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Free and Premium Paloalto Networks CloudSec-Pro Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 258 questions

Palo Alto Networks Cloud Security Professional Questions and Answers

Question 1

The Compute Console has recently been upgraded, and the administrator plans to delay upgrading the Defenders and the Twistcli tool until some of the team’s resources have been rescaled. The Console is currently one major release ahead.

What will happen as a result of the Console upgrade?

Options:

A.

Defenders will disconnect, and Twistcli will stop working.

B.

Defenders will disconnect, and Twistcli will remain working.

C.

Both Defenders and Twistcli will remain working.

D.

Defenders will remain connected, and Twistcli will stop working.

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Question 2

Which three OWASP protections are part of Prisma Cloud Web-Application and API Security (WAAS) rule? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

DoS Protection

B.

Local file inclusion

C.

SQL injection

D.

Suspicious binary

E.

Shellshock

Question 3

Which method should be used to authenticate to Prisma Cloud Enterprise programmatically?

Options:

A.

single sign-on

B.

SAML

C.

basic authentication

D.

access key

Question 4

Which two processes ensure that builds can function after a Console upgrade? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

allowing Jenkins to automatically update the plugin

B.

updating any build environments that have twistcli included to use the latest version

C.

configuring build pipelines to download twistcli at the start of each build

D.

creating a new policy that allows older versions of twistcli to connect the Console

Question 5

What are two ways to scan container images in Jenkins pipelines? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

twistcli

B.

Jenkins Docker plugin

C.

Compute Jenkins plugin

D.

Compute Azure DevOps plugin

E.

Prisma Cloud Visual Studio Code plugin with Jenkins integration

Question 6

While writing a custom RQL with array objects in the investigate page, which type of auto-suggestion a user can leverage?

Options:

A.

Auto-sugestion for array objects that are useful for comparing between arrays

B.

Auto-suggestion is not available for array objects

C.

Auto-suggestion for array objects that are useful for categorization of resource parameters

D.

Auto-suggestion for array objects that are useful for comparing between array elements

Question 7

Which ban for DoS protection will enforce a rate limit for users who are unable to post five (5) “. tar.gz" files within five (5) seconds?

Options:

A.

One with an average rate of 5 and file extensions match on “. tar.gz" on Web Application and API Security (WAAS)

B.

One with an average rate of 5 and file extensions match on “. tar.gz" on Cloud Native Network Firewall (CNNF)

C.

One with a burst rate of 5 and file extensions match on “. tar.gz" on Web Application and API Security (WAAS) *

D.

One with a burst rate of 5 and file extensions match on “. tar.gz" on Cloud Native Network Firewall (CNNF)

Question 8

Where can a user submit an external new feature request?

Options:

A.

Aha

B.

Help Center

C.

Support Portal

D.

Feature Request

Question 9

What is a benefit of the Cloud Discovery feature?

Options:

A.

It does not require any specific permissions to be granted before use.

B.

It helps engineers find all cloud-native services being used only on AWS.

C.

It offers coverage for serverless functions on AWS only.

D.

It enables engineers to continuously monitor all accounts and report on the services that are unprotected.

Question 10

What is the order of steps to create a custom network policy?

(Drag the steps into the correct order of occurrence, from the first step to the last.)

Options:

Question 11

What is the behavior of Defenders when the Console is unreachable during upgrades?

Options:

A.

Defenders continue to alert, but not enforce, using the policies and settings most recently cached before upgrading the Console.

B.

Defenders will fail closed until the web-socket can be re-established.

C.

Defenders will fail open until the web-socket can be re-established.

D.

Defenders continue to alert and enforce using the policies and settings most recently cached before upgrading the Console.

Question 12

A customer does not want alerts to be generated from network traffic that originates from trusted internal networks.

Which setting should you use to meet this customer’s request?

Options:

A.

Trusted Login IP Addresses

B.

Anomaly Trusted List

C.

Trusted Alert IP Addresses

D.

Enterprise Alert Disposition

Question 13

Where can Defender debug logs be viewed? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

/var/lib/twistlock/defender.log

B.

From the Console, Manage > Defenders > Manage > Defenders. Select the Defender from the deployed Defenders list, then click Actions > Logs

C.

From the Console, Manage > Defenders > Deploy > Defenders. Select the Defender from the deployed Defenders list, then click Actions > Logs

D.

/var/lib/twistlock/log/defender.log

Question 14

A customer has a development environment with 50 connected Defenders. A maintenance window is set for Monday to upgrade 30 stand-alone Defenders in the development environment, but there is no maintenance window available until Sunday to upgrade the remaining 20 stand-alone Defenders.

Which recommended action manages this situation?

Options:

A.

Go to Manage > Defender > Manage, then click Defenders, and use the Scheduler to choose which Defenders will be automatically upgraded during the maintenance window.

B.

Find a maintenance window that is suitable to upgrade all stand-alone Defenders in the development environment.

C.

Upgrade a subset of the Defenders by clicking the individual Actions > Upgrade button in the row that corresponds to the Defender that should be upgraded during the maintenance window.

D.

Open a support case with Palo Alto Networks to arrange an automatic upgrade.

Question 15

Which resources can be added in scope while creating a vulnerability policy for continuous integration?

Options:

A.

Labels and AccountID

B.

Images and labels

C.

Images and cluster

D.

Images and containers

Question 16

Which two filters are available in the SecOps dashboard? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Time range

B.

Account Groups

C.

Service Name

D.

Cloud Region

Question 17

Which three Orchestrator types are supported when deploying Defender? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Red Hat OpenShift

B.

Amazon ECS

C.

Docker Swarm

D.

Azure ACS

E.

Kubernetes

Question 18

Move the steps to the correct order to set up and execute a serverless scan using AWS DevOps.

Options:

Question 19

A customer wants to turn on Auto Remediation.

Which policy type has the built-in CLI command for remediation?

Options:

A.

Anomaly

B.

Audit Event

C.

Network

D.

Config

Question 20

How often do Defenders share logs with Console?

Options:

A.

Every 10 minutes

B.

Every 30 minutes

C.

Every 1 hour

D.

Real time

Question 21

A security team has a requirement to ensure the environment is scanned for vulnerabilities. What are three options for configuring vulnerability policies? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

individual actions based on package type

B.

output verbosity for blocked requests

C.

apply policy only when vendor fix is available

D.

individual grace periods for each severity level

E.

customize message on blocked requests

Question 22

When would a policy apply if the policy is set under Defend > Vulnerability > Images > Deployed?

Options:

A.

when a serverless repository is scanned

B.

when a Container is started form an Image

C.

when the Image is built and when a Container is started form an Image

D.

when the Image is built

Question 23

What is the maximum number of access keys a user can generate in Prisma Cloud with a System Admin role?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 24

Taking which action will automatically enable all severity levels?

Options:

A.

Navigate to Settings > Enterprise Settings and enable all severity levels in the alarm center.

B.

Navigate to Policies > Settings and enable all severity levels in the alarm center.

C.

Navigate to Settings > Enterprise Settings and ensure all severity levels are checked under "auto-enable default policies.

D.

Navigate to Policies > Settings and ensure all severity levels are checked under "auto-enable default policies.

Question 25

How is the scope of each rule determined in the Prisma Cloud Compute host runtime policy?

Options:

A.

By the collection assigned to that rule

B.

By the target workload

C.

By the order in which it is created

D.

By the type of network traffic it controls

Question 26

The security team wants to enable the “block” option under compliance checks on the host.

What effect will this option have if it violates the compliance check?

Options:

A.

The host will be taken offline.

B.

Additional hosts will be prevented form starting.

C.

Containers on a host will be stopped.

D.

No containers will be allowed to start on that host.

Question 27

Which two options may be used to upgrade the Defenders with a Console v20.04 and Kubernetes deployment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Run the provided curl | bash script from Console to remove Defenders, and then use Cloud Discovery to automatically redeploy Defenders.

B.

Remove Defenders DaemonSet, and then use Cloud Discovery to automatically redeploy the Defenders.

C.

Remove Defenders, and then deploy the new DaemonSet so Defenders do not have to automatically update on each deployment.

D.

Let Defenders automatically upgrade.

Question 28

Which action must be taken to enable a user to interact programmatically with the Prisma Cloud APIs and for a nonhuman entity to be enabled for the access keys?

Options:

A.

Create a role with System Admin and generate access keys.

B.

Create a user with a role that has minimal access.

C.

Create a role with Account Group Read Only and assign it to the user.

D.

Create a role and assign it to the Service Account.

Question 29

The Unusual protocol activity (Internal) network anomaly is generating too many alerts. An administrator has been asked to tune it to the option that will generate the least number of events without disabling it entirely.

Which strategy should the administrator use to achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

Disable the policy

B.

Set the Alert Disposition to Conservative

C.

Change the Training Threshold to Low

D.

Set Alert Disposition to Aggressive

Question 30

A customer wants to be notified about port scanning network activities in their environment. Which policy type detects this behavior?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Port Scan

C.

Anomaly

D.

Config

Question 31

A user from an organization is unable to log in to Prisma Cloud Console after having logged in the previous day.

Which area on the Console will provide input on this issue?

Options:

A.

SSO

B.

Audit Logs

C.

Users & Groups

D.

Access Control

Question 32

What is the function of the external ID when onboarding a new Amazon Web Services (AWS) account in Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

It is a unique identifier needed only when Monitor & Protect mode is selected.

B.

It is the resource name for the Prisma Cloud Role.

C.

It is a UUID that establishes a trust relationship between the Prisma Cloud account and the AWS account in order to extract data.

D.

It is the default name of the PrismaCloudApp stack.

Question 33

Given the following information, which twistcli command should be run if an administrator were to exec into a running container and scan it from within using an access token for authentication?

• Console is located at

• Token is: TOKEN_VALUE

• Report ID is: REPORTJD

• Container image running is: myimage:latest

Options:

A.

twistcli images scan --address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local —token TOKENVALUE —containerized —details myimage:latest

B.

twistcli images scan —console-address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local —auth-token MY_TOKEN —local-scan —details myimage:latest

C.

twistcli images scan —address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local —token TOKEN_VALUE —containerized --details REPORT_ID

D.

twistcli images scan --console-address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local --auth-token TOKEN_VALUE —containerized —vulnerability-details REPORT_ID

Question 34

A customer has serverless functions that are deployed in multiple clouds.

Which serverless cloud provider is covered be “overly permissive service access” compliance check?

Options:

A.

Alibaba

B.

GCP

C.

AWS

D.

Azure

Question 35

Which two required request headers interface with Prisma Cloud API? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Content-type:application/json

B.

x-redlock-auth

C.

>x-redlock-request-id

D.

Content-type:application/xml

Question 36

Which three platforms support the twistcli tool? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Linux

B.

Windows

C.

Android

D.

MacOS

E.

Solaris

Question 37

Which two attributes of policies can be fetched using API? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

policy label

B.

policy signature

C.

policy mode

D.

policy violation

Question 38

You have onboarded a public cloud account into Prisma Cloud Enterprise. Configuration Resource ingestion is visible in the Asset Inventory for the onboarded account, but no alerts are being generated for the configuration assets in the account.

Config policies are enabled in the Prisma Cloud Enterprise tenant, with those policies associated to existing alert rules. ROL statements on the investigate matching those policies return config resource results successfully.

Why are no alerts being generated?

Options:

A.

The public cloud account is not associated with an alert notification.

B.

The public cloud account does not have audit trail ingestion enabled.

C.

The public cloud account does not access to configuration resources.

D.

The public cloud account is not associated with an alert rule.

Question 39

Which RQL query type is invalid?

Options:

A.

Event

B.

IAM

C.

Incident

D.

Config

Question 40

Which two proper agentless scanning modes are supported with Prisma Cloud? (Choose two).

Options:

A.

Spoke Account Mode

B.

Hub Account Mode

C.

Same Account Mode

D.

Main Account Mode

Question 41

What happens when a role is deleted in Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

The access key associated with that role is automatically deleted.

B.

Any integrations that use the access key to make calls to Prisma Cloud will stop working.

C.

The users associated with that role will be deleted.

D.

Any user who uses that key will be deleted.

Question 42

A security team has been asked to create a custom policy.

Which two methods can the team use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

add a new policy

B.

clone an existing policy

C.

disable an out-of-the-box policy

D.

edit the query in the out-of-the-box policy

Question 43

Which three actions are required in order to use the automated method within Azure Cloud to streamline the process of using remediation in the identity and access management (IAM) module? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Install boto3 & requests library.

B.

Configure IAM Azure remediation script.

C.

Integrate with Azure Service Bus.

D.

Configure IAM AWS remediation script.

E.

Install azure.servicebus & requests library.

Question 44

Which component(s), if any, will Palo Alto Networks host and run when a customer purchases Prisma Cloud Enterprise Edition?

Options:

A.

Defenders

B.

Console

C.

Jenkins

D.

twistcli

Question 45

One of the resources on the network has triggered an alert for a Default Config policy.

Given the following resource JSON snippet:

Which RQL detected the vulnerability?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 46

Which two variables must be modified to achieve automatic remediation for identity and access management (IAM) alerts in Azure cloud? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

API_ENDPOINT

B.

SQS_QUEUE_NAME

C.

SB_QUEUE_KEY

D.

YOUR_ACCOUNT_NUMBER

Question 47

An administrator has been tasked with creating a custom service that will download any existing compliance report from a Prisma Cloud Enterprise tenant.

In which order will the APIs be executed for this service?

(Drag the steps into the correct order of occurrence, from the first step to the last.)

Options:

Question 48

The development team wants to block Cross Site Scripting attacks from pods in its environment. How should the team construct the CNAF policy to protect against this attack?

Options:

A.

create a Host CNAF policy, targeted at a specific resource, check the box for XSS attack protection, and set the action to “prevent”.

B.

create a Container CNAF policy, targeted at a specific resource, check the box for XSS attack protection, and set the action to alert.

C.

create a Container CNAF policy, targeted at a specific resource, check the box for XSS protection, and set the action to prevent.

D.

create a Container CNAF policy, targeted at a specific resource, and they should set “Explicitly allowed inbound IP sources” to the IP address of the pod.

Question 49

In which Console menu would an administrator verify whether a custom compliance check is failing or passing?

Options:

A.

Monitor > Compliance

B.

Container Security > Compliance

C.

Defend > Compliance

D.

Custom > Compliance

Question 50

The attempted bytes count displays?

Options:

A.

traffic that is either denied by the security group or firewall rules or traffic that was reset by a host or virtual machine that received the packet and responded with a RST packet.

B.

traffic that is either denied by the security group or firewall rules.

C.

traffic that is either denied by the firewall rules or traffic that was reset by a host or virtual machine that received the packet and responded with a RST packet.

D.

traffic denied by the security group or traffic that was reset by a host or virtual machine that received the packet and responded with a RST packet.

Question 51

Which categories does the Adoption Advisor use to measure adoption progress for Cloud Security Posture Management?

Options:

A.

Visibility, Compliance, Governance, and Threat Detection and Response

B.

Network, Anomaly, and Audit Event

C.

Visibility, Security, and Compliance

D.

Foundations, Advanced, and Optimize

Question 52

What is an automatically correlated set of individual events generated by the firewall and runtime sensors to identify unfolding attacks?

Options:

A.

policy

B.

incident

C.

audit

D.

anomaly

Question 53

How does assigning an account group to an administrative user on Prisma Cloud help restrict access to resources?

Options:

A.

It restricts access only to certain types of resources within the cloud account.

B.

It restricts access to all resources and data within the cloud account.

C.

It restricts access only to the resources and data that pertains to the cloud account(s) within an account group.

D.

It does not restrict access to any resources within the cloud account.

Question 54

A customer is interested in PCI requirements and needs to ensure that no privilege containers can start in the environment.

Which action needs to be set for “do not use privileged containers”?

Options:

A.

Prevent

B.

Alert

C.

Block

D.

Fail

Question 55

Put the steps of integrating Okta with Prisma Cloud in the right order in relation to CIEM or SSO okra integration.

Options:

Question 56

An administrator has added a Cloud account on Prisma Cloud and then deleted it.

What will happen if the deleted account is added back on Prisma Cloud within a 24-hour period?

Options:

A.

No alerts will be displayed.

B.

Existing alerts will be displayed again.

C.

New alerts will be generated.

D.

Existing alerts will be marked as resolved.

Question 57

What is the default namespace created by Defender DaemonSet during deployment?

Options:

A.

Redlock

B.

Defender

C.

Twistlock

D.

Default

Question 58

Where are Top Critical CVEs for deployed images found?

Options:

A.

Defend → Vulnerabilities → Code Repositories

B.

Defend → Vulnerabilities → Images

C.

Monitor → Vulnerabilities → Vulnerabilities Explorer

D.

Monitor → Vulnerabilities → Images

Question 59

A manager informs the SOC that one or more RDS instances have been compromised and the SOC needs to make sure production RDS instances are NOT publicly accessible.

Which action should the SOC take to follow security best practices?

Options:

A.

Enable “AWS S3 bucket is publicly accessible” policy and manually remediate each alert.

B.

Enable “AWS RDS database instance is publicly accessible” policy and for each alert, check that it is a production instance, and then manually remediate.

C.

Enable “AWS S3 bucket is publicly accessible” policy and add policy to an auto-remediation alert rule.

D.

Enable “AWS RDS database instance is publicly accessible” policy and add policy to an auto-remediation alert rule.

Question 60

If you are required to run in an air-gapped environment, which product should you install?

Options:

A.

Prisma Cloud Jenkins Plugin

B.

Prisma Cloud Compute Edition

C.

Prisma Cloud with self-hosted plugin

D.

Prisma Cloud Enterprise Edition

Question 61

What are the three states of the Container Runtime Model? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Learning

C.

Active

D.

Running

E.

Archived

Question 62

Which of the following is a reason for alert dismissal?

Options:

A.

SNOOZED_AUTO_CLOSE

B.

ALERT_RULE_ADDED

C.

POLICY_UPDATED

D.

USER_DELETED

Question 63

A customer has a requirement to scan serverless functions for vulnerabilities.

What is the correct option to configure scanning?

Options:

A.

Configure serverless radar from the Defend > Compliance > Cloud Platforms page.

B.

Embed serverless Defender into the function.

C.

Configure a function scan policy from the Defend > Vulnerabilities > Functions page.

D.

Use Lambda layers to deploy a Defender into the function.

Question 64

Put the steps involved to configure and scan using the IntelliJ plugin in the correct order.

Options:

Question 65

Anomaly policy uses which two logs to identify unusual network and user activity? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Network flow

B.

Audit

C.

Traffic

D.

Users

Question 66

What are two key requirements for integrating Okta with Prisma Cloud when multiple Amazon Web Services (AWS) cloud accounts are being used? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Super Administrator permissions

B.

A valid subscription for the IAM security module

C.

An Okta API token for the primary AWS account

D.

Multiple instances of the Okta app

Question 67

An administrator sees that a runtime audit has been generated for a Container. The audit message is “DNS resolution of suspicious name wikipedia.com. type A”.

Why would this message appear as an audit?

Options:

A.

The DNS was not learned as part of the Container model or added to the DNS allow list.

B.

This is a DNS known to be a source of malware.

C.

The process calling out to this domain was not part of the Container model.

D.

The Layer7 firewall detected this as anomalous behavior.

Question 68

Which container scan is constructed correctly?

Options:

A.

twistcli images scan -u api -p api --address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 -- container myimage/latest

B.

twistcli images scan --docker-address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 myimage/ latest

C.

twistcli images scan -u api -p api --address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 --details myimage/latest

D.

twistcli images scan -u api -p api --docker-address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 myimage/latest

Question 69

Which option identifies the Prisma Cloud Compute Edition?

Options:

A.

Package installed with APT

B.

Downloadable, self-hosted software

C.

Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)

D.

Plugin to Prisma Cloud

Question 70

Which RQL will trigger the following audit event activity?

Options:

A.

event from cloud.audit_logs where operation ConsoleLogin AND user = 'root’

B.

event from cloud.audit_logs where operation IN('cloudsql.instances.update','cloudsql.sslCerts.create', cloudsql.instances.create','cloudsq

C.

event from cloud.audit_logs where cloud.service = s3.amazonaws.com' AND json.rule = $.userAgent contains 'parrot1

D.

event from cloud.audit_logs where operation IN ( 'GetBucketWebsite', 'PutBucketWebsite', 'DeleteBucketWebsite')

Question 71

Which ROL query is used to detect certain high-risk activities executed by a root user in AWS?

Options:

A.

event from cloud.audit_logs where operation IN ( 'ChangePassword', 'ConsoleLogin', 'DeactivateMFADevice', 'DeleteAccessKey' , 'DeleteAlarms' ) AND user = 'root'

B.

event from cloud.security_logs where operation IN ( 'ChangePassword', 'ConsoleLogin', 'DeactivateMFADevice', 'DeleteAccessKey' , 'DeleteAlarms' ) AND user = 'root'

C.

config from cloud.audit_logs where operation IN ( 'ChangePassword', 'ConsoleLogin', 'DeactivateMFADevice', 'DeleteAccessKey', 'DeleteAlarms' ) AND user = 'root'

D.

event from cloud.audit_logs where Risk.Level = 'high' AND user = 'root'

Question 72

Console is running in a Kubernetes cluster, and Defenders need to be deployed on nodes within this cluster.

How should the Defenders in Kubernetes be deployed using the default Console service name?

Options:

A.

From the deployment page in Console, choose "twistlock-console" for Console identifier, generate DaemonSet file, and apply DaemonSet to the twistlock namespace.

B.

From the deployment page, configure the cloud credential in Console and allow cloud discovery to auto-protect the Kubernetes nodes.

C.

From the deployment page in Console, choose "twistlock-console" for Console identifier and run the "curl | bash" script on the master Kubernetes node.

D.

From the deployment page in Console, choose "pod name" for Console identifier, generate DaemonSet file, and apply the DaemonSet to twistlock namespace.

Question 73

Which intensity setting for anomaly alerts is used for the measurement of 100 events over 30 days?

Options:

A.

High

B.

Medium

C.

Low

D.

Very High

Question 74

You are an existing customer of Prisma Cloud Enterprise. You want to onboard a public cloud account and immediately see all of the alerts associated with this account based off ALL of your tenant’s existing enabled policies. There is no requirement to send alerts from this account to a downstream application at this time.

Which option shows the steps required during the alert rule creation process to achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

Ensure the public cloud account is assigned to an account group Assign the confirmed account group to alert ruleSelect “select all policies” checkbox as part of the alert rule Confirm the alert rule

B.

Ensure the public cloud account is assigned to an account group Assign the confirmed account group to alert ruleSelect one or more policies checkbox as part of the alert rule Confirm the alert rule

C.

Ensure the public cloud account is assigned to an account group Assign the confirmed account group to alert ruleSelect one or more policies as part of the alert rule Add alert notificationsConfirm the alert rule

D.

Ensure the public cloud account is assigned to an account group Assign the confirmed account group to alert ruleSelect “select all policies” checkbox as part of the alert rule Add alert notificationsConfirm the alert rule

Question 75

A customer has a requirement to automatically protect all Lambda functions with runtime protection. What is the process to automatically protect all the Lambda functions?

Options:

A.

Configure a function scan policy from the Defend/Vulnerabilities/Functions page.

B.

Configure serverless radar from the Defend/Compliance/Cloud Platforms page.

C.

Configure a manually embedded Lambda Defender.

D.

Configure a serverless auto-protect rule for the functions.

Question 76

On which cloud service providers can new API release information for Prisma Cloud be received?

Options:

A.

AWS. Azure. GCP. Oracle, IBM

B.

AWS. Azure. GCP, IBM, Alibaba

C.

AWS. Azure. GCP. Oracle, Alibaba

D.

AWS. Azure. GCP, IBM

Question 77

Which data security default policy is able to scan for vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Objects containing Vulnerabilities

B.

Objects containing Threats

C.

Objects containing Malware

D.

Objects containing Exploits

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Total 258 questions