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NABP FPGEE Dumps

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Total 426 questions

Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Questions and Answers

Question 1

Effect of diltiazem is:

Options:

A.

May increase heart rate

B.

Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

C.

May decrease heart rate

D.

Inhibits basal gastric acid secretion

E.

Decreases AV conduction

Question 2

Effect of cascara is:

Options:

A.

Decreases water absorption

B.

Stimulates segmentation

C.

Decreases meal-stimulated gastric acid secretion

D.

May increase triglycerides

E.

Afterload increase

Question 3

Indication of ticarcillin is:

Options:

A.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

B.

Varicella zoster virus

C.

Myocardial infarction

D.

Generalized motor seizures

E.

Bone marrow failure states (aplastic anemia, myelodysplasias) (investigational)

Question 4

Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

Options:

A.

Gastritis

B.

Peptic Ulcers

C.

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

D.

Thalamus hypertrophy

Question 5

Mechanism of action of FK506 is:

Options:

A.

Reduces calcium influx into neurons

B.

Inhibits calcineurin

C.

Inhibits phospholipase C

D.

Inhibits phospholipid synthesis

E.

Induces DNA damage under anaerobic conditions

Question 6

Class of cilastin is:

Options:

A.

Azoles

B.

ACE inhibitors

C.

Retinoids

D.

Dehydropeptidase I inhibitors

E.

K sparing diuretics

Question 7

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Options:

A.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

B.

Inhibits phospholipase C

C.

Mitotic spindle poison

D.

Inhibits transpeptidase

E.

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

Question 8

Side effect of clindamycin is:

Options:

A.

Colitis (by Chlostridium difficili)

B.

Malabsorption

C.

Constipation

D.

Hypoglycemia

E.

Hepatotoxicity

Question 9

Class of demeclocycline is:

Options:

A.

Analgesics

B.

Inotropic agents

C.

Penicillins

D.

Antithyroid agents

E.

Aquaretics

Question 10

Mechanism of action of cefoxitin is:

Options:

A.

monoamine reuptake inhibitor

B.

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

C.

Inhibits activation of GPIIb/IIIa

D.

Inhibits transpeptidase

E.

Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

Question 11

Mechanism of action of neomycin is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

B.

Blocks K channels

C.

Blocks Na channels

D.

Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome

E.

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

Question 12

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

Options:

A.

Valproic acid

B.

Quinidine

C.

Isoniazid

D.

Ethosuximide

Question 13

Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?

Options:

A.

CHF

B.

Tachycardia

C.

AV block

D.

Sedative appearance

Question 14

Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Options:

A.

Mexiletine

B.

Aminodarone

C.

Quinidine

D.

Procainamide

Question 15

Mechanism of action of amiloride is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

B.

Modulation of CD3 receptor from the cell surface

C.

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

D.

Aldosterone antagonist

E.

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Question 16

What would be the preferred route of metabolism of succinyl choline?

Options:

A.

Ester hydrolysis

B.

N-oxidation

C.

Glucuronide conjugation

D.

A & B

E.

All of the above

Question 17

Drugs used in the treatment of meningitis are all of the following, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Penicillins

B.

Cephalosporins

C.

Gentamycin

D.

Streptomycin

E.

Sulfonamides

Question 18

Mechanism of inhibit protein synthesis is characteristic of all the following antibiotics, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Aminoglycosides

B.

Tetracycline

C.

Cephalexin

D.

Chloramphenicol

E.

Clindamycin

Question 19

Which of the following agents can be classified as macrolide antibiotics?

I- Azithromycin

II- Clarithromycin

III- Erythromycin

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 20

Penicillin should be administrated 1 hour before meals or 2 to 3 hours after meals in order to:

I- Improve the bioavailability

II- Maximize the dissolution rate

III- Avoid interaction with calcium ions

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 21

Which of the following is NOT an anti-fungal drug?

Options:

A.

Amphotericin B

B.

Metronidazole

C.

Griseofulvin

D.

Nystatin

E.

Clotrimazole

Question 22

Example of drug used in prophylaxis of malaria includes:

Options:

A.

Cloroquine

B.

Quinine

C.

Primaquin

D.

Quinine

E.

Quinidine

Question 23

Site of metabolism of omeprazole is:

Options:

A.

None

B.

Kidneys

C.

Liver

D.

Unknown

E.

Reticuloendothelial system

Question 24

Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include:

I- Isoniazid

II- Rifampin

III- Ethambutol

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 25

Examples of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may include:

Options:

A.

Gentamycin

B.

Ceftriaxone

C.

Norfloxacin

D.

Erythromycin

E.

Penicillin

Question 26

Example of drug(s) used to treat pneumonia includes:

I- Ampicillin combined with aminoglycosides

II-Clarithromycin

III- Levofloxacin

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 27

Correct statements regarding Penicillin V may include which of the following?

I-β-lactamase sensitive antibiotic – acid stable

II- Has a short half-life because is rapidly excreted by glomerular filtration

III- Probenecid increase penicillin’s activity

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 28

Which of the following is an anti-infective agent with lowest therapeutic index?

Options:

A.

Macrolide

B.

Cephalosporins

C.

Cloramphenicol

D.

Aminoglycosides

E.

Antifungal agents

Question 29

Correct statements regarding antibiotics may include:

Options:

A.

Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill or inhibit bacterial growth

B.

Drugs derivated from natural source that can kill or inhibit bacteria growth

C.

Drug with ability only to kill bacteria

D.

Drug with ability only to inhibit bacterial growth

E.

All are wrong regarding antibiotics

Question 30

Class of tocainide is:

Options:

A.

Thiazides

B.

Antiarrhythmic agents

C.

Cephalosporins

D.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

E.

Beta blockers

Question 31

All of the following are examples of quinolone antimicrobial agents, EXCEPT

Options:

A.

Cephalexin

B.

Ofloxacin

C.

Norfloxacin

D.

Ciprofloxacin

E.

Levofloxacin

Question 32

Otitis extern, an ear infection may be best is best treated by:

Options:

A.

Ciprofloxacin eardrop

B.

Gentamicin eardrop

C.

Prednisone eardrop

D.

Levobunolol eardrop

E.

Saline solution

Question 33

Vitamin that requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine:

Options:

A.

Cyanocobalamin

B.

Folic acid

C.

Pantothenic acid

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Niacin

Question 34

Correct statements concerning vitamin E include:

I- It is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues

II- It is absorbed from the small intestine

III- Widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 35

Which vitamin can be classified as hormone?

Options:

A.

Vitamin D

B.

Vitamin D3

C.

Vitamin E

D.

Vitamin K

E.

Vitamin B12

Question 36

Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to:

Options:

A.

30s ribosomal subunit only

B.

50s ribosomal subunit only

C.

70s ribosomal subunit only

D.

30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits

E.

30s and 70s ribosomal subunits

Question 37

Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Riboflavin

C.

Niacin

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Folic acid

Question 38

The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the:

I jejunum

II ileum

III duodenum

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 39

In an enzymatic reaction, addition of competitive inhibitor leads to:

Options:

A.

Increase the rate of reaction

B.

Decrease the rate of reaction

C.

Same rate of reaction

D.

Decrease rate and increase substrate concentration

E.

Decrease both rate and substrate concentration

Question 40

Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:

I Escherichia coli

II Haemophilus influenzae

III Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 41

Diphtheria is caused by:

Options:

A.

Plasmodium.

B.

Vibrio.

C.

Shigella.

D.

Neisseria.

E.

Corynebacterium.

Question 42

Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin:

Options:

A.

Iron

B.

Zinc

C.

Cobalt

D.

Magnesium

E.

Calcium

Question 43

Hydrolysis of fixed oils may yields:

Options:

A.

Saturated + Unsaturated acids

B.

Glycerol + Fatty acids

C.

Glucose + Fatty acids

D.

Fatty acids + Triglycerides

E.

None of the above

Question 44

Which pyrimidine base is not present in DNA?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Adenine

C.

Uracil

D.

Cytosine

E.

Guanine

Question 45

Which of the following amino acid is an important precursor of hemoglobin?

Options:

A.

Alanine

B.

Proline

C.

Leucine

D.

Glycin

E.

Histadin

Question 46

In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"?

I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle

II Celiac ganglia

III Circular muscles of the iris

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 47

All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

There is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials.

B.

The liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature.

C.

The solute usually forms an amorphous glass.

D.

The eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution.

E.

Water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation.

Question 48

Which of the following is the end product of AEROBIC reactions?

Options:

A.

Pyruvic acid

B.

CO2

C.

CO2 + H2O

D.

Lactic acid

E.

Proteins

Question 49

Goals of gout treatment may include:

I- Reduce inflammation during acute attacks

II- Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid

III- Reduce the conversion of purine to uric acid

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 50

Which of the following agents is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered to have aspirin sensitivity?

Options:

A.

Ibuprofen

B.

Acetaminophen

C.

Gold therapy

D.

Azathioprine

E.

Cyclophosphamide

Question 51

The above structures are related to one another as:

Options:

A.

bioisosteres

B.

enantiomers

C.

homologs

D.

rotamers

E.

positional (structural) isomers

Question 52

Advantages of nasal route over oral route absorption of drugs may include:

I- Nasal route has a higher surface area

II- Nasal route has more blood vessels

III- Nasal route has a higher onset of absorption

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 53

Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include:

Options:

A.

With meals

B.

In emptying stomach

C.

With plenty of water

D.

With orange juice

E.

Before bedtime

Question 54

Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea include:

I Bacteroides fragilis

II Escherichia coli

III Shigella sp

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 55

Drug considered as the drug of choice in a specific asthma emergency treatment include:

Options:

A.

Salmeterol

B.

Adrenaline

C.

Albuterol

D.

Cortisone

E.

Zafirlukst

Question 56

The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Combining with acetylcholine

B.

Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase

C.

Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase

D.

Reacting at the cholinergic receptor

E.

Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending

Question 57

Allopurinol, a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, is a derivative of:

Options:

A.

Uric acid

B.

Purine

C.

Pyridine

D.

Pteridine

E.

Urate salts

Question 58

The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of phenothiazines is thought to be due to:

Options:

A.

improvement of cholinergic transmission

B.

blockade of catecholamine re-uptake

C.

blockade of dopamine receptors

D.

blockade of enkephalinergic neurons

E.

prolactin release

Question 59

The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with:

Options:

A.

salbutamol

B.

diphenhydramine

C.

adrenaline

D.

acetazolamide

E.

aminophylline

Question 60

Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity:

Options:

A.

oxazepam

B.

nitrazepam

C.

diazepam

D.

triazolam

E.

clonazepam

Question 61

Examples of drug(s) that may precipitate asthma include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Aspirin

B.

β-Blockers

C.

Ipratropium

D.

NSAIDs

E.

Cholinergic drugs

Question 62

Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it:

I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds.

II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction.

III decreases the force of myocardial contraction.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 63

If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume that:

Options:

A.

the drug is extensively metabolized.

B.

greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with moderate renal failure.

C.

entero-hepatic recycling is significant.

D.

the drug is not bound to plasma proteins.

E.

the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue.

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Total 426 questions