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Free and Premium Paloalto Networks CloudSec-Pro Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 258 questions

Palo Alto Networks Cloud Security Professional Questions and Answers

Question 1

Console is running in a Kubernetes cluster, and Defenders need to be deployed on nodes within this cluster.

How should the Defenders in Kubernetes be deployed using the default Console service name?

Options:

A.

From the deployment page in Console, choose "twistlock-console" for Console identifier, generate DaemonSet file, and apply DaemonSet to the twistlock namespace.

B.

From the deployment page, configure the cloud credential in Console and allow cloud discovery to auto-protect the Kubernetes nodes.

C.

From the deployment page in Console, choose "twistlock-console" for Console identifier and run the "curl | bash" script on the master Kubernetes node.

D.

From the deployment page in Console, choose "pod name" for Console identifier, generate DaemonSet file, and apply the DaemonSet to twistlock namespace.

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Question 2

Given this information:

The Console is located at The username is: cluster

The password is: password123

The image to scan is: myimage:latest

Which twistcli command should be used to scan a Container for vulnerabilities and display the details about each vulnerability?

Options:

A.

twistcli images scan --console-address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local -u cluster -p password123 -- details myimage:latest

B.

twistcli images scan --console-address prisma-console.mydomain.local -u cluster -p password123 -- vulnerability-details myimage:latest

C.

twistcli images scan --address prisma-console.mydomain.local -u cluster -p password123 --vulnerability- details myimage:latest

D.

twistcli images scan --address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local -u cluster -p password123 --details myimage:latest

Question 3

Which Defender type performs registry scanning?

Options:

A.

Serverless

B.

Container

C.

Host

D.

RASP

Question 4

You are tasked with configuring a Prisma Cloud build policy for Terraform. What type of query is necessary to complete this policy?

Options:

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

CloudFormation

D.

Terraform

Question 5

An administrator wants to retrieve the compliance policies for images scanned in a continuous integration (CI) pipeline.

Which endpoint will successfully execute to enable access to the images via API?

Options:

A.

GET /api/v22.01/policies/compliance

B.

GET /api/v22.01/policies/compliance/ci

C.

GET /api/v22.01/policies/compliance/ci/images

D.

GET /api/v22.01/policies/compliance/ci/serverless

Question 6

If you are required to run in an air-gapped environment, which product should you install?

Options:

A.

Prisma Cloud Jenkins Plugin

B.

Prisma Cloud Compute Edition

C.

Prisma Cloud with self-hosted plugin

D.

Prisma Cloud Enterprise Edition

Question 7

Which three options for hardening a customer environment against misconfiguration are included in Prisma Cloud Compute compliance enforcement for hosts? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Serverless functions

B.

Docker daemon configuration

C.

Cloud provider tags

D.

Host configuration

E.

Hosts without Defender agents

Question 8

What is the default namespace created by Defender DaemonSet during deployment?

Options:

A.

Redlock

B.

Defender

C.

Twistlock

D.

Default

Question 9

During an initial deployment of Prisma Cloud Compute, the customer sees vulnerabilities in their environment.

Which statement correctly describes the default vulnerability policy?

Options:

A.

It blocks all containers that contain a vulnerability.

B.

It alerts on any container with more than three critical vulnerabilities.

C.

It blocks containers after 30 days if they contain a critical vulnerability.

D.

It alerts on all vulnerabilities, regardless of severity.

Question 10

Which two statements apply to the Defender type Container Defender - Linux?

Options:

A.

It is implemented as runtime protection in the userspace.

B.

It is deployed as a service.

C.

It is deployed as a container.

D.

It is incapable of filesystem runtime defense.

Question 11

Which policy type in Prisma Cloud can protect against malware?

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Config

C.

Network

D.

Event

Question 12

Which two of the following are required to be entered on the IdP side when setting up SSO in Prisma Cloud? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Username

B.

SSO Certificate

C.

Assertion Consumer Service (ACS) URL

D.

SP (Service Provider) Entity ID

Question 13

Which categories does the Adoption Advisor use to measure adoption progress for Cloud Security Posture Management?

Options:

A.

Visibility, Compliance, Governance, and Threat Detection and Response

B.

Network, Anomaly, and Audit Event

C.

Visibility, Security, and Compliance

D.

Foundations, Advanced, and Optimize

Question 14

Which two offerings will scan container images in Jenkins pipelines? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Compute Azure DevOps plugin

B.

Prisma Cloud Visual Studio Code plugin with Jenkins integration

C.

Jenkins Docker plugin

D.

Twistcli

E.

Compute Jenkins plugin

Question 15

An administrator has access to a Prisma Cloud Enterprise.

What are the steps to deploy a single container Defender on an ec2 node?

Options:

A.

Pull the Defender image to the ec2 node, copy and execute the curl | bash script, and start the Defender to ensure it is running.

B.

Execute the curl | bash script on the ec2 node.

C.

Configure the cloud credential in the console and allow cloud discovery to auto-protect the ec2 node.

D.

Generate DaemonSet file and apply DaemonSet to the twistlock namespace.

Question 16

The security team wants to enable the “block” option under compliance checks on the host.

What effect will this option have if it violates the compliance check?

Options:

A.

The host will be taken offline.

B.

Additional hosts will be prevented form starting.

C.

Containers on a host will be stopped.

D.

No containers will be allowed to start on that host.

Question 17

What is the function of the external ID when onboarding a new Amazon Web Services (AWS) account in Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

It is a unique identifier needed only when Monitor & Protect mode is selected.

B.

It is the resource name for the Prisma Cloud Role.

C.

It is a UUID that establishes a trust relationship between the Prisma Cloud account and the AWS account in order to extract data.

D.

It is the default name of the PrismaCloudApp stack.

Question 18

What is the order of steps to create a custom network policy?

(Drag the steps into the correct order of occurrence, from the first step to the last.)

Options:

Question 19

A customer has a requirement to scan serverless functions for vulnerabilities.

Which three settings are required to configure serverless scanning? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Defender Name

B.

Region

C.

Credential

D.

Console Address

E.

Provider

Question 20

What is the most reliable and extensive source for documentation on Prisma Cloud APIs?

Options:

A.

prisma.pan.dev

B.

docs.paloaltonetworks.com

C.

Prisma Cloud Administrator’s Guide

D.

Live Community

Question 21

Which two integrations enable ingesting host findings to generate alerts? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Splunk

B.

Tenable

C.

JIRA

D.

Qualys

Question 22

Which two services require external notifications to be enabled for policy violations in the Prisma Cloud environment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Splunk

B.

QROC

C.

SQS

D.

Email

Question 23

What is the maximum number of access keys a user can generate in Prisma Cloud with a System Admin role?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 24

Which “kind” of Kubernetes object is configured to ensure that Defender is acting as the admission controller?

Options:

A.

MutatingWebhookConfiguration

B.

DestinationRules

C.

ValidatingWebhookConfiguration

D.

PodSecurityPolicies

Question 25

How many CLI remediation commands can be added in a custom policy sequence?

Options:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

4

D.

5

Question 26

An organization wants to be notified immediately to any “High Severity” alerts for the account group “Clinical Trials” via Slack.

Which option shows the steps the organization can use to achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

1. Configure Slack Integration2.Create an alert rule and select “Clinical Trials” as the account group3.Under the “Select Policies” tab, filter on severity and select “High”4.Under the Set Alert Notification tab, choose Slack and populate the channel5.Set Frequency to “As it Happens”

B.

1. Create an alert rule and select “Clinical Trials” as the account group2.Under the “Select Policies” tab, filter on severity and select “High”3.Under the Set Alert Notification tab, choose Slack and populate the channel4.Set Frequency to “As it Happens”5.Set up the Slack Integration to complete the configuration

C.

1. Configure Slack Integration2.Create an alert rule3.Under the “Select Policies” tab, filter on severity and select “High”4.Under the Set Alert Notification tab, choose Slack and populate the channel5.Set Frequency to “As it Happens”

D.

1. Under the “Select Policies” tab, filter on severity and select “High”2.Under the Set Alert Notification tab, choose Slack and populate the channel3.Set Frequency to “As it Happens”4.Configure Slack Integration5.Create an Alert rule

Question 27

Which type of compliance check is available for rules under Defend > Compliance > Containers and Images > CI?

Options:

A.

Host

B.

Container

C.

Functions

D.

Image

Question 28

Where can a user submit an external new feature request?

Options:

A.

Aha

B.

Help Center

C.

Support Portal

D.

Feature Request

Question 29

A customer does not want alerts to be generated from network traffic that originates from trusted internal networks.

Which setting should you use to meet this customer’s request?

Options:

A.

Trusted Login IP Addresses

B.

Anomaly Trusted List

C.

Trusted Alert IP Addresses

D.

Enterprise Alert Disposition

Question 30

What factor is not used in calculating the net effective permissions for a resource in AWS?

Options:

A.

AWS 1AM policy

B.

Permission boundaries

C.

IPTables firewall rule

D.

AWS service control policies (SCPs)

Question 31

Which data security default policy is able to scan for vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Objects containing Vulnerabilities

B.

Objects containing Threats

C.

Objects containing Malware

D.

Objects containing Exploits

Question 32

You have onboarded a public cloud account into Prisma Cloud Enterprise. Configuration Resource ingestion is visible in the Asset Inventory for the onboarded account, but no alerts are being generated for the configuration assets in the account.

Config policies are enabled in the Prisma Cloud Enterprise tenant, with those policies associated to existing alert rules. ROL statements on the investigate matching those policies return config resource results successfully.

Why are no alerts being generated?

Options:

A.

The public cloud account is not associated with an alert notification.

B.

The public cloud account does not have audit trail ingestion enabled.

C.

The public cloud account does not access to configuration resources.

D.

The public cloud account is not associated with an alert rule.

Question 33

Prisma Cloud Compute has been installed on Onebox. After Prisma Cloud Console has been accessed. Defender is disconnected and keeps returning the error "No console connectivity" in the logs.

What could be causing the disconnection between Console and Defender in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Port 8083 is not open for Console and Defender communication.

B.

The license key provided to the Console is invalid.

C.

Port 8084 is not open for Console and Defender communication.

D.

Onebox script installed an older version of the Defender.

Question 34

A customer wants to monitor its Amazon Web Services (AWS) accounts via Prisma Cloud, but only needs the resource configuration to be monitored at present.

Which two pieces of information are needed to onboard this account? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

External ID

B.

CloudTrail

C.

Active Directory ID

D.

RoleARN

Question 35

Which of the following is not a supported external integration for receiving Prisma Cloud Code Security notifications?

Options:

A.

Splunk

B.

Cortex XSOAR

C.

Microsoft Teams

D.

ServiceNow

Question 36

Which role must be assigned to DevOps users who need access to deploy Container and Host Defenders in Compute?

Options:

A.

Cloud Provisioning Admin

B.

Build and Deploy Security

C.

System Admin

D.

Developer

Question 37

Which two options may be used to upgrade the Defenders with a Console v20.04 and Kubernetes deployment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Run the provided curl | bash script from Console to remove Defenders, and then use Cloud Discovery to automatically redeploy Defenders.

B.

Remove Defenders DaemonSet, and then use Cloud Discovery to automatically redeploy the Defenders.

C.

Remove Defenders, and then deploy the new DaemonSet so Defenders do not have to automatically update on each deployment.

D.

Let Defenders automatically upgrade.

Question 38

Which of the following are correct statements regarding the use of access keys? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Access keys must have an expiration date

B.

Up to two access keys can be active at any time

C.

System Admin can create access key for all users

D.

Access keys are used for API calls

Question 39

A customer has a requirement to automatically protect all Lambda functions with runtime protection. What is the process to automatically protect all the Lambda functions?

Options:

A.

Configure a function scan policy from the Defend/Vulnerabilities/Functions page.

B.

Configure serverless radar from the Defend/Compliance/Cloud Platforms page.

C.

Configure a manually embedded Lambda Defender.

D.

Configure a serverless auto-protect rule for the functions.

Question 40

Which two filters are available in the SecOps dashboard? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Time range

B.

Account Groups

C.

Service Name

D.

Cloud Region

Question 41

Prisma Cloud supports which three external systems that allow the import of vulnerabilities and provide additional context on risks in the cloud? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Splunk

B.

Qualys

C.

Amazon Inspector

D.

Amazon GuardDuty

E.

ServiceNow

Question 42

Which set of steps is the correct process for obtaining Console images for Prisma Cloud Compute Edition?

Options:

A.

To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using basic authentication: 1. Access registry.twistlock.com and authenticate using "docker login."2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using "docker pull."

B.

To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using URL authentication:1. Access registry-url-auth.twistlock.com and authenticate using the user certificate.2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using "docker pull."

C.

To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using URL authentication: 1. Access registry-auth.twistlock.com and authenticate using the user certificate.2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using "docker pull."

D.

To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using basic authentication:1. Access registry.paloaltonetworks.com and authenticate using "docker login."2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using "docker pull."

Question 43

What is the correct method for ensuring key-sensitive data related to SSNs and credit card numbers cannot be viewed in Dashboard > Data view during investigations?

Options:

A.

Go to Settings > Data > Snippet Masking and select Full Mask.

B.

Go to Settings > Data > Data Patterns, search for SSN Pattern, edit it, and modify the proximity keywords.

C.

Go to Settings > Cloud Accounts > Edit Cloud Account > Assign Account Group and select a group with limited permissions.

D.

Go to Policies > Data > Clone > Modify Objects containing Financial Information publicly exposed and change the file exposure to Private.

Question 44

An S3 bucket within AWS has generated an alert by violating the Prisma Cloud Default policy “AWS S3 buckets are accessible to public”. The policy definition follows:

config where cloud.type = 'aws' AND api.name='aws-s3api-get-bucket-acl' AND json.rule="((((acl.grants[? (@.grantee=='AllUsers')] size > 0) or policyStatus.isPublic is true) and publicAccessBlockConfiguration does not exist) or ((acl.grants[?(@.grantee=='AllUsers')] size > 0) and publicAccessBlockConfiguration.ignorePublicAcis is false) or (policyStatus.isPublic is true and publicAccessBlockConfiguration.restrictPublicBuckets is false)) and websiteConfiguration does not exist"

Why did this alert get generated?

Options:

A.

an event within the cloud account

B.

network traffic to the S3 bucket

C.

configuration of the S3 bucket

D.

anomalous behaviors

Question 45

Based on the following information, which RQL query will satisfy the requirement to identify VM hosts deployed to organization public cloud environments exposed to network traffic from the internet and affected by Text4Shell RCE (CVE-2022-42889) vulnerability?

• Network flow logs from all virtual private cloud (VPC) subnets are ingested to the Prisma Cloud Enterprise Edition tenant.

• All virtual machines (VMs) have Prisma Cloud Defender deployed.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 46

Which port should a security team use to pull data from Console’s API?

Options:

A.

53

B.

25

C.

8084

D.

8083

Question 47

A customer wants to be notified about port scanning network activities in their environment. Which policy type detects this behavior?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Port Scan

C.

Anomaly

D.

Config

Question 48

Which Prisma Cloud policy type can protect against malware?

Options:

A.

Event

B.

Network

C.

Config

D.

Data

Question 49

Which data storage type is supported by Prisma Cloud Data Security?

Options:

A.

IBM Cloud Object Storage

B.

AWS S3 buckets

C.

Oracle Object Storage

D.

Google storage class

Question 50

When configuring SSO how many IdP providers can be enabled for all the cloud accounts monitored by Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

2

B.

4

C.

1

D.

3

Question 51

A DevOps lead reviewed some system logs and notices some odd behavior that could be a data exfiltration attempt. The DevOps lead only has access to vulnerability data in Prisma Cloud Compute, so the DevOps lead passes this information to SecOps.

Which pages in Prisma Cloud Compute can the SecOps lead use to investigate the runtime aspects of this attack?

Options:

A.

The SecOps lead should investigate the attack using Vulnerability Explorer and Runtime Radar.

B.

The SecOps lead should use Incident Explorer and Compliance Explorer.

C.

The SecOps lead should use the Incident Explorer page and Monitor > Events > Container Audits.

D.

The SecOps lead should review the vulnerability scans in the CI/CD process to determine blame.

Question 52

Which statement accurately characterizes SSO Integration on Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

Prisma Cloud supports IdP initiated SSO, and its SAML endpoint supports the POST and GET methods.

B.

Okta, Azure Active Directory, PingID, and others are supported via SAML.

C.

An administrator can configure different Identity Providers (IdP) for all the cloud accounts that Prisma Cloud monitors.

D.

An administrator who needs to access the Prisma Cloud API can use SSO after configuration.

Question 53

A customer wants to turn on Auto Remediation.

Which policy type has the built-in CLI command for remediation?

Options:

A.

Anomaly

B.

Audit Event

C.

Network

D.

Config

Question 54

Given the following audit event activity snippet:

Which RQL will be triggered by the audit event?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 55

An administrator for Prisma Cloud needs to obtain a graphical view to monitor all connections, including connections across hosts and connections to any configured network objects.

Which setting does the administrator enable or configure to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

ADEM

B.

WAAS Analytics

C.

Telemetry

D.

Cloud Native Network Firewall

E.

Host Insight

Question 56

Which two CI/CD plugins are supported by Prisma Cloud as part of its DevOps Security? (Choose two.).

Options:

A.

BitBucket

B.

Visual Studio Code

C.

CircleCI

D.

IntelliJ

Question 57

While writing a custom RQL with array objects in the investigate page, which type of auto-suggestion a user can leverage?

Options:

A.

Auto-sugestion for array objects that are useful for comparing between arrays

B.

Auto-suggestion is not available for array objects

C.

Auto-suggestion for array objects that are useful for categorization of resource parameters

D.

Auto-suggestion for array objects that are useful for comparing between array elements

Question 58

Given a default deployment of Console, a customer needs to identify the alerted compliance checks that are set by default.

Where should the customer navigate in Console?

Options:

A.

Monitor > Compliance

B.

Defend > Compliance

C.

Manage > Compliance

D.

Custom > Compliance

Question 59

Given an existing ECS Cluster, which option shows the steps required to install the Console in Amazon ECS?

Options:

A.

The console cannot natively run in an ECS cluster. A onebox deployment should be used.

B.

Download and extract the release tarballEnsure that each node has its own storage for Console data Create the Console task definitionDeploy the task definition

C.

Download and extract release tarball Download task from AWSCreate the Console task definition Deploy the task definition

D.

Download and extract the release tarball Create an EFS file system and mount to each node in the cluster Create the Console task definition Deploy the task definition

Question 60

Prisma Cloud cannot integrate which of the following secrets managers?

Options:

A.

IBM Secret Manager

B.

AzureKey Vault

C.

HashiCorp Vault

D.

AWS Secret Manager

Question 61

A Prisma Cloud Administrator onboarded an AWS cloud account with agentless scanning enabled successfully to Prisma Cloud. Which item requires deploying defenders to be able to inspect the risk on the onboarded AWS account?

Options:

A.

Host compliances risks

B.

Container runtime risks

C.

Container vulnerability risks

D.

Host vulnerability risks

Question 62

Which policy type provides information about connections from suspicious IPs in a customer database?

Options:

A.

Anomaly

B.

Threat detection

C.

Network

D.

AutoFocus

Question 63

Which statement about build and run policies is true?

Options:

A.

Build policies enable you to check for security misconfigurations in the IaC templates.

B.

Every type of policy has auto-remediation enabled by default.

C.

The four main types of policies are: Audit Events, Build, Network, and Run.

D.

Run policies monitor network activities in the environment and check for potential issues during runtime.

Question 64

Which statement is true about obtaining Console images for Prisma Cloud Compute Edition?

Options:

A.

To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using basic auth:1.Access registry.paloaltonetworks.com, and authenticate using ‘docker login’.2.Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.

B.

To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using basic auth:1.Access registry.twistlock.com, and authenticate using ‘docker login’.2.Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.

C.

To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using URL auth:1.Access registry-url-auth.twistlock.com, and authenticate using the user certificate.2.Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.

D.

To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using URL auth:1.Access registry-auth.twistlock.com, and authenticate using the user certificate.2.Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.

Question 65

Which serverless cloud provider is covered by the "overly permissive service access" compliance check?

Options:

A.

Alibaba

B.

Azure

C.

Amazon Web Services (AWS)

D.

Google Cloud Platform (GCP)

Question 66

In Azure, what permissions need to be added to Management Groups to allow Prisma Cloud to calculate net effective permissions?

Options:

A.

Microsoft.Management/managementGroups/descendants/read

B.

Microsoft.Management/managementGroups/descendants/calculate

C.

PaloAltoNetworks.PrismaCloud/managementGroups/descendants/read

D.

PaloAltoNetworks.PrismaCloud/managementGroups/

Question 67

Which container image scan is constructed correctly?

Options:

A.

twistcli images scan --docker-address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 myimage/ latest

B.

twistcli images scan --address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 myimage/latest

C.

twistcli images scan --address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 --container myimage/ latest

D.

twistcli images scan --address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 --container myimage/ latest --details

Question 68

The compliance team needs to associate Prisma Cloud policies with compliance frameworks. Which option should the team select to perform this task?

Options:

A.

Custom Compliance

B.

Policies

C.

Compliance

D.

Alert Rules

Question 69

Which role does Prisma Cloud play when configuring SSO?

Options:

A.

JIT

B.

Service provider

C.

SAML

D.

Identity provider issuer

Question 70

What is an example of an outbound notification within Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

AWS Inspector

B.

Qualys

C.

Tenable

D.

PagerDuty

Question 71

When would a policy apply if the policy is set under Defend > Vulnerability > Images > Deployed?

Options:

A.

when a serverless repository is scanned

B.

when a Container is started form an Image

C.

when the Image is built and when a Container is started form an Image

D.

when the Image is built

Question 72

A customer has Defenders connected to Prisma Cloud Enterprise. The Defenders are deployed as a DaemonSet in OpenShift.

How should the administrator get a report of vulnerabilities on hosts?

Options:

A.

Navigate to Monitor > Vulnerabilities > CVE Viewer

B.

Navigate to Defend > Vulnerabilities > VM Images

C.

Navigate to Defend > Vulnerabilities > Hosts

D.

Navigate to Monitor > Vulnerabilities > Hosts

Question 73

Which three types of classifications are available in the Data Security module? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Personally identifiable information

B.

Malicious IP

C.

Compliance standard

D.

Financial information

E.

Malware

Question 74

What are two key requirements for integrating Okta with Prisma Cloud when multiple Amazon Web Services (AWS) cloud accounts are being used? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Super Administrator permissions

B.

A valid subscription for the IAM security module

C.

An Okta API token for the primary AWS account

D.

Multiple instances of the Okta app

Question 75

Given the following information, which twistcli command should be run if an administrator were to exec into a running container and scan it from within using an access token for authentication?

• Console is located at

• Token is: TOKEN_VALUE

• Report ID is: REPORTJD

• Container image running is: myimage:latest

Options:

A.

twistcli images scan --address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local —token TOKENVALUE —containerized —details myimage:latest

B.

twistcli images scan —console-address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local —auth-token MY_TOKEN —local-scan —details myimage:latest

C.

twistcli images scan —address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local —token TOKEN_VALUE —containerized --details REPORT_ID

D.

twistcli images scan --console-address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local --auth-token TOKEN_VALUE —containerized —vulnerability-details REPORT_ID

Question 76

Which of the below actions would indicate – “The timestamp on the compliance dashboard?

Options:

A.

indicates the most recent data

B.

indicates the most recent alert generated

C.

indicates when the data was ingested

D.

indicates when the data was aggregated for the results displayed

Question 77

The attempted bytes count displays?

Options:

A.

traffic that is either denied by the security group or firewall rules or traffic that was reset by a host or virtual machine that received the packet and responded with a RST packet.

B.

traffic that is either denied by the security group or firewall rules.

C.

traffic that is either denied by the firewall rules or traffic that was reset by a host or virtual machine that received the packet and responded with a RST packet.

D.

traffic denied by the security group or traffic that was reset by a host or virtual machine that received the packet and responded with a RST packet.

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