not perfectly correlated. This is effective for risks that are specific to an individual issuer, sector, or instrument because negative outcomes in one holding may be offset by better outcomes elsewhere. Credit risk can be diversified by spreading exposure across many issuers, sectors, credit qualities, and maturities, reducing the impact of any single default. Currency risk can be diversified by holding multiple currencies, and it can also be managed through hedging, although it cannot be removed entirely if foreign exposure remains. Liquidity risk can be reduced by holding a mix of liquid assets and by avoiding concentration in instruments that may be hard to sell, although periods of market stress can still reduce liquidity broadly. Market risk, also called systematic risk, is different: it reflects economy-wide and market-wide forces such as recessions, broad interest-rate shifts, and systemic shocks that affect most risky assets at the same time. Because it is common to the whole market, it cannot be eliminated through diversification, only managed through asset allocation, hedging, or reducing overall risk exposure.
Question 47
Which of the following actions constitutes market abuse?
Options:
A.
An individual within a firm being made aware of inside information
B.
A person who trades having read a tip online that is behind a paywall
C.
A market maker placing multiple trades in the same stock on consecutive days
D.
An insider disclosing inside information to another person without good reason
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Market abuse under the UK Market Abuse Regulation includes three broad categories: insider dealing, unlawful disclosure of inside information, and market manipulation. A clear example is an insider passing inside information to someone else without a legitimate reason in the normal exercise of their employment, profession, or duties. That behaviour is specifically captured as unlawful disclosure and is therefore market abuse. Simply being made aware of inside information inside a firm is not, by itself, an abusive act; what matters is whether the person then misuses it, for example by dealing, recommending, inducing others to deal, or disclosing it unlawfully. A market maker executing multiple trades over consecutive days is typical market activity and not abusive unless the orders are intended to mislead the market or distort price formation. Trading after reading a tip online is not automatically market abuse either; it depends on whether the tip constitutes inside information and whether the trader knows, or ought to know, it is inside information. CISI exams typically reward choosing the option that most unambiguously fits the legal definition: unlawful disclosure by an insider without good reason.
Question 48
A stock has a beta value of 0.85. What does this indicate?
Options:
A.
It has underperformed its benchmark by 15%
B.
It has outperformed its benchmark by
C.
It is more volatile than the market as a whole
D.
It is less volatile than the market as a whole
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Beta measures the sensitivity of a stock’s returns to movements in the market as a whole, based on historical co-movement with a chosen market index. A beta of 1 indicates the stock has tended to move in line with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates higher sensitivity and therefore higher systematic risk, meaning the stock has tended to rise more than the market in up markets and fall more in down markets. A beta below 1 indicates lower sensitivity to market movements. With a beta of 0.85, the stock has historically moved about 85% as much as the market, so it is less volatile than the market in systematic risk terms. This does not mean it will outperform or underperform the benchmark, and it does not describe relative performance in percentage terms. Beta is not a performance measure, it is a risk measure. CISI exam traps often include statements that confuse beta with return or with tracking error. The correct interpretation is lower market-related volatility than the market overall.